Physiology

Lipophobic chemical messengers communicate a message to the target cell by binding to receptors on that cell's membrane
True False

The target cell of a neurotransmitter is the postsynaptic cell.
True False

Endocrine glands secrete neurohormones
True False

Tyrosine is one of four amino acids that function directly as chemical messengers.
True False

Steroid hormones are produced within cells and stored in vesicles until they are released.
True False

The enzyme glutamic acid decarboxylase catalyzes the synthesis of glutamate.
True False

All catecholamine-secreting cells synthesize dopamine.
True False

Eicosanoids are released immediately upon synthesis.
True False

Albumin is a peptide hormone.
True False

A single cell can have receptors for different messengers.
True False

Most receptors are relatively non-specific for the ligand that will bind to them.
True False

Receptors for lipophilic chemical messengers are only located on the surface of a cell's membrane.
True False

Tyrosine kinases are enzymes that add a phosphate group to tyrosine residues on other proteins, changing the conformation of those proteins.
True False

The higher concentration of messenger, the greater the response in the target cell.
True False

Enkephalin is an opiate produced in the body. When enkephalin binds to opioid receptors it produces analgesia (a lack of pain sensation). Morphine can also bind to opioid receptors and produce analgesia. Morphine is an opiate antagonist.
True False

Thyroid hormones alter the transcription of mRNA in the target cell.
True False

If calcium channels open in the plasma membrane, calcium ions enter the cell.
True False

An amplifier enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of a second messenger.
True False

In its active form, a G protein has a GDP bound to its alpha unit.
True False

Generally, the nervous system is a more rapid means of communication than the endocrine system.
True False

The site of communication between two neurons is called a synapse.
True False

Peptide/protein messengers are translated from ribosomes ________.
A) free in the cytosol
B) attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) attached to the Golgi apparatus
E) attached to the nuclear envelope

While in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, what is the initial polypeptide formed during protein synthesis called?
A) exon
B) peptide
C) propeptide
D) prepropeptide
E) prepeptide

Once a steroid hormone is synthesized, it is ________.
A) immediately capable of diffusing across the membrane
B) stored in a vesicle until released
C) bound to albumin until released from the cell
D) stored in a unique protein structure that maintains steroids in the cell
E) bound to the mitochondria until released

What organelle packages peptide/protein messengers into secretory vesicles?
A) nucleus
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) lysosomes
E) Golgi apparatus

Name the enzyme that, when activated, will directly release arachidonic acid from a membrane phospholipid.
A) Phospholipase D
B) Protein kinase A
C) Phospholipase A2
D) Protein kinase C
E) Phospholipase C

In order to synthesize eicosanoids, ________ catalyzes the release of ________ from a membrane phospholipid.
A) phospholipase C : arachidonic acid
B) phospholipase C : cholesterol
C) phospholipase A2 : cholesterol
D) phospholipase C : inositol biphosphate
E) phospholipase A2 : arachidonic acid

An equilibrium exists between a hormone that is bound to a carrier protein and a free hormone such that, as the amount of free hormone increases, ________.
A) more hormone must be synthesized to directly replace the free hormones
B) more bound hormone will be released from its carrier proteins
C) the amount of bound hormone will not change
D) more free hormone will become bound to carrier proteins
E) cells will be stimulated to secrete more free hormone

Lipophilic chemical messengers are poorly soluble in water. However, many of these lipophilic messengers are transported throughout the body. Their transport in blood (water) is facilitated by ________.
A) red blood cells
B) lipoproteins
C) carrier proteins
D) white blood cells
E) chylomicrons

What enzyme catalyzes synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?
A) cyclooxygenase
B) phospholipase C
C) phospholipase A2
D) lipoxygenase
E) tyrosine β-hydroxylase

Androgens are precursor molecules for the synthesis of ________.
A) cholesterol
B) progesterone
C) estradiol
D) cortisol
E) aldosterone

Progesterone is a precursor for the synthesis of ________________.
A) estradiol
B) cortisol
C) progesterone
D) aldosterone
E) cholesterol

Aspirin decreases inflammation by inhibiting the actions of what enzyme?
A) phospholipase A2
B) cyclooxygenase
C) lipoxygenase
D) protein kinase A
E) dopa decarboxylase

Hormones that are dissolved in blood typically exhibit a half-life on the order of ________, whereas hormones that are bound to carrier proteins can remain undegraded for ________.
A) seconds : hours
B) seconds : minutes
C) minutes : hours
D) hours : minutes
E) minutes : seconds

The β1 adrenergic receptor has the greatest affinity for what messenger?
A) norepinephrine
B) epinephrine and norepinephrine equally
C) epinephrine
D) dopamine
E) serotonin

The α1 adrenergic receptor has the greatest affinity for what messenger?
A) norepinephrine
B) epinephrine and norepinephrine equally
C) epinephrine
D) dopamine
E) serotonin

Which of the following will NOT affect the magnitude of a cell's response to a specific hydrophilic ligand?
A) ligand concentration
B) number of receptors
C) receptor upregulation
D) affinity of the receptor for the ligand
E) lipid solubility of the ligand

Chronic exposure to a ligand (messenger) ________ the receptor population for that chemical messenger on the target cell.
A) decreases the specificity of
B) decreases the affinity of
C) upregulates
D) downregulates
E) changes the conformation of

Which of the following statements best describes the release of lipophobic messengers?
A) Lipophobic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis in response to a stimulus.
B) Lipophobic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by simple diffusion in response to a stimulus.
C) Lipophobic messengers are released immediately upon synthesis by simple diffusion.
D) Lipophobic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis immediately after synthesis.
E) Lipophobic messengers are stored free in the cytosol and released by simple diffusion in response to a stimulus.

Which of the following statements best describes the release of a lipophilic messenger?
A) Lipophilic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis in response to a stimulus.
B) Lipophilic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by simple diffusion in response to a stimulus.
C) Lipophilic messengers are released immediately upon synthesis by simple diffusion.
D) Lipophilic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis immediately after synthesis.
E) Lipophilic messengers are stored free in the cytosol and released by simple diffusion in response to a stimulus.

Lipophilic hormones are transported in blood ________ and bind to receptors located ________.
A) dissolved in the plasma : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
B) dissolved in the plasma : inside the target cell
C) bound to carrier proteins : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
D) bound to carrier proteins : inside the target cell
E) inside red blood cells : inside the target cell

What is a molecule that is similar in structure to a messenger and binds with that messenger's receptor to stimulate a response from the target cell called?
A) blocker
B) synergist
C) antagonist
D) agonist
E) protagonist

Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiinflammatory drug?
A) aspirin
B) cortisone
C) testosterone
D) prostaglandins
E) morphine

What is the portion of a gene that is capable of being bound by a particular hormone-receptor complex to stimulate alterations in that gene's expression?
A) nuclear receptor
B) hormone response element
C) intron
D) exon
E) promoter

The affinity of a receptor for its ligand is a measure of ________.
A) the strength of binding between ligand and receptor
B) the number of binding sites available for the ligand
C) the ability of the ligand to permeate the plasma membrane and reach its receptor
D) the response produced in the target cell when the ligand binds to the receptor
E) the percent of receptors on a specific target cell with bound ligand

Typical responses to ________ messengers require a long time to develop because they necessitate transcription of mRNA and translation of that mRNA into a functional protein.
A) lipophobic
B) lipophilic
C) amino acid
D) protein
E) peptide

Which of the following describes ion channels that are coupled to membrane receptors such that their gating properties (opening and closing) are altered by messenger binding.
A) Enzyme-linked receptors
B) G protein-linked channels
C) Voltage-gated channels
D) Ligand-gated channels
E) Potential-gated channels

Slow gated channels are identified as such because, once the receptor is bound by the ligand, the receptor must first activate a(n) ________ prior to the channel opening or closing.
A) G protein
B) ion channel
C) enzyme
D) RNA polymerase
E) hormone response element

Differences in the rate of activity between fast and slow ligand-gated channels is caused by ________.
A) ligand selectivity
B) G protein activity gating the fast channel
C) ligands gating both channels to the closed state
D) G protein activity gating the slow channel
E) ligand affinity

Which of the following ions can act as a second messenger?
A) sodium only
B) potassium only
C) calcium only
D) both sodium and potassium
E) both sodium and calcium

A releasing hormone is a type of tropic hormone.
True False

The hypothalamus is connected to the posterior pituitary by the hypothalamic-pituitary portal system.
True False

The secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary is controlled by hypothalamic tropic hormones.
True False

Growth hormone functions as both a tropic hormone and as a hormone that acts on target cells throughout the body.
True False

The only non-peptide/protein tropic hormone is somatostatin.
True False

The only non-peptide/protein hormone is dopamine.
True False

The release of LH and FSH by the anterior pituitary is under control of the same hypothalamic tropic hormone.
True False

In a short negative feedback loop, a tropic hormone from the anterior pituitary inhibits the release of its own releasing hormone from the hypothalamus.
True False

The hormone thymosin is released from the thyroid gland.
True False

The hormone thymosin is released from the thyroid gland.
True False

Which of the following is a correct example of long-loop negative feedback?
A) TSH inhibits the release of TRH.
B) TSH stimulates the release of TRH.
C) Glucocorticoids inhibit the release of CRH.
D) FSH inhibits the release of GnRH.
E) GH stimulates the release of GHIH.

