B-400 M, #, Lim

  1. Aborted Engine Start or Fire Engine Tailpipe
    1. FUEL CONTROL switch ...... CUTOFF
  2. CABIN ALTITUDE or Rapid Depressurization
    • 1 Don the oxygen mask.
    • 2 Establish crew communications.
  3. Engine Limit or Surge or Stall
    • 1 Thrust lever
    • (affected engine)...Confirm...Retard until indications stay within normal limits, or return to normal, or the thrust lever is at idle
  4. FIRE ENG 1, 2, 3, 4, or Eng Svr Damage/Sep
    • 1 Thrust lever
    •     (affected engine)...Confirm...Idle
    • 2 FUEL CONTROL switch
    •    (affected engine)...Confirm...CUTOFF
    • 3 Engine fire switch
    •    (affected engine)...Confirm...Pull
    • 4 If the FIRE ENG message is shown:  
    •   Engine fire switch...Rotate to the stop and       hold for 1 sec
    • If after 30 second the FIRE ENG message stays shown:
    •       Engine fire with ....Rotate other stop and hold for 1 second
  5. Mult Eng Fail/Stall
    • 1  CONT IGNITION switch.....ON
    • 2  FUEL CONTROL switches
    •    (affected engines)....Confirm....CUTOFF    then run
    • 3  If EGT rises rapidly approaching EGT takeoff limit:   Repeat the above step as needed
  6. Maximum Operating Altitude
  7. Maximum Takeoff and Landing Altitude
    9500 (and it's max field elevation)
  8. Runway slope
    +/- 2%
  9. # Turbulent air penetration speed is
    290 to 310 (.82-85 Mach) whichever is lower
  10. approved tires that are capable of (? mph (?kst) must be installed in order to utilize max structure and performance-limited takeoff weights
    235mph (204kts)
  11. if pax occupy upper deck then
    a cabin crew member must be on duty in this compartment during t/o, taxi, & landing
  12. #max t/o and landing tailwind
  13. ground wind limits for all doors
    40kts while opening or closing

    65kts while open
  14. takeoff/landing crosswind guidelines (including peak gust) these are guidelines not limits
    • braking action good, dry 30/30kts...wet 25/25
    • braking action medium, dry snow...25/10
    • medium to poor, standing water/slush..15/10
    • poor, ice-no melting 15-10

    • Note on bank angle greater than 5degrees
    • ico term for fair is medium
  15. MTW (max taxi weight)
    397,800 kg
  16. MTOW (t/o)
  17. MLW 
  18. MZFW

