1. Do not operate windshield wipers _________.
    on dry windshields
  2. To prevent unneccessary deterioration of the stabilizer trim system, the stabilizer trim switch should not be used to disengage the autopilot during flight
    To prevent unneccessary deterioration of the stabilizer trim system
  3. Do not use the _________ to navigate.
    EGPWS terrain display
  4. Always comply with TCAS RA's unless _____________ and can maintain safe separation.
    the pilot considers it unsafe to do so or has better information about the source of the RA
  5. During formation flight, separation must be maintained _________.
    by any available means
  6. Never attempt to work on equipment using __ power. Call a qualified technician, as touching any one wire in contact with the airplane can be deadly.
  7. Sometimes it is not possible to determine if the CIPS generator has failed completely or the voltage is just low; therefore, to ensure proper operation of the instruments, anytime the CIPS generator power OFF light comes on, immediately ____________.
    set the CIPS GENERATOR power switch to EMER
  8. All fires will create toxic combustion products. Adequate respiratory and eye protection should be sought as soon as the primary fire emergency will permit. Breathing _______ will provide repiratory protection.
    100% oxygen
  9. Snubbers are installed only on the inboard ailerons in the lateral control system. To protect this control system from wind damage, retract the flaps to lock out the outboard airlerons whenever the airplane is subjected to wind speeds (including gusts) of ____ knots or more.
  10. Simultaneous actuation of pilot and copilot stabilizer trim switches ________ .
    in opposite directions can result in damage to the actuator electrical drive unit and shall be avoided at all times
  11. Airplane rotation will not be delayed __________ .
    in order to actuate the RGA pushbutton switch
  12. If, for some reason, neither of the RGA pushbutton switches is pressed prior to rotation, the command bars will not display the rotation (climb) command. In this condition, if one of the RGA pushbutton switches is actuated during or after rotation, the ADI command bars will display ____________.
    an excessive climb for the takeoff flare
  13. CLTR _________ used to momentarily suppress ground targets. In CLTR, stationary weather targets may be incorrectly identified as ground targets and eliminated from the screen.
    should only be
  14. Severe attenuation can be identified by ______________ behind a weather cell. These areas may contain hazardous weather and should be avoided.
    a complete blackout of data (black screen)
  15. When in the vicinity of thunderstorms, be aware that the WXR will not paint ___________. These low reflectivity targets are frequently accompanied by severe turbulence which extends well above the top of the detectable precipitation.
    frozen, dry-top precipitation (snow or hail)
  16. If a windshear warning alert occurs during final approach, pilots should consider ___________.
    executing go-around procedures
  17. When used, LOCK OVERRIDE trigger cause the landing gear to ___________. Gear could hit doors or structure, causing damage.
    retract whether in the correct position or not
  18. Prior to servicing portable oxygen bottles, ensure that _____________.
    oxygen bottle filler port and oxygen recharger outlet are free of oil or grease
  19. Oxygen duration is extremely limited when using the firefighter mask with one MA-1 portable oxygen bottle. If the firefighter mask is equipped with the compensating tube on the exhalation valve, use the __________ which keeps the mask free of smoke. If using the older mask (which has no compensating tube and no intercom) or if using the mask only for eye protection from CBM fire extinguisher, use NORM unless clearing mask of smoke.
    lowest pressure setting (30M, 42M, or EMER)
  20. The oxygen pressure in the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle should not be permitted to drop below ____ psi.
  21. Due to the automatic pressure breathing feature of the oxygen regulator, a continuous flow of oxygen at high cabin altitude (approximately ______ feet) will result if the oxygen regulator is not being used and the oxygen supply lever is in the ON position. This condition will cause a rapid loss of oxyge
  22. When positive pressures are required, it is mandatory that the ___________________. Unless special precautions are taken to ensure no leakage, the continued use of positive pressure under these conditions will result in the rapid depletion of the oxygen supply.
    oxygen mask be well fitted to the face
  23. The bunks installed as part of the crew living quarters are not stressed for side loads; therefore, do not occupy the bunks during ____________, or other procedures where side loads on the bunks may be encountered.
    takeoff and landing
  24. Do not take off on ______________ if the antiskid test indicates a system malfunction. Asymmetric brake effectiveness or blown tires could result during subsequent braking.
    a normal or training mission
  25. Takeoff distance and climbout performance can be adversely affected to a dangerous degree by _____________________.
    snow and ice accumulations on the airplane
  26. To prevent inadvertent stabilizer trim actuation during the takeoff run, ___________________________.
    avoid placing thumb near the stabilizer trim control switch
  27. Do not attempt to take off on a normal or training mission if the _________ is inoperative.
    powered rudder
  28. Failure to maintain nose gear contact with the runway until reaching rotation speed will result in a change in attitude with an associated change in position error. This change in attitude may result in ______________________.
    erroneous initial rotation commands and ground roll increases in excess of 500 feet
  29. If rotation is delayed, the command bars ________________ charted flightpath for a given climb gradient, but the path begins at the extended unstick point and provides a new climbout speed envelope whose base is higher by approximately the amount of rotation speed increase.
    still direct the approximate
  30. Prior to flap retraction, do not allow the airspeed to fall below the recommended __________________________.
    climbout airspeed (3 or 4 engines).