Which of the following is a correct example of short-loop negative feedback?
A) Thyroid hormones inhibit the release of TRH.
B) Thyroid hormones inhibit the release of TSH.
C) TRH stimulates the release of thyroid hormones.
D) TSH inhibits the release of TRH.
E) TRH inhibits the release of TSH.

The release of ________ from the pineal gland is important for establishing ________.
A) melatonin : thirst
B) prolactin : circadian rhythm
C) melatonin : circadian rhythm
D) prolactin : breast milk production
E) melanin : thirst

The thyroid gland secretes what hormone?
A) thyroid hormones only
B) thymosin only
C) calcitonin only
D) both thyroid hormones and thymosin
E) both thyroid hormones and calcitonin

What is triiodothyronine?
A) a catecholamine released from the adrenal cortex
B) a catecholamine released from the adrenal medulla
C) a thyroid hormone secreted from the thyroid gland
D) the hormone secreted from the thymus
E) the hormone secreted from the pineal gland

Which of the following hormones is NOT released from the adrenal gland?
A) adrenocorticotropic hormone
B) aldosterone
C) cortisol
D) androgens
E) epinephrine

Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the endocrine region of the pancreas?
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) somatostatin
D) pancreatic polypeptide
E) glucocorticoids

What layer of the adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids?
A) zona reticularis only
B) zona fasciculata only
C) zona glomerulosa only
D) both zonae reticularis and fasciculata
E) both zonae reticularis and glomerulosa

What layer of the adrenal cortex secretes androgens?
A) zona reticularis only
B) zona fasciculata only
C) zona glomerulosa only
D) both zonae reticularis and fasciculata
E) both zonae reticularis and glomerulosa

What region of the adrenal gland secretes epinephrine?
A) zona reticularis
B) zona fasciculata
C) zona glomerulosa
D) medulla
E) zonae reticularis, fasciculata, and glomerulosa

What cells secrete epinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
A) chromaffin cells
B) A cells
C) B cells
D) D cells
E) zona reticularis cells

Which of the following is an incorrect association between pancreatic cell type and hormone secreted?
A) Alpha cells secrete glucagon.
B) Beta cells secrete insulin.
C) Delta cells secrete somatostatin.
D) Epsilon cells secrete calcitonin.
E) F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.

Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by gonads?
A) testosterone
B) oxytocin
C) androstenedione
D) estradiol
E) progesterone

What anterior pituitary hormone is NOT a tropic hormone?
A) prolactin
B) growth hormone
C) adrenocorticotropic hormone
D) follicle stimulating hormone
E) luteinizing hormone

Which of the following hormones regulates plasma calcium levels?
A) calcitonin only
B) oxytocin only
C) parathyroid hormone only
D) both calcitonin and oxytocin
E) both calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

What is the function of gap junctions in bone?
A) for action potential transmission that initiates bone resorption by osteoblasts
B) for action potential transmission that initiates bone deposition by osteoblasts
C) for action potential transmission that initiates bone deposition by osteoclasts
D) for action potential transmission that initiates bone resorption by osteoclasts
E) to provide nutrients to cells embedded within the rigid bone matrix

Which of the following is a function of osteoclasts?
A) secretion of osteoid
B) calcification of bone
C) release of enzymes that degrade the osteoid
D) formation of cartilage
E) breakdown of cartilage

In the young, the epiphyseal plate is composed of ________, which plays an important role in the ________ during growth.
A) bone marrow : thickening of bone
B) bone : thickening of bone
C) cartilage : thickening of bone
D) bone marrow : elongation of bone
E) cartilage : elongation of bone

The increase in bone thickness stimulated by growth hormone involves which of the following?
A) increased osteoblast activity on the outer surface of the bone and increased osteoclast activity on the inner surface of bone
B) increased osteoclast activity on the outer surface of the bone and increased osteoblast activity on the inner surface of bone
C) increased osteoblast and chondrocyte activity at the epiphyseal plate
D) increased osteoclast and chondrocyte activity at the epiphyseal plate
E) increased chondrocyte activity on the inner surface of bone and increased osteoclast activity on the outer surface of the bone

What type of cell forms cartilage?
A) osteoblasts
B) osteocytes
C) osteoclasts
D) chondrocytes
E) chondroblasts

Epiphyseal plate closure is triggered by ________.
A) osteoclasts
B) osteoblasts
C) osteocytes
D) somatomedins
E) sex hormones

Which of the following conditions occurring in childhood would NOT result in the condition of dwarfism?
A) decreased stimulation of growth hormone secretion
B) increased responsiveness of tissues to insulin-like growth factors
C) decrease responsiveness of tissues to growth hormone
D) insufficient production of insulin-like growth factors
E) defective growth hormone receptors

The hormone insulin is ________ for the regulation of growth due to its stimulation of ________.
A) permissive : insulinlike growth factor secretion
B) permissive : growth hormone secretion
C) required : bone growth
D) required : muscle growth
E) required : nervous system development

Which of the following hormones inhibits growth?
A) growth hormone
B) somatomedins
C) insulin-like growth factors
D) thyroid hormones
E) glucocorticoids

What is the precursor compound located within colloid that is converted into thyroid hormone?
A) Proiodotyrosine
B) Preiodotyrosine
C) Iodotyrosine
D) Thyroglobulin
E) Calcitonin

Thyroid stimulating hormone activates what signal transduction mechanism within the follicle cell that will result in the release of thyroid hormone?
A) cGMP
B) cAMP
C) opening of ligand-gated calcium channels
D) inositol triphosphate
E) diacylglycerol

The iodinated tyrosine residues on the thyroglobulin molecule are cleaved to produce T3 and T4 in what organelle?
A) lysosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) colloid
D) endoplasmic reticulum
E) peroxisome

The release of T3 and T4 occurs through ________, and they can bind to ________ to be transported in the bloodstream.
A) endocytosis : transthyrethin
B) exocytosis : thyroxine-binding globulin
C) diffusion : albumin
D) exocytosis : transthyrethin
E) endocytosis : albumin

The most abundant form of thyroid hormone secreted into the blood is ________; the most active form at the target cell is ________; and the form that provides long-loop negative feedback is ________.
A) T3 : T3 : T4
B) T4 : T4 : T3
C) T4 : T3 : T4
D) T3 : T4 : T3
E) T3 : T4 : T4

What does an increase in cAMP levels in thyroid follicular cells cause?
A) increase in secretion of thyroid hormones
B) decrease in secretion of thyroid hormones
C) increase in secretion of calcitonin
D) decrease in secretion of calcitonin
E) increase in secretion of parathyroid hormone

Catabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids can be used to generate ATP.
True False

Carbohydrates and proteins can be converted to lipids.
True False

Most of the body's energy is stored as glycogen.
True False

Energy mobilization refers to the catabolism of large molecules into smaller nutrient molecules that are released into the bloodstream to provide energy to the cells of the body.
True False

Energy from the hydrolysis of ATP is used for most cellular processes.
True False

While proteins are a form of energy storage, most proteins are unavailable metabolically due to their structural and functional roles.
True False

The metabolic rate while sleeping is higher than the basal metabolic rate.
True False

The postabsorptive state is characterized by mobilization of energy stores, which is stimulated by the hormone insulin.
True False

Lipoprotein lipase is found only on the plasma membranes of adipocytes.
True False

