HM Advancement Test March 2013

  1. Procedures for submitting Medical Event Reports can be found in what instruction?
    BUMEDINST 6220.2
  2. Routine Medical Event Reports should be submitted to the cognizant NAVENPNTMEDU how often?
    Every 30 days
  3. What condition should never be reported using the Medical Event Report system?
  4. Who has overall responsibility on the Navy’s Medical Event Reports system?
    Chief, BUMED
  5. What instruction outlines policy on effective infectious waste management?
    BUMEDINST 6280.1
  6. Infectious waste that is not refrigerated can be stored for a maximum of how many days?
    7 days
  7. Where should you separate infectious and non-infectious waste?
    Point of Origin
  8. After receiving initial training on the proper management of infectious waste, how often must one receive training thereafter?
  9. The prevention and control of malaria is outlined in what instruction?
  10. Malaria is a vector-born disease transmitted by what insect?
    Female Anopheles Mosquito
  11. Whatmicro-organism causes malaria?
  12. Any confirmed or suspected case of malaria should be reported via what type ofmessage?
  13. Personnel who are G-6-PD deficient have a risk of hemolysis when taking whatchemoprophylaxis?
  14. Individualswho were given chemoprophylaxis because of a perceived risk of Malaria mustwait how many months until they are eligible to donate blood?
    36 months
  15. Whatis the deadliest strain of malaria?
  16. ___________________ are directives that arebrief in nature and usually remain in effect for six months, but no longer thanone year.
  17. Who has overall responsibility of the Department of the Navy’s Directives Issuance
  18. If the sole purpose of a notice is to cancel another directive, where is thecancellation paragraph located?
  19. Scheduled II medications must be filled within how many days of the date originallywritten?
    7 Days
  20. A deploying servicemember may receive up to how many days of a Scheduled II medication?
    90 Days
  21. The beyond-use date for multi-dose vials with an antimicrobial preservative is how many days?
    28 Days
  22. Single dose medication containers shall be used within how many hours of being opened?
    1 hour
  23. This drug schedule has a very high abuse potential, but does have acceptable medical use.
    Schedule II
  24. How often will the controlled substance vault combination be reconfigured?
    Every 6 months
  25. Unannounced inventory of Scheduled I & II medications shall be performed by the CSIB how often?
  26. The CSIB will consist of at least how many commissioned officers?
    At least one
  27. Report a theft or significant loss of Controlled Substances using what form?
    DEA 106
  28. What form is the Narcotic and Controlled Drug Account Record?
    NAVMED 6710/4
  29. Prolonged use of what drug classification may lead to the development of kidney stones?
  30. What is the drug of choice for uncomplicated chlamydial and gonococcal infections?
  31. What are the four types of routine physical exams?
    Entrance,PHA, Reenlistment, Separation
  32. Document subsequent audiograms on what form?
    DD 2216
  33. What form is the Report of Medical Examinations?
  34. Temporary Limited Duty must be processed within how many days?
    5 working days
  35. Temporary Limited Duty is documented on what form?
    NAVMED 6100/5
  36. On what date did Congress mandate that all sailing vessels will contain a “cockpit”?
    2 MAR 1799
  37. Who is the first HM to receive the Medal of Honor?
    Robert Stanley
  38. Which Secretary of the Navy publically thanked Hospital Corpsman for their contributions during WWII?
    James Forrestal
  39. Shock Trauma Platoons were first introduced during what phase of the Global War on Terrorism?
  40. What date was the HM school for WAVES commissioned at Bethesda, MD?
    12 JAN 1944
  41. The doctrine of using goodwill and cooperation to influence nations and people ofthe world.
    Soft Power
  42. In what year was the Dental Technician rating established?
  43. The mission of the Surgeon General and Chief of BUMED can be found in what instruction?
  44. Who is the principle staff advisor to the Surgeon General on all Navy medicinematters?
    Deputy Surgeon General or ViceChief, BUMED
  45. Waterlines should be flushed for how long at the beginning of each day?
    One minute
  46. What unit is used to easily and safely sterilize equipment?         
    Automated Washer Processor
  47. What is the most effective way to sterilize almost all instruments used in dentistry?            
    Steam HeatSterilization
  48.  What term defines a process that is less lethal than sterilization that killsdisease causing micro-organisms, but not resistant bacterial spores?                      
