Accident and Health Insurance Questions From Pohs Textbook

  1. This type of risk involves only a chance of loss.



    D. pure
  2. What kind of risk is insurable?




    C. Pure
  3. The tendency of persons with above average risk to acquire insurance at a greater extent than those with average or below average risk is defined as:




    A. adverse selection
  4. insurance is a method of risk_________?




    C. transfer
  5. if you retain risk, you are:




    A. self-insured
  6. this law is the basis for statistical  prediction of loss upon which rates for insurance are calculated 




    C. law of large numbers
  7. mutual companies are owned by their




    B. policyholders
  8. this is a method of distributing insurance products to the public by using salaried employees rather than commissioned agents...




    C. direct writers
  9. a policy that pays dividends is known as a ______ policy.




    A. participating
  10. an insurance company that is licensed in the state in which it operates is called a/an _______ insurer




    C. admitted
  11. a(n) _______  insurer is one that is incorporated and domiciled outside the United States




    C. alien
  12. these producers typically represent only one insurance company.




    D. captive agents
  13. these insurers are organized for the benefit of a society's members and their families.




    B. fraternal benefit societies
  14. which of the following is not a rating company used by the insurance industry?




    D. SIPC
  15. an applicant for life insurance cannot generally bargain for terms, rates, or benefits because the nature of the contract is.




    A. adhesive
  16. which of the following terms means that an insurance contract is dependent on chance or uncertain outcome?




    A. aleatory
  17. statements which are guaranteed to be true are 




    C. warranties
  18. statements which are deemed to be untrue are _________




    A. misrepresentations
  19. offer and acceptance, legal purpose, competent parties and ________ are all essential requirements of a legal contract




    C. consideration
  20. the authority granted to a producer by contract to enable him or her to act as an agent is called




    A. express authority
  21. contracts wherein only one party is mandated to perform are called ________ contracts.




    D. unilateral
  22. ________ is the term that describes the intentional giving up of a knowing right.




    B. waiver
  23. the primary source of insurance regulation is the :




    A. state goverment
  24. what did the McCarran-Ferguson Act of 1945 do?
    it reaffirmed the primary role of states in regulating the insurance industry
  25. what is the primary role of the NAIC?

    a. to act as a forum for the development of uniform policy when uniformity is appropriate 

    b. to enforce insurance laws in each state
    c. to renew, approve or deny insurer rate or premium  requests.
    A. to act as a forum for the development of uniform policy when uniformity is appropiated
  26. an agent is a representative of:




    A. the insurance company
  27. a health insurance policy that pays a specified amount for covered surgical expenses is called:




    C. schedule basis
  28. principal types of losses covered by accident and health insurance include all of the following except:




    C. medicaid
  29. all of the following policies are defined as limited policies except:




    A. HMO
  30. the amount paid by and AD&D policy for the accidental dismemberment of a finger is called:




    B. capital sum
  31. a policy that only pays for losses that occur due to disease specified in the policy is called:




    A. specified disease
  32. an insurance underwriter's primary job is to:




    D. protect the insurer from adverse selection
  33. all of the following are producer's responsibilities at the time a policy is delivered EXCEPT:




    A. provide copies of medical records obtained by the insurer
  34. the effective date of an accident and health policy is: 




    B. the date specified in the policy
  35. which of the following are considerations in replacing an accident and health polity?




    D. all of the above
  36. a producer's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT:



    B. guaranteeing a policy is issued
  37. an insurer must furnish claim forms to an insured within how many days of receiving a notice of claim?




    B. 15
  38. all of the following are uniform mandatory provisions, EXCEPT:




    C. change of occupation
  39. the police provision that provides an insured a specified amount of time to pay the premium after being billed is called:




    C. grace period
  40. all of the following are uniform optional provisions, EXCEPT:




    C.  change of beneficiary 
  41. the reinstatement provision states that a policy is automatically reinstated if the insurer does not issue a decision after: 




    D. 45 days
  42. the insuring clause of a policy describes:




    C. the conditions necessary for benefits to be paid
  43. a policy in which an insurer cannot cancel coverage or change the premium is called:




    B. noncancellable
  44. this provision describes who will receive payment for claims made if the insured dies:




    C. payment of claims provision
  45. the provision that allow an insured a period of time to study a policy that was just delivered is called:




    D. right to examine ( free look )
  46. an insured can bring legal action against an insurer after how many days form the filing of a proof of loss? 