Glycogen stored in skeletal muscle cannot provide glucose to the bloodstream because skeletal muscle lacks the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase.
True False

The smallest living units capable of carrying out their own basic life functions are called ________.
A) organs
B) organ systems
C) tissues
D) cells
E) organelles

________ carry/carries oxygen to the cells of the body, while the synthesis of these cells is regulated by the hormone ________.
A) Erythrocytes : bone marrow
B) Bone marrow : erythrocyte
C) Erythrocytes : erythropoietin
D) Erythropoietin : erythrocyte
E) Bone marrow : erythropoietin

Which of the following is NOT one of the major cell types found in the human body?
A) epithelial cells
B) muscle cells
C) endocrine cells
D) nervous cells
E) connective tissue cells

Which of the following is NOT a primary type of tissue?
A) muscle
B) skeletal
C) nerve
D) epithelial
E) connective

The tissue type that generates mechanical force and movement, and whose activity is controlled both on a voluntary and involuntary level, is ________.
A) muscle tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) connective tissue
D) nervous tissue
E) skeletal tissue

What tissue type functions in the transport of specific molecules from one body compartment to another?
A) muscle tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) connective tissue
D) nervous tissue
E) reticular tissue

What tissue type lines internal hollow organs and external surfaces of the body, providing a barrier between the internal and external environment?
A) epithelial tissue
B) muscle tissue
C) nervous tissue
D) connective tissue
E) reticular tissue

Glands are derived from what type of tissue?
A) muscle
B) connective
C) epithelial
D) nerve
E) kleenex

What type of tissue lines exocrine glands?
A) connective
B) epithelial
C) exonuclear
D) nerve
E) muscle

Endocrine glands are derived from what type of tissue?
A) muscle
B) nerve
C) epithelial
D) connective
E) reticular

What type of gland secretes products into ducts leading to the external environment?
A) endocrine glands
B) exocrine glands
C) both endocrine and exocrine
D) neither endocrine nor exocrine

Which tissue type includes cells contained in an extracellular matrix composed of collagen and elastin?
A) muscle tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) connective tissue
D) nervous tissue
E) endocrine tissue

Which of the following descriptions INCORRECTLY describes the tissue type?
A) Muscle tissue is specialized for contraction and generation of force.
B) Epithelial tissue forms glands.
C) Nervous tissue is specialized for transmission of electrical impulses.
D) Connective tissue is specialized for exchange between the internal and external environments.
E) Epithelial tissue lines the lumen of internal organs.

What is a general name for the non-cellular material that holds the widely scattered cells of connective tissue together?
A) Basement membrane
B) Collagen
C) Intracellular matrix
D) Extracellular matrix
E) Elastin

Which of the following is a protein found in the body that provides the tensile strength to resist stretching?
A) Collagen
B) Elastin
C) Erythropoietin
D) Basement membrane
E) Vimentin

Which of the following is a tissue type that includes the cells found within blood and bones?
A) muscle tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) connective tissue
D) nervous tissue
E) endocrine tissue

What are the structures that attach bone to muscle called?
A) extracellular matrix proteins
B) aponeuroses
C) tendons
D) ligaments
E) intracellular matrix proteins

Organs of the body are defined as ________.
A) a collection of cells that perform similar functions
B) two or more tissues combined to form a structure that allows each tissue to function independently
C) a collection of cells that function independently of one another
D) a combination of two or more tissues that makes a structure which performs specific functions
E) a collection of tissues that function independently of one another

Which of the following accurately represents the order of complexity for the components of the body, from least to most complex?
A) organ systems, cells, tissues, organs
B) tissues, cells, organs, organ systems
C) cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
D) cells, tissues, organ systems, organs
E) organ systems, organs, tissues, cells

Which of the following organ systems is primarily involved in the process of digestion?
A) immune system
B) endocrine system
C) gastrointestinal system
D) cardiovascular system
E) integumentary system

Which of the following is NOT a component of the gastrointestinal system?
A) salivary glands
B) stomach
C) gall bladder
D) liver
E) kidneys

Name the two organ systems that the kidneys belong to.
A) urinary and digestive systems
B) urinary and immune systems
C) endocrine and urinary systems
D) urinary and skeletal systems
E) endocrine and gastrointestinal systems

The uptake of nutrients across the epithelial cells of the gastrointestinal tract and into the bloodstream is called ________.
A) filtration
B) excretion
C) secretion
D) absorption
E) reabsorption

What organ system includes the pituitary gland, adrenal gland, and thyroid gland?
A) nervous
B) endocrine
C) cardiovascular
D) integumentary
E) immune

What organ system protects the body against pathogens and abnormal cells?
A) nervous
B) endocrine
C) respiratory
D) integumentary
E) immune

Each amino acid differs from others in the ________.
A) number of central carbon atoms
B) size of the amino group
C) number of carboxyl groups
D) characteristic of the R group
E) number of peptide bonds in the molecule

Hydrogen bonding between the amino hydrogen of one amino acid and the carboxyl oxygen of another is responsible for which of the following?
A) Holding the two strands of DNA together by the Law of Complementary Base Pairing.
B) Twisting the DNA into a helical structure.
C) Primary protein structure.
D) Secondary protein structure.
E) Tertiary protein structure.

Secondary protein structure is the result of ________.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) van der Waals forces
D) covalent bonds
E) all of the above

The ________ structure of a protein is created by hydrogen bonds between the hydrogen atom on the amine group and the oxygen atom on the carboxyl group.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) quintary

The ________ structure of a protein is formed between residual groups of the amino acid backbone by a number of different chemical interactions, dependent upon the nature of the residual groups interacting.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) quintary

Which of the following is an example of a fibrous protein?
A) growth hormone
B) insulin
C) hemoglobin
D) Na+/K+ pumps
E) collagen

________ are molecules that are composed of one or more phosphate groups, a 5-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base.
A) Lipids
B) Phospholipids
C) Nucleotides
D) Amino acids
E) Glycoproteins

Which of the following chemical groups are necessary components of a nucleotide?
A) phosphate, peptide, and base
B) carbohydrate, phosphate, and peptide
C) phosphate, carbohydrate, and base
D) peptide, phosphate, and carbohydrate
E) carbohydrate, base, and peptide

Which of the following is an INCORRECT association between a molecule and its chemical property?
A) monosaccharide : hydrophilic
B) DNA : polymer of nucleotides
C) fatty acid : amphipathic
D) ATP : nucleotide
E) steroid : derived from cholesterol

Which of the following is found in DNA but not RNA?
A) deoxyribose only
B) adenine only
C) thymine only
D) both adenine and thymine
E) both thymine and deoxyribose

Which of the following molecules is a polymer?
A) protein only
B) glycogen only
C) nucleic acid only
D) both protein and nucleic acid
E) protein, nucleic acid, and glycogen

Which of the following molecule types is NOT a polymer?
A) protein
B) fatty acid
C) glycogen
D) DNA
E) RNA

Which of the following is NOT a base in RNA?
A) adenine
B) thymine
C) uracil
D) guanine
E) cytosine

Which of the following INCORRECTLY describes a polymer?
A) Glycogen is a polymer of glucose.
B) Starch is a polymer of glucose.
C) ATP is a polymer of phosphates.
D) DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
E) A protein is a polymer of amino acids.

Which of the following is NOT a function of nucleotides?
A) Nucleotides store the genetic code.
B) Nucleotides are necessary for expression of the genetic code.
C) Nucleotides provide most of the energy for cellular processes.
D) Nucleotides provide electrons to the electron transport chain.
E) Nucleotides provide substrates for the citric acid cycle.

________ is composed of nucleotide polymers with the phosphate of one nucleotide bound to the ribose sugar of another.
A) Ribonucleic acid
B) Deoxyribonucleic acid
C) Guanosine monophosphate
D) Adenosine diphosphate
E) Flavin adenine dinucleotide

________ is composed of nucleotide polymers with the phosphate of one nucleotide bound to the ribose sugar of another.
A) Ribonucleic acid
B) Deoxyribonucleic acid
C) Guanosine monophosphate
D) Adenosine diphosphate
E) Flavin adenine dinucleotide

The presence of ________ in the plasma membrane can increase the fluidity of the membrane.
A) cholesterol
B) integral membrane proteins
C) peripheral membrane proteins
D) glycoproteins
E) phospholipids

Which of the following is NOT found in plasma membranes?