  49. Non wovenblue wrap that is plastic covered and heat sealed has a shelf life of how long?                  
    365 Days
  50.  When using the Downward Displacement Autoclave, actual timing does not begin untilthe temperature is above ___________________.  
    245Degrees Fahrenheit or 118 Degrees Celsius
  51. What test was developed for pre-vacuum sterilizers to determine if the air has beenremoved from the chamber during the pre-vacuum stage?      
    Bowie-Dick Test
  52. Typical dry heat time is 90 minutes at what temperature range?                     
    320 – 345 Degrees Fahrenheit
  53. When using the biological test pack, where will it be placed?  
    On top of an instrument set and the bottom shelf to the rear
  54. How long are Sterrad sterilization records kept?      
  55. Whatis the only liquid chemical that, if properly used, is capable of rendering an
    item sterile? 
  56. If an item is to be sterilized using glutaraldehyde, the item must be submerged for at least how long?                  
  57. What term describes any animal capable of transmitting pathogens or producing humanor animal discomfort or injury?      
  58. Document food service sanitation inspections on what form?  
    NAVMED 6240/15
  59. For dental treatment rooms, flush water lines for at least how long between patients?        
    30 Seconds
  60.  The Bell stage is the last period of tooth growth and is often referred to as what?                
  61. Enamel consists of what percentage of inorganic minerals?        
  62. What disease is often referred to as trenchmouth and is characterized by redness,swelling and pain?                   
  63. This condition describes an inflammation of the gingiva around a partially eruptedtooth.  
  64. Whicht eeth are most often affected by pericoronitis?               
    17& 32 3rd molars
  65. How far above the intended phlebotomy site should the tourniquet be placed?  
     3 – 4 Inches
  66. What color tube is the best choice for routine chemistry tests?               
  67. What objective should be used for a detailed study of stained bacterial smears?
    100X Oil Immersion
  68. What is the normal value range for male hemoglobin?               
     14- 18
  69. The term used to describe an abnormally high WBC count is _______________________.                   
  70. Which CBC study often provides the most helpful information in determining theseverity and type of infection?                  
  71. Which leukocyte responds to parasitic infections?             
  72. The_______________________ is the largest of all WBCs.       
  73. What is the term used to describe bacteria that cause disease?                   
  74. Streptococcus pyogenes is the bacteria that causes ________________________.           
    Strep Throat
  75. What is the term used for a substance that, when introduce into an individual’sbody, is recognized as foreign to the body and causes a detectable reaction?              
  76. Whatchemical preparation is frequently used to detect fungi?                   
    Potassium Hydrochloride
  77. _______________ml of urine is the desired volume for routine testing.  
    12 ml
  78. The specific gravity of a liquid is the weight of the substance as compared to an equal volume of ______________________.    
    Distilled Water
  79. What is the normal range for the specific gravity of urine?          
     1.015 – 1.030
  80. X-rays were first discovered in what year?     
  81. List the four factors that control the density of X-rays.                  
    Kilo voltage, Exposure time, Mili-amperage, TargetFilm Distance
  82.  Who monitors the use of X-rays?    
    Nuclear Regulatory Commission
  83.  A worker will be referred to the radiation health safety office for investigationif their film badge records an exposure greater than ________________ REM.          
     0.010 REM
  84. Radiationfilm badges should be collected when?  
    Every 6 to 7 weeks
  85. This type of dental radiological examination is conducted when fractures of the jawor gross pathological conditions are suspected.             
    Occlusal Examination
  86. Policy on the Navy’s Radiological Systems Performance Evaluation Program can be found in what instruction? 

    BUMEDINST 6470.22
  87. Who is responsible for notifying commands within 10 days of a contract award datefor the installation of new equipment?          