    D. 60 days
  47. the most restrictive definition of total disability is:




    A. any occupation
  48. a disability policy provision that allows a person to receive disability benefits for the entire benefit period, even if that person can earn an income is:




    A. presumptive disabiity
  49. the time frame selected by an insured during which otherwise payable disability income benefits would not be paid is called:




    D. elimination period
  50. a person that would like to receive benefit payments for a partial disability would purchase this rider




    A. residual disability rider
  51. a rider that allows an insured to increase his disability income coverage periodically without regard to changes in the insured's health is called:




    B. future increase option rider
  52. the unique aspects of underwriting a disability policy is include all of the following, EXCEPT: 




    D. beneficiary designations
  53. all of the following are necessary for an individual to receive full disability benefits, EXCEPT:




    B. completion of the benefit period
  54. features of group disability insurance include:




    A. no individual underwriting
  55. a disability income policy that promises to pay a sole proprietor a monthly benefit to cover the fixed expenses of running his business is called:




    A. business overhead expense insurance
  56. a policy designed to fund the purchase of a departing partner's share of business is called:




    A. disability buy/sell insurance
  57. the shorter the elimination period




    B. the higher the premium
  58. group disability income benefits may be reduced by:




    A. workers compensation benefits and social security disability income benefits 
  59. a medical plan that provides low maximum limits of coverage is called:




    C. basic medical 
  60. major medical plan characteristics include all of the following, except:




    D. limited access to providers
  61. which of the following plans would be considered managed care?




    D. all of the above
  62. a medical plan that combines basic medical expense coverage and major medical expense coverage in one policy is called:




    B. supplemental major medical
  63. common limitations of major medical insurance include all of the following, EXCEPT:




    d skilled nursing facility care
    B. custodial care
  64. the expenses that must be paid by an insured before major medical insurance pays is called:




    A. deductible
  65. a closed panel HMO is one that:




    D. limits the numbers of providers it will place under contract
  66. all of the following are characteristics of HMOs, except:




    A. they only pay for medical necessary treatment for illness or injury
  67. the point of service part of an HMO/POS contract :




    D. none of the above
  68. managed care plans use the following practices to control costs:




    D. all of the above
  69. a concurrent review is used by insurers to:




    D. adjust ongoing care to appropriate leves
  70. The federal law that allows employees covered under a group plan to be guaranteed coverage under another group plan if the employee change jobs is called:




    A. Hipaa
  71. A waiver for pre-existing conditions is now limited to : 




    B. 12 months
  72. A special type of saving account established under HIPAA  to encourage the use of high deductible medical plans is called:




    D. MSA
  73. HSAs can be used to pay for the following medical expenses:




    D. all of the above
  74. a plan that allows either the employer or the employee to make a tax deductible contribution to a special account is called:




    A. HSA
  75. which of the following is NOT  considered a natural group?




    A. members of a block association
  76. once an employee completes the probationary period, the employee can enroll in the company's group benefit plan without underwriting:




    D. during the open enrollment period
  77. all of the following are group characteristics, EXCEPT:




    D. individual policies for all enrollees
  78. if a group plan sponsor sets up a contributory plan, what percentage of eligible employees are required to participate?




    B. 75%
  79. a federal law created to protect employee pensions is called:




    C. ERISA
  80. the federal law that mandates that Medicare be secondary to group medical insurance for groups with more than 20 employees is called;




    B. TEFRA
  81. a condition that would be suitable for a self-funded medical plan is:




    D. an employer has operations in several states
  82. under ADEA, it is illegal for employers to:




    B. discriminate against employees age 40 or older
  83. an employee can be disqualified for COBRA benefits if:




    D. the employer does not pay premiums in a timely manner
  84. an arrangement designed to limit an employer's exposure if employee medical claims become very high is called:




    C. stop loss coverage
  85. an individual that loses group coverage can convert to an individual medical insurance plan without evidence of insurability within:




    B. 31 days
  86. in order for an illness to qualify for worker's compensation, it must:




    C. be due to conditions peculiar to the job
  87. the four basic benefits of worker's compensation include all of the following, EXCEPT:




    D. disability income benefits of 50% of the disabled employee's salary
  88. to qualify for social security disability income benefits, a person must be:




    C. fully insured
  89. medicare part A covers all of the following, EXCEPT:




    C. custodial care
  90. a person can qualify for medicare part A:




    A. by suffering from end stage renal disease
  91. medicare part A pays for the first 60 days in hospital:




    B. after the insured pays the Part A deductible
  92. medicare is financed by:




    C. payroll taxes paid equally by the employer and the employee
  93. the federal law that allows employees covered under a group plan to be guaranteed coverage under another group plan if the employee changes job is called:




    B. HIPAA
  94. a waiver for pre-existing conditions is not limited to :




    B. 12 months
  95. a special type of savings account established under HIPAA to encourage the use of high deductible plans is called:




    B. MSA
  96. HSAs can be used to pay for the following medical expenses:




    D. all of the above
  97. a plan that allows either the employer or the employee to make a tax deductible contribution to a special account is called:




    D. HSA
  98. which of the following is NOT considered a natural group?




    B. members of a block association
  99. once a employee completes the probationary period, the employee can enroll in the company's group benefit plan without underwriting:




    D. during the open enrollment period
  100. all of the following are group characteristics, EXCEPT:




    C. individual policies for all enrollees
  101. if a group plan sponsor sets up a contributory plan, what percentage of eligible employees are required to participate?




    B. 75%
  102. a federal law created to protect employee pensions is called:




    B. ERISA
  103. the federal that mandates that Medicare be secondary to group medical insurance for groups with more than 20 employees is called;




    D. TEFRA
  104. a condition that would be suitable for a self-funded medical plan is :




    C. an employer has operations in several states
  105. under ADEA, it is illegal for employers to:




    C. discriminate against employees age 40 or older
  106. an employee can be disqualified for COBRA benefits if:




    D. the employee does not pay premiums in a timely manner
  107. an arrangement designed to limit an employer's exposure if employee medical claims become very high is called:




    B. stop loss coverage
  108. an individual that loses group coverage can convert to an individual insurance plan without evidence of insurability within:




    A. 31 days
  109. in order for an illness to qualify for worker's compensation, it must be:




    D. be due to conditions peculiar to the job
  110. the four basic benefits of Worker's compensation include all of the following, EXCEPT:




    A. disability income benefits of 50% of the disabled employee's salary
  111. to qualify for social security disability income benefits, a person must be:




    A. fully insured
  112. medicare part A covers all of the following, EXCEPT:




    D. custodial care
  113. a person can qualify for Medicare part A:




    C. by suffering from end stage renal disease
  114. medicare part A pays for the first 60 days in a hospital:




    A. after the insured pays the Part A deductible
  115. medicare is financed by :




    B. the payroll taxes paid equally by the employer and the employee
  116. skilled nursing facility care is paid for by Medicare:




    C. in full for the first 20 days
  117. the medicare part B deductible is:




    C. per calendar year
  118. all of the following are exclusions under medicare part A and part B, EXCEPT:




    D. flu shots
  119. a medicare plan that requires the insured to utilize a provider in an HMO is called:




    A. medicare part C
  120. under federal law, how many standardized medicare supplement plans are there?




    C. 12
  121. enrollment for medicare part B is handled by:




    B. the social security administration
  122. medicare part B covers all of the following, EXCEPT:




    A. skilled nursing facility
  123. according to the 2000 census, the fastest growing segment of our population is the cohort ages:




    C. 65 and above
  124. the average cost for a stay in a private room in a nursing home, nationally, in 2005 was:




    D. over $200 per day
  125. which type of care is the most provided long-term care in the US?




    A. custodial care
  126. a LTCI policy that is tax qualified is one that:




    C. meets the standards of health insurance set forth by the IRS and HIPAA
  127. all of the following are activities of daily living (ADLs), EXCEPT:




    C. taking medications
  128. LTCI  policies my pay for long term care in all of the following settings, EXCEPT:




    A. VA hospital
  129. a benefit in tax qualified LTCI policies that provides short term care to give temporary relief to an unpaid care giver is called:




    B. respite care
  130. Tom and Mary, ages 54 and 52, want to purchase a long term care insurance policy with the strongest inflation protection. They should purchase which inflation option?




    C. 5% compound
  131. a period selected by the applicant made up of the number of dates of service that would otherwise be covered by the policy if it were not for this period is called:




    C. the elimination period
  132. an employer with 500 employees wants to offer LTCI




    D. periodic issue
  133. a federal law that requires states to recover funds spent by medicaid on long term is called:




    B. OBRA 93
Author
zacariasripollcid
ID
198141
Card Set
Accident and Health Insurance Questions From Pohs Textbook
Description
This are the questions from posh institute textbook
Updated