Which of the following components of the plasma membrane forms ion channels?
A) phospholipids
B) cholesterol
C) carbohydrates
D) integral membrane proteins
E) peripheral membrane proteins

Which of the following is NOT an integral membrane protein?
A) carrier proteins for mediated transport
B) connexons
C) channels for ion diffusion across membranes
D) occludins
E) actin

Which of the following is an amphipathic molecule?
A) peripheral membrane protein
B) integral membrane protein
C) glycogen
D) glucose
E) triglyceride

Which of the following is NOT an amphipathic molecule?
A) phospholipid
B) integral membrane protein
C) glycolipid
D) glucose
E) connexon

The layer of carbohydrates on the external surface of a cell is called what?
A) inclusion
B) glycocalyx
C) glycogen
D) glycolipid
E) desmosome

The ________ is the site of ribosomal RNA production.
A) nucleus
B) nucleolus
C) mitochondria
D) cytosol
E) lysosome

What type of enzyme catalyzes the phosphorylation of another enzyme, thereby altering that enzyme's activity?
A) Dehydrogenase
B) Phosphorylase
C) Protein kinase
D) Synthase
E) Cofactor

During end-product inhibition, ________.
A) the initial substrate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via allosteric regulation
B) the product of the rate-limiting step of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via covalent regulation
C) the product of the rate-limiting step of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via allosteric regulation
D) the final product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via allosteric regulation
E) the final product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via covalent regulation

What is the most important energy-transferring compound in cells?
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) protein
D) adenosine triphosphate
E) deoxyribonucleic acid

In skeletal muscle, ATP can be synthesized by transferring a phosphate group from creatine-P to ADP to form ATP and creatine. In this example, ATP was synthesized by what process?
A) oxidative phosphorylation
B) substrate-level phosphorylation
C) oxidation
D) reduction
E) condensation

The complete oxidation of glucose releases how many kcal of energy for every mole of glucose?
A) 686
B) 7
C) 266
D) 420
E) 98

The reaction whereby energy is released from an ATP molecule can be described by which of the following?
A) ATP reduction
B) ATP oxidation
C) ATP hydrolysis
D) ATP synthase
E) ATP hydrogenation

How much energy is required to produce 1 mole of ATP?
A) 7 kcal
B) 686 kcal
C) 266 kcal
D) 420 kcal
E) 98 kcal

Where does glycolysis occur?
A) cytosol
B) mitochondrial matrix
C) mitochondrial intermembrane space
D) mitochondrial inner membrane
E) lysosomes

Which of the following associations between metabolic pathway and location in the cell is INCORRECT?
A) glycolysis : cytosol
B) electron transport system : inner mitochondrial membrane
C) transcription : nucleus
D) lipid synthesis : smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) Krebs cycle : mitochondrial intermembrane space

ATP is synthesized by substrate-level phosphorylation during which of the following?
A) glycolysis only
B) conversion of pyruvate to lactate only
C) Krebs cycle only
D) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle only
E) glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and during conversion of pyruvate to lactate

Which of the following does NOT occur in mitochondria?
A) Krebs cycle
B) oxidative phosphorylation
C) consumption of oxygen
D) production of carbon dioxide
E) conversion of pyruvate to lactate

The final product of glycolysis under aerobic conditions is pyruvate. What happens to pyruvate under aerobic conditions?
A) Pyruvate is converted into acetyl CoA in the cytosol, and the acetyl CoA then enters the mitochondrial matrix.
B) Pyruvate enters the mitochondrial matrix where it is converted into acetyl CoA.
C) Pyruvate is converted to lactic acid in the cytosol.
D) Pyruvate is converted to lactic acid in the mitochondrial matrix.
E) Pyruvate provides electrons to the electron transport chain.

With the 38 moles of ATP that are generated within a cell from 1 mole of glucose, what percentage of the energy released from glucose is lost as heat?
A) 25%
B) 33%
C) 40%
D) 60%
E) 70%

In the presence of oxygen, the process of glycolysis produces which of the following products?
A) 1 pyruvate
B) 1 lactate
C) 2 pyruvate
D) 2 lactate
E) 2 glycerol

Where are the enzymes of glycolysis located within the cell?
A) inner mitochondrial membrane
B) outer mitochondrial membrane
C) lysosome
D) cytosol
E) nucleus

In the presence of a limited oxygen supply, pyruvate is converted to what?
A) lactate
B) acetyl CoA
C) NADH
D) ATP
E) glucose

How many ATP are generated per acetyl coenzyme A going through the Krebs cycle followed by the electron transport system?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 12
D) 24
E) 36-38

Which of the following statements about the Krebs cycle is FALSE?
A) The initial substrate is acetyl CoA.
B) Three NADs are reduced to NADH + H+.
C) Two FADs are reduced to FADH2.
D) Carbon dioxide is produced.
E) One ATP (GTP) is formed by substrate phosphorylation.

In terms of energy production, the Krebs cycle is significant because it ________.
A) directly produces large amounts of ATP
B) breaks down glucose
C) reduces the coenzymes NAD and FAD for oxidative phosphorylation
D) produces acetylcoenzyme A for fatty acid synthesis
E) provides acetylcoenzyme A for glucose synthesis

Which of the following statements about oxidative phosphorylation is FALSE?
A) More ATP can be produced when NADH provides electrons to the electron transport chain than when FADH2 provides electrons.
B) Hydrogen ion movement from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space activates the enzyme ATP synthase.
C) As electrons move down the electron transport chain, released energy is used to transport hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
D) Oxygen is reduced to water.
E) The components of the electron transport chain are located on the inner mitochondrial membrane.

What is the final acceptor of electrons in the electron transport?
A) pyruvate
B) carbon dioxide
C) water
D) oxygen
E) glucose

Where is the electron transport chain?
A) cytosol
B) outer mitochondrial membrane
C) inner mitochondrial membrane
D) intermembrane space of the mitochondria
E) mitochondrial matrix

Chemiosmotic coupling refers to ________.
A) chemical coupling between substrate and enzymes
B) chemical coupling of each reaction within the mitochondria
C) coupling of the Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain
D) the harnessing of energy from the reactions of the electron transport chain to make ATP
E) the transfer of a phosphate group from one molecule to another

Hydrogen ions activate the enzyme ATP synthase by moving from ________.
A) cytosol to inner mitochondrial membrane
B) inner mitochondrial membrane to cytosol
C) cytosol to outer mitochondrial membrane
D) mitochondrial matrix to intermembrane space
E) intermembrane space to mitochondrial matrix

Each time an electron is passed between the molecules of the electron transport chain, ________.
A) energy is gained
B) energy is released
C) an ATP molecule is produced
D) oxygen accepts the electrons
E) carbon dioxide is produced

Secretory vesicles are a part of what transport mechanism?
A) phagocytosis
B) pinocytosis
C) receptor-mediated endocytosis
D) exocytosis
E) osmosis

Which of the following correctly describes phagocytosis?
A) A cell synthesizes a product and packages it into vesicles. The product is released by phagocytosis.
B) Cells engulf large particles, such as bacteria, by phagocytosis.
C) A substance in the extracellular fluid binds to specific receptors for it on the cell membrane inducing the formation of a coated pit. The coated pit invaginates and enters the cell by phagocytosis.
D) Cells non-specifically engulf extracellular fluid.
E) Carrier proteins in the cell membrane transport a specific substance into the cell.