    for zero fuel weight greater than 276,691 comply with decrease mw limits (in W&B manual)
  19. Max diff pressure (relief valves)
    9.4 psi
  20. Max allowable cabin pressure diff for t/o & landing
    .11 psi
  21. 400c, 400p, LCF  (A/C) PACK OFF for takeoff or go-around
    Not permitted (at least on A/C pack on)
  22. APU may be used to supply bleed air to a/c pack number __, provided isolation valve remains closed.
  23. Can APU generator power be used in flight?
  24. APU operation between 15,000 and 20,000 feet PA is limited to "no load" only.  APU bleed air should not be used above___,
    15,000' PA
  25. #  Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is ____.
  26. # The autopilot must not be engaged below ___.
    250' after t/o
  27. The auto pilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends more than 50' below ____
    MDA unless it is coupled to an ILS glideslope and localizer or in the go-around mode
  28. #without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the auto pilot must not remain engage below___
    100' RA
  29. During autoland operations, touchdown should be assume to occur at ____ ft from the runway threshold.  ____ ft must be added to the Advisory Landing Distances in the QRH and OPS
    2500, 1000
  30. # Automatic landings may be made with flaps ___ or ___ ___.
    25 or 30 only
  31. # The maximum and minimum glideslope angles?
    3.25 and 2.5 degrees
  32. Automatic landings require ___ hydraulic systems.
  33. # Max with components for Autoland
    HW, TW, crossW, crossW CAT II/III
    25, 15, 25, 15
  34. Min threshold crossing height
  35. ACARS limited to:
    sending messages which will not create an unsafe condition if the message is improperly received, such as the following conditions: the message or parts of the message are delayed or not received, the message is delivered to the wrong recipient or the message content may be frequently corrupted.  However, pre-departure clearance, digital atis, oceanic clearances, w&b, perf data can be transmitted and received if they are verified per approved operational procedures
  36. ATC clearance data received through the FMC which can only be viewed on the flight deck printer must be___________.
    independently verified with the originating group station
  37. Do not operate the HF radios ___
    during refueling ops
  38. Do not use center VHF radio on ____ or ____ as required mean of communication.  If required, left and right VHF must be operational for dispatch 
    120.000 MHz or 120.005 MHz
  39. Where do you find info on CNS and/or RVSM capability?
    DDG and FCOM L.10.7 & L.10.8
  40. When must a crew use oxygen?
    cabin alt above 10,000ft.  If 100% or emergency is not needed the regulator must be set to normal
  41. 400c/400p The emergency evacuation slide system must be in ____, and engagement of each escape slide pack extractor must be verified by a check that the knob is visible in the _____ viewing port prior to taxi, takeoff and landing whenever _______.
    Automatic, Automatic, pax/supernumeraries occupy the upper deck cabin.
  42. 400F/-8
    The upper deck escape slide must be in the forward locked position during ___, ____, & ____.
    taxi, takeoff, and landing whenever the upper deck cabin is occupied
  43. ELT is used only for ____ and may be activated either ____.
    grave and imminent danger; manually or automatically
  44. there must be at least one portable oxy unit with full face mask attached to it provided for each ____
    supernumerary allowed to enter the main deck cargo compartment during flight and they must carry it while there and must be trained in its use
  45. An adequate quantity of oxygen for sustenance must be provided for each occupant for flight at ____ to the nearest suitable airport.  
  46. target O2 psi for crew sys and pass sys?
    • crew - Land 950, Ocean 1200
    • pass - Land 1200, Ocean 1200
  47. Smoke barrier door must be closed during ___, ___, ___, and ___.
    taxi, takeoff, flight, and landing except when entering and exiting
  48. Equivalent thrust for CF^-80C2B1F
  49. EGT limits
    Starting ___ and ____ for___
    T/O ___ for___
    Max Cont ___
    • starting 870 for 40 sec , 740 cont
    • t/o  960 for 5 min
    • 925 cont
  50. eng oil pressure for GE

    Min ___
    Max Cont __
    Max tran___ for ___
    • 10psi
    • 160psi
    • 175 for 15min
  51. Engine RPM Limits for GE
    N1 low pressure compressor rotor
    N2 High press....
    • N1 - 117.5%
    • N2 - 112.5%
  52. Ignition must be ON encountering:
    Moderate to heavy rain, hail or sleet, mod to severe turb, volcanic ash, icing conditions, standing water or slush on runway