  31. Any unusual rolling movement encountered during flap operation could indicate an asymmetrical _______ flap condition for which corrective action will be taken immediately.
    main or fillet
  32. If a stabilizer trim runaway occurs, the pilot not flying will ________________________________________.
    set the stab trim switch to CUTOFF and be prepared to stop movement of the manual trim wheel if activation of the stab trim cutout switch does not stop movement of the stabilizer
  33. Avoid unnecessary operation of the trim actuator when stick forces are high. _________________________ if the trim actuator inadvertently stalls.
    Release the stabilizer trim control switch immediately
  34. Seat belts and shoulder harnesses shall be fastened for all takeoffs, landings, and air refuelings. During other phases of flight, the pilot in command will ensure that the occupants of the _______ seats have their seat belts fastened and adjusted.
    pilot and copilot
  35. If crosswind conditions permit, consider using 50 degrees flaps when stopping distance is critical, when RCR value is __ or less, or when threshold speed is increased more than 10 knots for gusts.
  36. [Touch and Go Landings] When using 20 degrees of flaps, rotation will be initiated at not less than reference speed. When using 30 degrees of flaps, rotation will initiated at not less than ________________.
    reference speed minus 5 knots
  37. Use extreme care when handling thermal curtains. Oil (oil or perspiration from a person’s skin), grease, or dirt on the aluminum face of the material will result in failure of the curtains to withstand the required ______ radiation.
  38. Do not use the EMERGENCY TAXI CHECKLIST for flight.
  39. Failure of the autopilot servo clutch to release, even though a corresponding switch has moved to disengage, will result in extremely high control forces. ___________________ may expedite release of the clutch, restoring normal flight controls.
    Turning the autopilot power switch off
  40. HF radio transmissions can cause improper operation and/or failure indications of the flight director system while operating in the ____________ modes
    navigation or approach
  41. Ground operation of the HF transmitter is prohibited unless the airplane is at least ____ feet from the following: (1) Unloaded weapons or warheads. (2) Loaded weapons in the airplane with the bomb bay doors open.
  42. Do not apply brakes with brake pedals while retracting landing gear. The forces generated by rapid stopping of wheels could damage ___________. If brakes are applied, through the brake pedals, record in the Form 781 so maintenance can check the strut.
    the truck leveling mechanism
  43. Do not open the cargo door or leave the cargo door open if ground winds exceed ____ knots.
  44. Do not inflate life rafts _________.
    in the airplane
  45. [Ditching] Do not release seat belt/shoulder harness until airplane __________.
    comes to a complete stop
  46. Because of the magnitude of interrelated aerodynamic effects, flying two airplanes in close vertical proximity is not safe. The pacer airplane should fly ____________.
    wing formation only
  47. Extensive secondary structural damage or system failures may occur if the ________________________________.
    landing gear is extended at speeds above the gear placard speed
  48. [Electrical fire isolation] If the emergency requires shutting down the electrical system, set the _______ to the desired position before shutdown.
    fuel valves
  49. [Fuel dumping] Do not operate the __________ and the landing gear simultaneously. Slow operation of the gear with reduced climbout performance will result. Do not operate the _________ and the wing flaps simultaneously. Slow operation of the powered rudder with reduced rudder effectiveness will result.
    forward A/R pumps, aft A/R pumps
  50. [Go-Around, Two Engines Inoperative on the Same Side, Rudder Power Inoperative] If full rudder deflection is required, _______________________________________________. The seat and rudder pedals should be adjusted so that the knee can be locked at full pedal travel, with allowance for compression of clothing and parachute or seat back cushion.
    the seat back should be in the full vertical position, or the pilot will slide up the seat back when heavy rudder is applied
  51. When landing with a differential flap configuration, use the pattern, approach, and threshold speeds for the minimum flap setting. If the leading edge flaps are not extended, add 6 knots to the approach and threshold speeds. If _____________ is zero degrees, approach and threshold speeds should not be increased as this correction is included in the chart.