Epithelial cells are polarized with different structures on either side of the cell. The portion of the membrane that faces the lumen is called the ________ membrane.
A) basolateral
B) ablumenal
C) basement
D) apical
E) transport

The extent of ion movement through the ________ space between epithelial cells is determined by the extent of ________ coupling between neighboring epithelial cells.
A) transcellular : desmosomal
B) transcellular : gap junctional
C) transcellular : tight junctional
D) paracellular : gap junctional
E) paracellular : tight junctional

The movement of a number of molecules across the apical surface of the epithelial cell by secondary transporters is coupled to the ________ gradient that is maintained by the ________ on the basolateral surface of the epithelial cell.
A) Na+ : Na+/K+ pump
B) Na+ : Na+ channel
C) K+ : K+ channel
D) K+ : K+pump
E) Ca2+ : Na+/K+ pump

When solute is actively transported across epithelium, what usually follows?
A) water movement in the same direction
B) water movement in the opposite direction
C) passive transport of the solute in the opposite direction
D) active transport of the solute in the opposite direction
E) passive transport of solute in the same direction

The chemical force for which of the following ions is directed into the cell?
A) potassium only
B) sodium only
C) calcium only
D) both potassium and sodium
E) both sodium and calcium

Which of the following is found in greater concentration inside the cell than outside?
A) sodium
B) calcium
C) potassium
D) water
E) chloride

When molecules are passively transported across a membrane, the direction of their movement is dictated by the molecule's tendency to move ________.
A) from higher to lower energy
B) from lower to higher energy
C) out of a cell
D) into a cell
E) in both directions; there is no preference

Which of the following physiological responses are associated with an elevation in parasympathetic nervous system activity?
A) shifting blood flow away from the gastrointestinal tract
B) enhanced absorption of nutrients
C) increased heart rate
D) increased contractile force of the heart
E) enhanced mobilization of energy stores
Of the gradients listed below, which is the most accurate description of the force that ultimately determines the movement of ions across the membrane?
A) chemical gradient
B) potential gradient
C) electrochemical gradient
D) concentration gradient
E) electrical gradient

Molecules tend to move spontaneously ________ their chemical gradient.
A) down
B) up
C) through
D) around
E) over

When more than one ion species (i.e., Na+ and K+) is present on both sides of the membrane, the chemical driving force acting on Na+ will include ________.
A) all positively charged ions
B) all negatively charged ions
C) the most concentrated ion only
D) sodium only
E) all ions present

Which of the following is a reflection of the unequal distribution of positive and negative ions across the plasma membrane?
A) Chemical gradient
B) Extracellular potential
C) Membrane potential
D) Chemical driving force
E) Electrochemical driving force

Comparing intracellular to extracellular fluid, the intracellular fluid has a ________ charge relative to the outside of a cell due to the presence of more ________ in that solution.
A) positive : cations
B) negative : anions
C) negative : cations
D) positive : anions
E) neutral : cations

The unequal distribution of charge in solutions on either side of a membrane will lead to a ________ of charge across the membrane and a ________ of counter ions in a region close to the membrane.
A) separation : clustering
B) collection : restriction
C) buildup : restriction
D) separation : restriction
E) collection : clustering

Based solely upon its electrical charge, the inside of a typical cell will tend to attract extracellular ________ to move inward.
A) proteins
B) anions
C) cations
D) uncharged ions
E) ions whose concentration gradient allows them

Which of the following factors does NOT directly affect the direction or magnitude of the electrical driving force?
A) the sign of the membrane potential
B) an ion's charge
C) the amplitude of membrane potential
D) the molecular weight of an ion
E) the quantity of charge carried by an ion

Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the magnitude and direction of the equilibrium potential for an ion?
A) lipid solubility of the ion
B) concentration gradient
C) charge of the ion
D) valence of the ion
E) chemical driving force

If a positively charged ion is more concentrated outside the cell, the forces required to balance the chemical gradient would be directed ________. Thus, the equilibrium potential for this ion would be ________ charged.
A) outward : negatively
B) outward : positively
C) inward : positively
D) inward : negatively
E) outward : neutrally

Which of the following cells would have a greater electrical attraction for sodium ions to enter the cell?
A) cell with membrane potential = -70 mV
B) cell with membrane potential = -90 mV
C) cell with membrane potential = -50 mV
D) cell with membrane potential = 0 mV
E) cell with membrane potential = +20 mV

If a negatively charged ion is more concentrated outside the cell, the forces required to balance the chemical gradient would be directed ________. Thus, the equilibrium potential for this ion would be ________ charged.
A) outward : negatively
B) outward : positively
C) inward : positively
D) inward : negatively
E) outward : neutrally

If a negatively charged ion is more concentrated inside the cell, the forces required to balance the chemical gradient would be directed ________. Thus, the equilibrium potential for this ion would be ________ charged.
A) outward : negatively
B) outward : positively
C) inward : positively
D) inward : negatively
E) outward : neutrally

If a positively charged ion is more concentrated inside the cell, the forces required to balance the chemical gradient would be directed ________. Thus, the equilibrium potential for this ion would be ________ charged.
A) outward : negatively
B) outward : positively
C) inward : positively
D) inward : negatively
E) outward : neutrally

Which of the following can be used to determine an ion's equilibrium potential?
A) Navier Stokes equation
B) oscilloscope
C) intracellular voltmeter
D) Nernst equation
E) concentration of an ion only

The potassium equilibrium potential is -94 mV. What does this means?
A) at the resting membrane potential of neurons, potassium is at equilibrium
B) at -94 mV, the chemical force for potassium movement is zero
C) at -94 mV, the electrical force for potassium movement is zero
D) at -94 mV, the chemical force for potassium movement is opposed exactly by the electrical force
E) at -94 mV, potassium movement is opposed exactly by sodium movement

Which of the following correctly lists the components of the central nervous system?
A) brain and nerves
B) brain and spinal cord
C) spinal cord and nerves
D) brain, spinal cord, and nerves
E) sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

Which of the following is located in the autonomic nervous system?
A) sympathetic nervous system only
B) parasympathetic nervous system only
C) somatic nervous system only
D) both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
E) both sympathetic and somatic nervous systems

Which of the following accurately describes afferent neurons?
A) They transmit information from the periphery to the CNS.
B) The cell body is located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord.
C) They are the most abundant class of neurons.
D) They transmit information from the CNS to the periphery.
E) They are typically multipolar neurons.

What is the functional unit of the nervous system?
A) neurons
B) glial cells
C) the central nervous system
D) axons
E) the brain

On what portion of the neuron do action potentials propagate?
A) soma
B) cell body
C) dendrite
D) axon
E) nucleus

Information is transmitted from cell to cell across the chemical synapse via a(n) ________.
A) neurotransmitter
B) action potential
C) graded potential
D) collateral potential
E) neurosecretory hormone

An action potential originates at the ________ and travels along the axon until it reaches the ________.
A) axon terminal : axon hillock
B) dendrite : axon terminal
C) axon hillock : dendrite
D) dendrite : axon hillock
E) axon hillock : axon terminal

What type of ion channels in the membrane of neurons allow ions to move across the membrane at rest and thereby contribute to resting membrane potential?
A) voltage-gated channels
B) resting channels
C) potential-gated channels
D) leak channels
E) ligand-gated channels

What type of ion channels in the membrane of neurons open or close in response to a neurotransmitter binding to its receptor?
A) voltage-gated channels
B) synaptic channels
C) potential-gated channels
D) leak channels
E) ligand-gated channels

In a neuron, where is the greatest concentration of voltage-gated sodium and voltage-gated potassium channels?
A) dendrites
B) soma
C) axon hillock
D) axon
E) axon terminal

In a neuron, where are voltage-gated calcium channels located?
A) dendrites
B) soma
C) axon hillock
D) axon
E) axon terminal

What is the structural classification of a neuron composed of a single axon and a number of dendritic projections from the nerve cell body?
A) multipolar
B) bipolar
C) pseudo-unipolar
D) unipolar
E) polar

Which of the following is a functional classification of neurons that, for the most part, are bipolar in structure and carry information from the peripheral axon to the central axon?
A) interneurons
B) efferent neurons
C) afferent neurons
D) bipolar cells
E) multipolar cells

Which of the following terms is NOT used to describe a bundle of axons in the central or peripheral nervous system?
A) ganglia
B) pathways
C) tracts
D) nerves
E) commissures

Which of the following cells is NOT classified as a glial cell?
A) astrocyte
B) ependymal cell
C) oligodendrocyte
D) Schwann cell
E) ventricular cell

Excitatory graded potentials are those where the stimulus initiates a hyperpolarization of the cell.
True False

Under resting conditions, the sodium channel responsible for generating an action potential is closed and incapable of opening.
True False

Both activation and inactivation gates of a sodium channel are stimulated at the same time by a depolarization with the inactivation gate acting more slowly than the activation gate, thereby allowing sodium to enter the cell.
True False

The magnitude of the action potential is dependent upon the extent to which the change in membrane potential is above threshold.
True False

During the relative refractory period, the stimulus intensity required to initiate an action potential is elevated.
True False

Synaptic potentials are produced at what type of synapse?
A) axo-axonic, axo-dendritic, and axo-somatic synapses
B) axo-axonic and axo-dendritic synapses only
C) axo-axonic and axo-somatic synapses only
D) axo-dendritic and axo-somatic synapses only
E) axo-dendritic synapses only