  88. All radiological systems shall be evaluated within how many days of installation orafter any major repair?                            
    30 Days
  89. Radiological system Evaluation reports should be maintained for how long?              
      3 years
  90. The mission and job description of the Surgeon General and Chief, BUMED is definedin what instruction?         
    BUMEDINST 5450.165
  91. What is the recommended fiber intake for women?  
     25 Grams
  92. What diet is recommended for burn victims and patients recovering from trauma?    
    HighCalorie/High Protein  
  93. Total calories from fat in MREs should not exceed what percentage of the rationsNDRI?      
  94. MREs may be consumed as the sole ration for up to ________________ days.    
    21 Days
  95.  All military dining facilities will offer reduced calorie menus containing how manycalories per day?                                               
    1500– 1600 k/cal
  96. Which Decedent Affairs program is initiated during major military operations? 
    Graves Registration
  97. A CACO is normally assigned to assist the needs of family members for what periodof time?            
      90 Days to 9 Months
  98. The CO must write a letter of condolence to the appropriate NOK within what timeframe?              
    48 hours
  99.  What type of message should be used to notify BUMED and Navy Mortuary Affairs of adisaster resulting in the death of naval members?            
  100. The Navy awards annual mortuary contracts tolocal funeral homes anticipating what minimum number of deaths per year?         
  101. What type of expense does Grave plot servicefall under?       
     Secondary Expense
  102. Remains should be refrigerated above thefreezing point between _____________ and _______________ degrees.
    36and 40 degrees F
  103. When remains are transferred from an overseas activity to a CONUS point of entry, three signed copies of what form must accompany the remains?          
  104. What are the dimensions for a standard size casket?  
    23 X 78 inches
  105. What form is given to the PADD to claim reimbursement or payment for primary expenses, transportation, and secondary expenses?              
    DD 1375  
  106. List the three classifications of national cemeteries.  
    Open, Closed and New
  107. To whom must an application requesting a commercial headstone be submitted?              
  108. The concept of ________________ refers to the mental, physical and emotional state of being which enables the proper performance of one’s vital functions.             
  109. ______________________ is defined as a group of socially learned and shared standards and behavior patterns.    
  110. Surgical procedures are classified into what two major categories?     
    Emergency and Elective  
  111. What form number must be completed prior to administering any preoperative medications?        
    SF 5221
  112. What is the most common type of regional anesthesia an HM will administer?     
    Digital Block  
  113. During what stage of anesthesia will a patient experience muscular activity and delirium, and may respond violently to very little stimulation.          
  114. A short arm cast extends from the base of the __________________ to __________ inch below the AC space.                      
    MPJ and 1 inch
  115. Generally, the wrist is in what position when being placed in a short arm cast?       
  116. List the five stages of death. 
     Denial, anger, bargaining, acceptance 
  117. Hot water bottles should never exceed __________________ degrees Fahrenheit.         
    125 degrees F
  118. The disinfection and sterilization of patient supplies and equipment during hospitalization is known as what?              
  119. What instruction issues policy and procedural guidelines for active duty Navy Medical Department personnel to be assigned to augment operational platforms and/or units during contingency or wartime situations?                    
     BUMEDINST 6440.5
  120. Who is ultimately responsible for ensuring EMPARTS and ITEMPO data systems are updated?         
  121. Forces that are designated for the force build-up stage that are ready and capable of mobilizing and deploying within 30 days will be given what readiness category? 
    Surge Ready
  122. Medical Battalion contains ______________ Surgical Companies that each have ________________ holding beds.                                               
     3 and 60
  123. Patient movement occurs in what two phases?           
    Evacuation, Medical Regulating
  124. ___________________________ medical evacuation assets are non-medical patient movement assets, not externally marked and are not protected under the Geneva Conventions.
  125. Which AMAL number lists Shock Surgical Team and triage supplies?     
  126. Which AMAL number lists Field Dental Operatoryequipmentand supplies?               
  127. Who is responsible for the design, construction and maintenance of shipboard potable water systems?       
  128. Who is responsible for the surveillance program of the potable water system including collection of samples for coliform bacteria testing as prescribed and daily halogen residuals?  