    the minimum flap setting
  52. [Stabilizer Jammed- Airplane Nose Down] Do not move cg aft of ______________. This can occur very rapidly with indiscriminate fuel dumping and/or transferring. Excessive aft cg causes pitch stability problems in flight, and on the ground can result in the airplane resting on its tail.
    the established aft cg limit
  53. When landing with less than 20 degrees of flaps, approach and threshold speeds will not be less than those associated with the zero degree flap setting. If lower approach and threshold speeds are used, airplane attitude becomes _______________________.
    abnormally nose high and tail section may contact the runway
  54. When the main flaps are retracted and one or both leading edge flaps remain extended, the airplane should be flown with caution at load factors in excess of 1.5 g’s in the speed range between ____________. Damage to the leading edge flaps may occur especially when making turns or pullouts, or flying through turbulent air.
    215 and 305 KIAS
  55. [Altimeter/Airspeed needles freeze] If the pilot and copilot instruments are affected simultaneously, _______________________________________.
    do not de-power the pilot and copilot primary and backup circuit breakers at the same time; cycle them sequentially
  56. [Main Tank Fuel Leak] To avoid exceeding fuselage structural limits, fuel should be ______________ for some payload conditions.
    dumped rather than crossfed
  57. To preclude structural damage do not allow a body tank to overfill and flood the vent system. If a body tank is allowed to overfill and flood the vent system, and limit load factor is reached is reached during maneuvering or in gusts, _____________________________.
    permanent set in the structure and fuel cell damage could result
  58. Discontinue emergency tank emptying procedure before the fuel quantity indication reaches ________________________.
    the “0” marking on the fuel quantity gauge
  59. [All Tires on One Main Gear Flat] Make all turns in as large a radius as possible. Sharp pivoting turns could result in ________________.
    a broken main gear truck
  60. If an aft outboard tire is determined to be flat, and the airplane gross weight is above 250,000 pounds, avoid _____________________.
    turns away from that tire if possible
  61. Before jettisoning, _____________ and reduce airspeed to slowest practical speed. Jettison cargo through the aft hatch to avoid damaging the upper wing surface. Install hatch when jettisoning is completed.
    lower full flaps
  62. [Manual Gear Extension with Hydraulic Pumps Isolated] Keep _________________ and the left hydraulic system depressurized or the gear may unlock.
    both left pumps isolated
  63. The oxygen regulator is suitable for routine use up to _____ feet and for emergency use up to 42,000 feet and for emergency use up to 50,000 feet. In case of loss of cabin pressurization during flights above 42,000 feet, descend to an altitude of 42,000 feet or below within 5 minutes.
  64. Do not open the aft emergency exit hatch for ventilation during flight because ___________________________.
    fuel fumes may be drawn in from the fuel vent system
  65. The pilot, copilot, navigator, and boom operator will monitor all altitudes being flown to ensure there are no deviations from air traffic clearances and that sufficient terrain clearance is provided. If descent is inadvertently continued below an assigned/published level-off altitude, immediately ________________________.
    notify the pilot of the deviation over interphone using the call function, if necessary
  66. After brakes have been used excessively for an emergency stop and are suspected to be in an overheated condition, the airplane should not be taxied more than is necessary to _______________.
    clear the active runway
  67. With any usable fuel (except slosh fuel) in the _________ tank, operate the airplane in the cautionary range (2.0 g load factor) because of body structural limitations.
    upper deck
  68. A lightening of stick forces may be encountered at mid to high gross weights when the center of gravity is forward of ___% MAC and at Mach numbers less than ____. When lightening of stick forces is encountered, exercise caution when making large elevator control inputs to avoid exceeding airplane g limitations.
    20, .75
  69. Flight through thunderstorm activity, or known severe turbulence, is __________________________.
    not recommended and should be avoided if at all possible
  70. On ice covered taxiways and runways, and on painted areas that are moisture covered, taxi with extreme caution. High crosswind or excessive speed during turns may start a skid. Also, be alert for extreme slipperiness at the approach end of snow covered runways. The intense heat produced by jet engine blasts ____________________.
    may form ice due to melting and refreezing
  71. Depending on the weight of snow and ice accumulated on the airplane, takeoff distances and climbout performance can be seriously affected. The roughness and distribution of the ice and snow could vary stall speeds and characteristics to a dangerous degree. Loss of an engine shortly after takeoff is a serious enough problem without the added, and avoidable, hazard of snow and ice on the wings. In view of the unpredictable and unsafe effects of such a practice, ___________________________.