At ionotropic receptors, a(n) ________.
A) neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens channels that are a part of the same protein as the receptor
B) neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens channels that are a separate protein from the receptor
C) neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens or closes channels that are part of the same protein as the receptor
D) neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens or closes channels that are a separate protein from the receptor
E) ion binding to a receptor opens channels in the plasma membrane

Presynaptic modulation occurs at what type of synapse?
A) axo-dendritic
B) axo-axonic
C) axo-somatic
D) dendro-dendritic
E) dendro-somatic

Metabotropic receptor-induced gating of ion channels requires more time to occur because of which of the following?
A) their gating is linked to a G protein
B) the channels are slower to open
C) intracellular calcium must increase before those channels will open
D) ion channels linked to metabotropic receptors must move to the membrane before gating
E) metabolic byproducts are required to open those channels

What is a change in the postsynaptic potential that brings membrane potential closer to threshold called?
A) excitatory postsynaptic potential
B) inhibitory postsynaptic potential
C) suprathreshold postsynaptic potential
D) hyperpolarizing postsynaptic potential
E) inhibitory presynaptic potential

The most common mechanism for producing a fast EPSP involves which of the following?
A) opening of sodium-selective channels
B) opening of potassium-selective channels
C) closing of sodium-selective channels
D) closing of potassium-selective channels
E) opening of channels that permit both sodium and potassium to flow through

What ion directly triggers neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic neuron?
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium

An example of a slow excitatory postsynaptic potential that involves closure of potassium channels relies on cAMP produced by what enzyme?
A) phosphodiesterase
B) protein kinase A
C) G protein
D) adenylate cyclase
E) protein kinase C

The duration of a slow, excitatory postsynaptic potential mediated by cAMP is driven by the extent of time that cAMP remains active before being degraded by what protein?
A) phosphodiesterase
B) protein kinase A
C) G protein
D) adenylate cyclase
E) protein kinase C

Fast excitatory responses not only occur quickly, but ________.
A) they also have a slow component
B) they remain active for a long period of time
C) they end quickly
D) they always create a substantial depolarization
E) they are maintained for minutes to hours

The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the ________ of ________ channels.
A) opening : chloride
B) closure : potassium
C) opening : sodium
D) closure : chloride
E) opening : calcium

The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the ________ of ________ channels.
A) opening : potassium
B) closure : potassium
C) opening : sodium
D) closing : chloride
E) opening : calcium

In the absence of active chloride ion transport, opening of chloride channels in a cell that has hyperpolarized will result in which of the following?
A) net movement of chloride out of the cell
B) net movement of chloride into the cell
C) movement of chloride equally in both directions
D) absence of any chloride movement
E) depolarization of the cell

In the presence of active chloride ion transport within a neuron, the opening of chloride channels will result in which of the following?
A) net movement of chloride out of the cell
B) net movement of chloride into the cell
C) movement of chloride equally in both directions
D) absence of any chloride movement
E) depolarization of the cell

If the resting membrane potential is equal to chloride's equilibrium potential, in which direction will chloride ions move if chloride channels open while the cell remains at resting membrane potential?
A) inward
B) outward
C) No ions will move through the channel.
D) Ions will move equally in both directions.
E) Three chloride ions will move out for every two chloride ions that move in.

An action potential is triggered if the membrane potential at the axon hillock is depolarized to threshold.
True False

IPSPs can only summate with IPSPs, and EPSPs can only summate with EPSPs.
True False

Two or more graded potentials originating from a different synapse on the same neuron at approximately the same time will cause spatial summation.
True False

Information on the amplitude of a particular response is coded for by the amplitude of the action potential generated.
True False

Presynaptic modulation involves a neurotransmitter from the axon terminal of one neuron affecting the membrane potential of an axon terminal from another neuron on which the first has synapsed (axoaxonic synapse).
True False

The ________ plays a principle role in establishing the circadian rhythm of the body.
A) caudate nucleus
B) globus pallidus
C) putamen
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
E) cingulate gyrus

Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?
A) communication between the nervous and endocrine system
B) controls hunger and thirst
C) affects emotions and behaviors in response to emotions
D) controls thermoregulation
E) contains the cardiovascular control centers

Where is the thermoregulatory center?
A) hypothalamus
B) medulla oblongata
C) pons
D) amygdala
E) hippocampus

Which region of the limbic system is primarily involved in the emotion fear?
A) hippocampus
B) fornix
C) amygdala
D) cingulate gyrus
E) thalamus

Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?
A) amygdala
B) putamen
C) fornix
D) hippocampus
E) cingulated gyrus

putamen

How is a reflex that requires communication with the brain classified?
A) visceral
B) spinal
C) cranial
D) somatic
E) innate

How is a reflex that involves signals sent along autonomic sensory nerves classified?
A) visceral
B) spinal
C) cranial
D) somatic
E) innate

How is a reflex that we are born with classified?
A) visceral
B) spinal
C) cranial
D) somatic
E) innate

How is a reflex that requires only a single synapse between two neurons classified?
A) bineuronal
B) bisynaptic
C) polysynaptic
D) monosynaptic
E) polyneuronal

Which of the following does NOT describe a type of reflex that occurred when Pavlov's dogs salivated in response to the ringing of a bell?
A) conditioned
B) cranial
C) visceral
D) polysynaptic
E) spinal

Which of the following reflexes is a monosynaptic reflex found in the human body?
A) crossed-flexor reflex
B) pupillary light reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) muscle spindle stretch reflex
E) withdrawal reflex

The withdrawal reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?
A) muscle spindle stretch receptor
B) nociceptor
C) photoreceptor
D) taste receptor
E) warm receptor

The crossed-extensor reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?
A) muscle spindle stretch receptor
B) nociceptor
C) photoreceptor
D) taste receptor
E) warm receptor

Where is the integration center for the pupillary light reflex located?
A) hypothalamus
B) cerebellum
C) occipital lobe
D) brainstem
E) spinal cord

The execution of a voluntary motor task involves a series of steps. Which of the following present those steps in the correct order?
A) program, intent, feedback, execute
B) program, intent, execute, feedback
C) intent, program, execute, feedback
D) feedback, intent, program, execute
E) intent, feedback, program, execute

The central nervous system can only use ketones for energy.
True False

Hydrogen ions cannot permeate the blood-brain barrier.
True False

There are no nerves in the central nervous system.
True False

The spinal cord travels the entire length of the vertebral column.
True False

All spinal nerves are mixed nerves containing both sensory and motor fibers.
True False

When we enter a dark room, the retinal and opsin molecules within the ________ must first ________ before low light levels can be detected.

Which of the following is TRUE of photoreceptors in the light (relative to the dark)?
A) cGMP levels are elevated.
B) Sodium channels are open.
C) The photoreceptors are depolarized.
D) The synaptic terminal is releasing more transmitter.
E) Phosphodiesterase is more active.

What type of vision occurs in light levels that activate both rods and cones?
A) scotopic
B) photopic
C) mesopic
D) retinotopic
E) all of the above

Disks of a photoreceptor are located in the ________ and contain ________.
A) inner segment : transmitter
B) outer segment : transmitter
C) inner segment : photopigment
D) outer segment : photopigment
E) synaptic terminal : transmitter

Which of the following is the correct order of communication of visual information in the retina?
A) photoreceptor; bipolar cell; ganglion cell
B) photoreceptor; ganglion cell; bipolar cell
C) bipolar cell; ganglion cell; photoreceptor
D) bipolar cell; photoreceptor; ganglion cell
E) ganglion cell; bipolar cell; photoreceptor

Photoreceptors transmit information directly to ________ cells via the release of a neurotransmitter, causing those cells to develop a(n) ________ potential proportional to the intensity of the stimulus.
A) ganglion : graded
B) amacrine : graded
C) bipolar : graded
D) amacrine : action
E) ganglion : action

The first neurons capable of generating action potentials in the transmission pathway for visual information detected by rods and cones are the ________ cells.
A) ganglion
B) bipolar
C) amacrine
D) vertical
E) horizontal

Which of the following best describes ON-center, OFF-surround cells in the retina?
A) They are photoreceptors that are excited by light applied in the center of their visual fields and inhibited by light in the surrounding regions of their visual fields.
B) They are bipolar cells that are excited by light applied in the center of their visual fields and inhibited by light in the surrounding regions of their visual fields.
C) They are ganglion cells that are excited by light applied in the center of their visual fields and inhibited by light in the surrounding regions of their visual fields.
D) They are photoreceptors that are excited by light striking the center of the retina and inhibited by light striking the peripheral retina.
E) They are ganglion cells that are excited by light striking the center of the retina and inhibited by light striking the peripheral retina.