    Medical Department
  129. During water hours, personnel are limited to how many gallons per day?                  
  130. Remove the shore cap and flush pier side potable water outlets for ______________ to _______________ seconds.                            
    15 - 30
  131. What percentage of ice machines must be tested every week? 
  132. For how long will Potable Water Logs be maintained?                 
    2 years
  133. _______________________ are organisms that transmit disease to man, act as intermediate hosts or reservoirs of disease, present problems of sanitary or hygienic significance, or otherwise affect the health and efficiency of personnel.          
  134. Responsibility for supervising pest control operations aboard ship is delegated to who?     
    Medical Department
  135. A __________________________ is any substance or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest.    
  136. What pest ranks first in importance among the insects that transmit disease to man?         
  137. What pest is responsible for the transmission of trench fever?               
  138. Foods that contain ___________ to ___________ insects per pound may still be fit for human consumption.                
    1 to 70   
  139. Rat guards should be a minimum of _____________ inches in diameter and mounted at least ________ feet from the closest point on shore or ship.            
    36 inches, 6 Feet
  140. No more than ________________ vaccine injections will be given on the same day.           
  141. Live-virus immunizations will be administered simultaneously or at ____________ weeks apart.            
    4 weeks
  142. What form is also known at Yellow Card? 
    PHS 731
  143. What form is the Child Immunizations Record?                   
    NAVMED 6230/5
  144. Aviation personnel will be grounded for how long following each dose of JEV?   
    24 hours    3,5,3 days
  145. Dependent’s enrollment in DEERS is accomplished by submitting what form?       
    DD 1172
  146. Newborns will not be denied medical care up to __________________ days following birth.         
    60 days
  147. Commands initiating a competency for duty examination will complete blocks ______ through ______ on NAVMED 6120/1.          
     1 through 14
  148. List the three major categories of medical records.    
    Health Records, Outpatient Records, Inpatient Records
  149. The FMP for a foreign national is ________________.         
  150. What is the form used for charging out medical records?         
     NAVMED 6150/7
  151. What type of record is an original record established and maintained in a specialty clinic or department that will be subsequently merged with the original medical record?      
    Temporary Records
  152. What group of chemical agents create an accumulation of acetylcholine at a cholinergic synapse that disrupts the normal transmission of nerve impulses?      
    Nerve Agents
  153. Immediate treatment of a victim who has been exposed to AC is achieved first by using what?     
    Amyl Nitrate
  154. The VGH ABC-M8 Chemical Agent Detector Paper is used to detect and identify the liquids of what two groups of chemical agents?      
    Nerve, Blister
  155.  Physical decontamination of personnel affected by chemical agents is the responsibility of who? 
    Decontamination Team 
  156. What chemical agent is said to have a disagreeable, penetrating odor that may appear as a liquid or as a colorless, low melting point solid which is readily soluble in water?
    CX (Phosgene Oxime)
  157. Heat acclimatization occurs gradually, usually requiring how many weeks?           
    3 weeks
  158. Who is responsible for conducting heat stress surveys in engineering spaced aboard submarines?                                                                
    Medical Department Representative 
  159. Assigned personnel shall monitor compartments every hour for manned spaces if dry bulb temperatures exceed __________ degrees Fahrenheit.            
    85 degrees
  160.  The Battalion Aid Station is comprised of _____________ medical officer(s) and up to _________________ Hospital Corpsman.              
      2 and 65
  161.  Each flying squadron has a medical section consisting of __________ flight surgeon(s) and up to ___________ HMs.                                      
    1 and 4
  162. What level of care is characteristic of a surgical company or CRTS and is distinguished by the application of clinical judgment and skill by a team of physicians, nurses and medical technicians? 
    Level II (Initial Resuscitative Care)
  163. What level of care is normally provided by military or Department of Veterans Affairs hospitals inside of the Continental United States?    