    Note: continuous ignition is automatically provided when NAI is ON
  53. # intentional selection of ___ in flight is prohibited
    reverse thrust 
  54. # backing the airplane with the use of  ____
    is prohibited
    reverse thrust
  55. #  avoid rapid and large alternating ____, especially with lager changes in ___, ___, or ___ and they may result in structural failure at any speed including below Va
    control inputs; pitch, roll, yaw
  56. # Do not extend the flaps above ____.
  57. Do not use the Flaps 30 below _____ landing wt.
    200,000kgs (450,000lbs)
  58. Load acceleration limits
    Flaps Up?
    Flaps Down?
    • +2.5 to -1.0g
    • +2.0 to 0.0g
  59. Use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps extended past ___ is not recommended.
  60. What is the primary means of alerting crew of a non-normal or improper config from engine start to eng shutdown?
    EICAS Alert messages (warning, caution, advisory)
  61. Do standby altimeters meet accuracy requirements for RVSM?
  62. On the ground altitude display diff for RVSM operations are:
    SL to 5000  max dif btw/ C and F?; C/F & pos elevation?
    at 10000'?  ____;_____
    • 35',75'
    • 40',75'
  63. Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid(s) inside the FAF by displaying the following:
    • LOC---Loc and/or glideslope pointer on PFD
    • xxx-dme----valid DME data
    • VOR ---ND map may be used (VOR/ADF switched must be in VOR)
    • NDB ---NB map may be used (VOR/ADF switches must be in ADF)
  64. The use of LNAV or VNAF with ___ selected is prohibited
    QFE, QFE alt reference for the PFDs must be selected on the CDU Approach Reference page whenever QFE is used instead of QNH
  65. VNAV path angle limits using VNAV to a DA(H)
    <2.75 or >3.77 degrees
  66. # If leveling off within ____ ft after changing altimeter setting from QNE to QNH, or QNH to QNE do NOT us VNAV to execute the level-off if QNH is less than 29.70 IN/1006 hPA.  After level off VNAV may be re-engaged
  67. Do not reset a tripped ____ CB.  Do not cycle ____ and ___ pump switches from On to Off with and continuos low pressure indication present
    fuel pump; CWT and HST (Horizontal Stabilizer Tank)
  68. CWT fuel quantity system must be operative to dispatch with CWT trip fuel. if the FUEL LOW CTR L or R message is displayed, both _____.
    If the FUEL PRESS CTR L or R message is displayed, the corresponding ____.
    • CWT override/jettison pumps must be selected off
    • NOTE: In a low fuel situation, both CWT override/jettison pumps may be selected ON and all CWT fuel may be used.  The CWT may be emptied normally during and emergency
  69. Horizontal Stabilizer tank (HST)
    The following additional limitations must be followed if the HST is fueled and used. 1,2,3,4,5 and a note
    • 1. The HST fuel quant must be operative to dispatch w/ HsT mission fuel
    • 2. If the FUEL PMP STB L or R message is displayed while on the ground both HST pumps must be selected off
    • 3. If the FUEL LO STAB L or R message is displayed in flight the corresponding HST pump --off
    • 4. If the FUEL PRES STAB L or R message is displayed the corresponding HST pump must be selected OFF
    • 5. The remaining fuel in the HST must be considered unusable and the effect of that unusable fuel on CG must be considered
    • Note: in low fuel sit both HST transfer pumps may be selected ON and all HST fuel may be used
  70. Do not extend or retract the flaps betw positions ___ during fuel jettison
    1 and 5 
  71. Where is the fuel density chart and list of approved fuels w/ freeze points?
    FCOM L.10.16 and 10.17
  72. Nacelle anti-ice and pack Hi Flow must be on with ___ for a descent or speed reduction and below ___ wing an anti-ice must be on.
    engine thrust reduced for a descent
  73. Do not use anti-ice if SAT or TAT exceeds ___
  74. Window heat must be ON for all 
    normal flight conditions.  Info on inoperative heaters is in FCOM L.10.18
  75. Max flap Speeds
    1, 5, 10, 20, 25, 30?
    • 1 - 280
    • 5 - 260
    • 10 - 240
    • 20 - 230
    • 25 - 205
    • 30 - 180
  76. gear speeds
    • retract or extend 270kias/0.82
    • extended 320kias/0.82
  77. What indicates VMO/MMO, VLE or flap placard speed on the PFD?
    the lower edge of the red and black colored region of the speed tape
  78. Weights less then ____must not be used to determine Vref.
  79. No more than __ (other than flight crew members, total number of occupants not to exceed __) may occupy the upper deck cabin during taxi, takeoff, flight and landing.
    6 persons; 8 total
  80. Do not operate the weather radar in a ___ or w/in ___ or a ___.
    hanger, w/in 50' of personal or fuel spill
  81. Can the APU be started in flight?  What is the max operating altitude of the apu?  
    No, 20,000ft
  82. where are the apu start limitations? What is the time between 1st and 2nd start for a TR start and a Battery start?
    FCOM II  7.30.2; 1MIN, 1MIN
  83. For the apu shutdown how long do you have to wait until turning the main bat off?
    2min for the apu to cycle down, to ensure apu fire protection is not lost
Card Set
B-400 M, #, Lim