Which of the following components of the visual pathway is 100% ipsilateral to the visual field?
A) visual cortex
B) optic nerve
C) optic tract
D) lateral geniculate nucleus
E) none

In the optic chiasm, ganglion cells from the ________ portion of the retina cross over, whereas the ganglion cells from the ________ portion of the retina remain on the same side.
A) nasal : center
B) center : nasal
C) temporal : nasal
D) nasal : temporal
E) temporal : center

The ganglion cells of the retina synapse with neurons in the ________ that ascend to the ________.
A) hypothalamus : primary visual cortex
B) thalamus : primary motor cortex
C) lateral geniculate body : cerebellum
D) thalamus : primary somatosensory cortex
E) lateral geniculate body : primary visual cortex

The neural pathway from the lateral geniculate body to the visual cortex is called the ________.
A) optic nerve
B) optic tract
C) optic radiations
D) optic fasciculus
E) optic chiasm

The visual system is an excellent example of parallel processing, where visual details are ________.
A) integrated before reaching the primary visual cortex
B) integrated by bipolar cells and sent to the primary visual cortex
C) transmitted along separate pathways to the primary visual cortex where they are then integrated
D) maintained within the optic chiasm where they are integrated
E) transmitted to the lateral geniculate body where they are integrated

Both the auditory and vestibular systems rely upon ________ to detect movement of fluid within the ear.
A) hair cells
B) chemoreceptors
C) thermoreceptors
D) magnetoreceptors
E) hydroreceptors

Sound waves traveling through the air initiate a vibration of the ________. The sound waves are then transmitted along the ________ to the cochlea.
A) saccule : eustachian tube
B) oval window : ossicles
C) oval window : eustachian tube
D) tympanic membrane : ossicles
E) round window : saccule

Auditory information is transmitted through the medial geniculate nucleus in the thalamus to the cortex.
True False

Each semicircular canal can only detect rotation in one direction.
True False

The vestibular apparatus can only detect changes in the rate of head movement.
True False

Taste receptor cells are located only on the tongue.
True False

Each taste receptor cell is specific to only one of the four primary tastes.
True False

The autonomic nervous system innervates all the following effector organs and tissues except ________.
A) skeletal muscles
B) cardiac muscles
C) endocrine glands
D) adipose tissues
E) exocrine glands

Dual innervation of organs by the autonomic nervous system refers to the observation that ________.
A) two postganglionic sympathetic neurons innervate each target organ
B) both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons innervate most organs
C) autonomic innervation involves preganglionic and postganglionic neurons
D) autonomic and somatic neurons innervate all organs
E) autonomic neurons that innervate each target organ originate from two ganglia

Which of the following physiological responses are associated with elevated sympathetic nervous system activity?
A) enhanced digestion
B) enhanced absorption of nutrients
C) decreased heart rate
D) increased contractile force of the heart
E) inhibition of cardiovascular function

Which of the following physiological responses are associated with an elevation in parasympathetic nervous system activity?
A) increased heart rate
B) enhanced absorption of nutrients
C) enhanced mobilization of energy stores
D) shifting blood flow away from the gastrointestinal tract
E) increased contractile force of the heart

At rest, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems to the regulation of homeostasis?
A) Only the sympathetic system is active.
B) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
C) Only the parasympathetic system is active.
D) Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
E) Neither system is active.

When the body is stressed, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems to the regulation of homeostasis?
A) Only the sympathetic system is active.
B) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
C) Only the parasympathetic system is active.
D) Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
E) Neither system is active.

Which of the following best describes the general arrangement of the efferent limb of the autonomic nervous system?
A) one neuron
B) two neurons in parallel
C) two neurons in series
D) three neurons in series
E) three neurons in parallel

Within the autonomic ganglia, what are the cells that modulate the flow of information to the target organ called?
A) intraganglionic neurons
B) ganglionic neurons
C) preganglionic neurons
D) postganglionic neurons
E) intrinsic neurons

Which of the following structures of an autonomic neuron is NOT located within the ganglion?
A) the cell body of preganglionic neurons
B) the terminal axon of preganglionic neurons
C) the intrinsic neurons
D) the cell body of postganglionic neurons
E) the dendrites of postganglionic neurons

Where do the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system emerge from the spinal cord?
A) thoracic region only
B) sacral region only
C) lumbar region only
D) thoracic and lumbar regions
E) lumbar and sacral regions

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons exit the spinal nerve via the ________ before they enter the ________.
A) white ramus : effector organ
B) gray ramus : effector organ
C) gray ramus : ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
D) ventral root : ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
E) white ramus : ganglion of the sympathetic trunk

Which of the following endocrine glands is innervated by the sympathetic preganglionic neurons?
A) adrenal cortex
B) adrenal medulla
C) thyroid gland
D) anterior pituitary
E) pancreas

What cells of the adrenal medulla release epinephrine?
A) alpha cells
B) beta cells
C) delta cells
D) adrenergic cells
E) chromaffin cells

Which of the following are indicative of the relative release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla?
A) 80% epinephrine : 20% dopamine
B) 80% norepinephrine : 20% dopamine
C) 80% norepinephrine : 20% epinephrine
D) 80% epinephrine : 20% norepinephrine
E) 100% acetylcholine

The primary hormone released from the adrenal medulla is norpinephrine.
True False

The parasympathetic nervous system exerts more discrete effects on effector organs than the sympathetic nervous system due to the independence of parasympathetic ganglia.
True False

All autonomic nerves contain only efferent fibers.
True False

The most abundant neurotransmitter in the peripheral nervous system is acetylcholine.
True False

Acetylcholine binding to nicotinic cholinergic receptors always excites the postsynaptic cell.
True False

Skeletal muscle fibers are formed by the fusion of multiple cells during embryonic development, resulting in the presence of numerous nuclei per fiber.
True False

Thick filaments have many protrusions along their middle (head of the myosin filaments) but none at their ends.
True False

Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are multinucleated cells, whereas smooth muscle cells each have one nucleus.
True False

As skeletal muscle shortens with contraction, the length of the I band remains constant as the length of the A band decreases.
True False

Binding of ATP to myosin increases myosin's affinity for actin.
True False

The contractile portion of the thin filament is composed of what protein?

What is the protein component of the thin filament that binds to calcium thereby initiating skeletal muscle contraction?

Which of the following is a structural protein that extends along each thick filament from M line to Z line.

The shortening of a skeletal muscle fiber during contraction involves which of the following?

During skeletal muscle contraction, as the muscle shortens, the thick and thin filaments ________.

When a skeletal muscle is passively stretched, that cell has a tendency to spring back once the force that was stretching the muscle is removed due to ________.

The repeated, oscillating interaction between actin and myosin that results in the generation of force by a skeletal muscle cell is called what?

What converts the myosin head into the high-energy state?

The release of an inorganic phosphate from the myosin molecule directly results in which of the following?

In order for crossbridge cycling to occur, the actin-myosin complex must be broken by which of the following?

The sequence of events that links the action potential to changes in skeletal muscle force development is called what?

During skeletal muscle contraction, multiple crossbridge cycles are occurring between the same thick and thin filament. Which of the following best describes this process?

Contraction of skeletal muscle fibers is stimulated by what type of neuron?

Which of the following is NOT a specialization observed at the neuromuscular junction?
A) the high density of acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate
B) Every action potential that reaches the axon terminal of the motor neuron will generate an action potential in the muscle fiber.
C) The motor end plate is relatively large compared with other synapses.
D) The terminal bouton fans out over a wide area of the sarcolemma.
E) Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.