    all ice and snow must be removed before flight is attempted
  72. Takeoff with light coatings of frost up to 1/8 inch in thickness on the lower wing surfaces caused by very cold fuel in the area of the wing tanks between the front and rear spar is _______. All control surfaces, tab surfaces, and balance panel cavities in particular must be completely free of snow or ice. Thin hoar frost is acceptable on the surface of the fuselage provided _______________.
    permissible, all vents and ports are clear
  73. Takeoff is prohibited when snow, ice, or frost is adhering to _______________________________.
    wings, control surfaces, engine inlets, or other critical areas of the airplane
  74. During operation at low gross weight and particularly at low ambient temperatures, the airplane accelerates very rapidly; therefore, be careful not to exceed the ________ speeds.
    flap placard
  75. Since low OAT conditions cause a considerable increase in thrust, the airplane ________ limitations may be reached with somewhat lower throttle settings.
  76. Because of the abrasive effects of the volcanic ash on ____________, visibility for approach and landing can be markedly reduced.
    windshields and landing lights
  77. If an APU shuts down due to a fire or overheat condition, _____________________.
    do not attempt a restart without maintenance action/approval
  78. The ______________ prior to towing airplane or damage to nose gear steering mechanism can occur.
    nose gear steering lockout pin will be installed
  79. Exercise caution during throttle application to prevent asymmetrical thrust. Engine thrust should be stabilized at a minimum of _______ prior to advancing throttles to the takeoff setting.
    40% N1
  80. Exceeding charted N1 can cause _________________.
    structural damage and rapid engine deterioration
  81. [Electrical Fire Isolation] To prevent possible engine flameout due to lack of fuel boost pressure, consider feeding engines from ______________, if fuel is available.
    either forward or aft body tank
  82. [Battery Overheating or Overcharging] The battery switch shall remain in _______ unless specifically directed otherwise by an applicable procedure.
  83. When using the main battery charger or APU battery charger to power the switched DC bus, limit the load to _______. There is no ammeter reading available to determine the switched DC bus load; therefore, add the load requirements for each operating circuit to get the total switched DC bus load. There is no time limitation on using the battery charger to power the switched DC bus.
    25 amps
  84. [Manual Starter Operation] If N2 rotation does not occur within 2 to 3 seconds of opening the bleed valve, close ____________ valve immediately.
    the engine bleed
  85. When lowering outboard flaps to correct a stabilizer jammed in the airplane nose-up condition, ______________.
    observe flap placard speed
  86. [Stabilizer Jammed- Airplane Nose-up] Do not move cg forward of ______________.
    the established forward cg limit
  87. With any usable fuel (except slosh fuel) in the upper deck tank operate the airplane in the ____________ because of body structural limitations.
    cautionary range (2.0 g load factor)
  88. Do not take off with sustained abnormal engine indications, vibration, or noise. If engine run-up cannot be accomplished during taxi, ______________________.
    accomplish ice shedding procedure in conjunction with engine run-up for takeoff
  89. Exceeding _____________________________ could result in serious aircraft damage caused by possible hydraulic fire and tire explosions.
    the maximum energy absorption capability of the brake
  90. If the advantage of headwind is taken into account for a normal or training mission, it is recommended that ____ of the headwind component be used to adjust performance data.
  91. Landing with tailwinds are not recommended since the higher groundspeed will result in longer ground roll distances. If a tailwind becomes necessary, ensure _______________________________________________.
    the total landing distance (flare plus ground roll) does not exceed runway length and maximum braking speed is not exceeded
  92. Slush and water puddles on the runway can cause ________________, particularly at high speeds. If possible, known water puddles and slush should be avoided.
    significant structural damage to the airplane
  93. Pilots must use extreme care in those cases when the speed brakes are required for deceleration. Ascertain that the receiver ____________ prior to speed brake actuation.
    will not overrun the tanker
  94. For airplanes equipped with standard speed booms: If airspeed must be increased above ____ KIAS, the pilot will notify the boom operator to stow the boom.
  95. During any boom air refueling which requires the indicated airspeed to be less than 220 KIAS, ______________ for dry contacts, to preclude fuel siphoning from the forward body tank, causing unexpected CG changes.
    keep the A/R line valve closed
  96. When ___________, maintain firm manual control of the airplane since abrupt attitude changes about all axes can occur.
    disengaging the autopilot
  97. For all ___________ AAR’s, do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within ½ NM; this includes datalink.
    foreign aircraft
  98. The crew must closely monitor the airplane CG during reverse air refueling. The aft CG limit can be quickly exceeded in airplanes operating at ____ gross weights.
  99. Following an inadvertent brute force disconnect, air refueling ________________________________________.
    will be terminated except during fuel emergencies or when continuation of air refueling is dictated by operational necessity
  100. If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, ____ the FDR/CVR power circuit breaker.
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