     Level V (Convalescent, Restorative and Rehabilitative Care)  
  164. A patient infected with syphilis will normally develop a painless lesion within how many weeks of initial contact?         
    3 Weeks
  165. Primary treatment of syphilis infections is achieved with what?               
    Penicillin G
  166.  Alternative treatments of syphilis can be achieved with ________________________ or _________________________.                      
    Doxycycline or Tetracycline
  167. What acute febrile viral disease is caused by the Aedes Aegypti mosquito and is characterized by fever, headache, nausea, vomiting?              
    Dengue Fever
  168.  Rapid weak pulse, low blood pressure, cold and clammy skin and restlessness are signs of what complication of Dengue Fever?                  
    Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever
  169. What type of correspondence is considered to be a less formal way to correspond within a command?      
  170. Use a ____________________________ as an internal document to record supporting information in the record that is not recorded elsewhere.           
    Memorandum for the Record
  171. The Navy’s correspondence manual can be found in what instruction? 
    SECNAVINST M5216.5
  172.   How many iodine tablets are needed to dissolve 5 gallon water cans?     
  173. Thawing temperature for food must not exceed how many degrees Fahrenheit?               
    80 degrees
  174. When using the 5 can dishwashing battery, which can is used for washing?            
        Can 3
  175. MREs have a shelf life of how many months?               
    48 months
  176. Straddle trenches must be _______________ feet away from water sources and food service areas?            
    100 feet
  177. Immersion Syndrome occurs when extremities are continuously exposed to water at a temperature of ________________ Fahrenheit or less.
    50 Degrees
  178. In non-tactical situations, casualties whose injuries are critical but who will require minimal time or equipment to manage and who have a good prognosis for survival will be categorized in what triage category?          
    Priority I (Immediate)
  179.   In tactical situations, patients for whom definitive treatment can be delayed without jeopardy to life or loss of limb will be categorized in what triage category?                
     Class III (Delayed)
  180. Decreased intravascular volume which may occur from the loss of blood, plasma or fluid is known as _________________________ shock.        
  181.   Which heat injury may be the result from drinking ice water or other cold drinks either too quickly or in too large a quantity after exercise?        
    Heat Cramps
  182. A substance that, when introduced to the body, produces a harmful effect on normal body structures or functions is known as what?     
  183. Unless directed by a Poison Control Center or Medical Officer, patients who have ingested corrosives may only be given what?            
  184. For victims of food poisoning, definitive medical care is necessary if diarrhea persists more than how long?           
    24 hours
  185.  What is considered to be the most common route of exposure to toxic substances in the Navy and other industrial settings?               
  186.  For victims of scorpion stings, _______________ ml of 10% calcium gluconate may be given for muscle cramps.      
     10 ml
  187. What type of spider is identified by a red hourglass-shaped spot on its belly?     
    Black Widdow
  188. Cobras, kraits, mambas and corals belong to what snake family?              
  189. Materials in full, unbroken containers that are available for use is known as __________________________ stock.      
  190. Every item in the FSC is identified by a13-digit stock number referred to as _________________________________.                .       
    National Stock Number
  191. National item identification numbers are comprised of how many digits?                   
  192. The measurement that indicates the quantity of an item that should be maintained to ensure operations will continue if replenishment supplies are not received on time is known as what?   
    Safety Level
  193.  What form is used to order standard stock items that have a NSN?               
     DD 1348
  194. This form is used as a requisition and shipping document and can be used ordering open market items. 
    DD 1149
  195.  What type of inventory is conducted when a requisition is returned showing the item is not in stock but the stock records indicate the item is on hand?      
     Specific Commodity
  196.  List the five TRICARE plans.               .   
    Prime, Standard, Extra, TFL, Prime Remote
  197. What TRICARE program is designed for service members and their families who are on remote assignment, typically 50 miles from an MTF? 
    Tricare Prime Remote
  198. What TRICARE program is a fee-for-service plan that give beneficiaries the option to see any TRICARE certified/authorized provider and offers the greatest flexibility in choosing a provider?         
  199.    What TRICARE program is available to MEDICARE-entitled uniformed services retirees, their family members and Medal of Honor recipients?           
    Tricare for Life
  200. *** Good Luck on your Exams!!!!!!!!!***
Card Set
HM Advancement Test March 2013
Study test for HM advancement