) Increases in the amount of cytoplasmic calcium required to initiate a muscle contraction are mediated by the coupling between a ________ on the T tubule and a ________ on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
A) dihydropyridine receptor : ryanodine receptor
B) calcium pump : ryanodine receptor
C) ryanodine receptor : calcium pump
D) calcium-induced calcium release channel : dihydropyridine receptor
E) dihydropyridine receptor : calcium pump

) Which of the following is the voltage sensor that initiates an increase in cytoplasmic calcium in response to an action potential?
A) dihydropyridine receptor
B) ryanodine receptor
C) calcium pump
D) calcium-induced calcium release channel
E) sodium channel

The binding of calcium to troponin will directly cause which of the following?
A) the binding of ATP to myosin
B) the further release of calcium into the cytoplasm
C) the movement of tropomyosin, thereby exposing the myosin-binding site on the actin molecule
D) the movement of tropomyosin, thereby exposing the actin-binding site on the myosin molecule
E) the hydrolysis of ATP

What portion of a sarcomere shows up as light striations when viewed under a microscope?
A) A band
B) I band
C) H zone
D) M line
E) Z line

Which of the following best describes the function of transverse (t) tubules and the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle contraction?
A) Action potentials in T tubules trigger the release of acetylcholine, which binds to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum and triggers calcium release.
B) Action potentials in T tubules trigger the release of norepinephrine, which binds to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum and triggers calcium release.
C) Action potentials in T tubules are detected by DHP receptors, which are coupled to ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and open channels for calcium.
D) Action potentials in T tubules are detected by ryanodine receptors, which are coupled to DHP receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and open channels for calcium.
E) Action potentials in T tubules cause a depolarization of the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane, thereby opening calcium channels to trigger calcium release.

During the cross-bridge cycle, ATP binding to myosin causes which of the following?
A) the myosin head to attach to actin
B) the myosin head to detach from actin
C) the myosin head to swing forward pulling actin toward the M line
D) the myosin head to interact with calcium channels, triggering calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) the myosin head to be in its high-energy form

Prolapse involves improper alignment of the atrioventricular valve such that one or more of the cusps are pushed into the atrium by the pressure developed in the ventricle.
True False

The contractile cycle of the heart normally originates from a pacemaker cell within the sinoatrial node.
True False

Action potentials travel more quickly through the ventricular contractile cells than the conduction pathway
True False

Ventricular contraction begins at the top of the heart and travels downward to its apex.
True False

The AV node autorhythmic cells are the fastest depolarizing cells in the heart.
True False

Which of the following statements about the plateau phase of a contractile cell action potential is FALSE?
A) Calcium permeability is high relative to the resting state.
B) Sodium channels are inactivated.
C) Potassium permeability is low relative to the resting state.
D) The cardiac muscle is in the absolute refractory period.
E) The membrane potential remains the same as the peak of the action potential for about 200 milliseconds.

During phase 3 of a contractile cell action potential, ________.
A) only sodium permeability is increased
B) only calcium permeability is increased
C) only potassium permeability is increased
D) sodium and calcium permeability are both increased
E) sodium and potassium permeability are both increased

Which of the following ion channels does NOT participate in the contractile cell action potential?
A) type T calcium channels
B) type L calcium channels
C) delayed rectifying potassium channels
D) inward rectifying potassium channels
E) voltage-gated sodium channels

Which of the following is NOT a part of the excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle?
A) An action potential travels along transverse tubules.
B) Calcium channels in the plasma membrane open, allowing calcium ions to enter the cell.
C) Calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum open, allowing calcium ions to enter the cytosol.
D) Calcium binds to calmodulin in the cytosol.
E) Calcium opens calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

What is the function of the sodium-calcium exchanger in cardiac muscle?
A) depolarize the cell
B) trigger the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) remove calcium from the cytosol by transporting it to the extracellular fluid
D) remove calcium from the cytosol by transporting it into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
E) interact with troponin to initiate cross-bridge cycling

What is the role of ryanodine receptors in cardiac muscle?
A) They release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B) They transport calcium from cytosol to extracellular fluid.
C) They transport calcium from cytosol into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D) They bind hormones that affect the strength of contraction.
E) They bind to troponin to initiate cross-bridge cycling.

Which of the following components of an ECG represents ventricular depolarization?
A) P wave
B) QRS complex
C) T wave
D) PQ interval
E) TQ segment

Which of the following components of an ECG represents ventricular repolarization?
A) P wave
B) QRS complex
C) T wave
D) PQ interval
E) TQ segment

If damage to the AV node slowed down conduction through this tissue, what would be observed on an ECG?
A) a larger P wave
B) a longer P wave
C) a longer PR interval
D) a wider QRS complex
E) an inverted T wave

In an ECG recording, the RR interval is 0.5 seconds. What is the heart rate?
A) 50 beats/min
B) 100 beats/min
C) 30 beats/min
D) 60 beats/min
E) 120 beats/min

Which of the following describes second degree heart block?
A) there is a longer delay between atrial contraction and ventricular contraction
B) not every atrial contraction is followed by a ventricular contraction
C) not every ventricular contraction is preceded by an atrial contraction
D) the ventricles no longer contract
E) the atria no longer contract

During isovolumetric relaxation, ________.
A) the AV and semilunar valves are closed and ventricular pressure is increasing
B) the AV and semilunar valves are closed and ventricular pressure is decreasing
C) the AV and semilunar valves are open and ventricular pressure is increasing
D) the AV and semilunar valves are open and ventricular pressure is decreasing
E) the AV valves are open, the semilunar valves are closed, and ventricular pressure is decreasing

What is occurring during ventricular ejection?
A) the AV and semilunar valves are closed as ventricular pressure is increasing
B) the AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed as ventricular pressure is increasing
C) the AV and semilunar valves are open as blood is leaving the ventricles
D) the AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are open as blood is leaving the ventricles
E) the AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed as blood is leaving the ventricles

Which of the following is TRUE of the ventricular filling phase of the cardiac cycle?
A) Ventricular filling occurs during systole.
B) All valves in the heart are open.
C) Ventricular pressure is less than aortic pressure.
D) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure.
E) Ventricular pressure is decreasing.

What phase of the cardiac cycle is the heart in when all four valves of the heart are closed and ventricular pressure is less than atrial pressure?
A) ventricular filling
B) isovolumetric contraction
C) ventricular ejection
D) isovolumetric relaxation
E) none

What phase of the cardiac cycle is the heart in when all four valves of the heart are open and ventricular pressure is less than atrial pressure?
A) ventricular filling
B) isovolumetric contraction
C) ventricular ejection
D) isovolumetric relaxation
E) none

During which phase of the cardiac cycle are all four heart valves open?
A) ventricular filling
B) isovolumetric contraction
C) ventricular ejection
D) isovolumetric relaxation
E) none

Ejection of blood from the right ventricle will continue until ________.
A) the pulmonary semilunar valve contracts, inducing closure
B) pressure in the pulmonary artery is less than pressure in the right ventricle
C) pressure in the aorta is greater than pressure in the right ventricle
D) pressure in the pulmonary artery is greater than pressure in the right ventricle
E) pressure in the aorta is less than pressure in the right ventricle

The increase in ventricular volume early in diastole reflects ________.
A) the increased stiffness of the heart
B) the contraction of the atria moving blood into the ventricle
C) the passive movement of blood through the atrium and into the ventricle
D) the relaxation of the ventricle
E) the back-flow of blood from the aorta

The small increase in ventricular pressure observed late in diastole is caused by ________.
A) ventricular contraction
B) ventricular relaxation
C) atrial contraction
D) atrial relaxation
E) blood moving into the atria from vena cava

The portion of osmotic pressure exerted by ________ in the blood is known as colloid osmotic pressure.
A) proteins
B) small ions
C) large ions
D) lipids
E) steroids

Under normal conditions, which Starling forces favor filtration?
A) capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
C) capillary hydrostatic pressure and plasma osmotic pressure
D) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and plasma osmotic pressure
E) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure

Which of the following inaccurately represents normal forces across capillary walls?
A) Capillary hydrostatic pressure decreases from arteriole end to venous end.
B) Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure increases from arteriole end to venous end.
C) Capillary osmotic pressure is due primarily to plasma proteins.
D) Interstitial fluid osmotic pressure is almost 0.
E) At rest, net filtration occurs across capillary walls.

Given that the net filtration of fluid out of the capillaries averages about 3 liters per day, how is blood volume maintained in light of this apparent fluid loss?
A) The lymphatic system returns filtered fluid is returned to the blood.
B) The net filtration is equally balanced by absorption.
C) Gravity moves the fluid to the lowest point in the body, where the fluid is absorbed.
D) While fluid moves out across the capillary, it tends to move inward across veins.
E) The kidneys are involved in the reabsorption of the remaining fluid.