1. 1. Animals can either be obtained by breeding them in-house or buying them from outside sources. What are advantages and disadvantages of each?
    1. The advantage of animals bred in-house is that they have a known background in terms of husbandry and health status. The disadvantage is that it is often very expensive to breed animals in-house. The advantage of buying animals from outside sources is that they often cost less than were they to be bred in-house. The disadvantage is that the husbandry and health status of the animals may not be known.
  2. 2. Which regulatory body most specifically regulates the transportation of animals?
    2 .USDA most thoroughly regulates animal transportation
  3. 3. Describe how to process a box of mice from the time you receive it until the animals are put into their cages?
    3. First, inspect the outside of the box for damage. Then, verify that the animals in the box match what was ordered. Then, spray the outside of the box with a disinfectant to kill any pathogens. After the appropriate contact time, move the box to the quarantine area and put the animals in their cages
  4. 4. What is the purpose of quarantining animals? What is the purpose of conditioning animals? What is the difference between quarantining and conditioning?
    4. Animals are quarantined in order to determine their health status so as to reduce the risk of bringing pathogens into an established animal colony. Conditioning is when animals are simply acclimated to their new surroundings, allowed to recover from the stress of transportation and perhaps vaccinated
  5. 5. Which animals often have the most stringent quarantine requirements?
    5. Primates often have the most stringent quarantine requirements
  6. 6. What is the purpose of using sentinel animals? How can you maximize the likelihood that the sentinels will pick up anything that the main colony of animals might have?
    6. Sentinel are animals that are maintained in the same room or rack as the experimental animals but are not subject to any experimental manipulations; they are there to detect any diseases that may be moving through the colony of animals; to be sure they get any diseases that may exist, dirty bedding from the experimental animals is put in their cage at cage changing and the sentinels are kept on the bottom shelf of the rack so they are exposed to anything the comes out of the upper cages
  7. 7. If an animal is said to be "conventional" in terms of disease status, what does that mean?
    7. Conventional animals have an unknown health status; they are assumed to be carrying species-specific diseases but beyond that, their disease status is unclear
  8. 8. What does SPF mean?
    8. SPF means specific pathogen free
  9. 9. What is an axenic animal? Is axenic the same as germ-free?
    9. An axenic animal is completely free of all microorganisms, both pathogenic and beneficial; they are also called germ free
  10. 10. What is a gnotobiotic animal?
    10. A gnotobiotic animal is one in which their precise health status is known meaning every microorganism in them or on them is known. They begin as axenic animals and then are inoculated with specific known organisms
  11. 11. What is gnotobiology?
    11. Gnotobiology is the study of animals with defined (known) disease status
  12. 12. Should the room containing the cleanest animals in a facility be maintained under positive or negative pressure relative to the corridor?
    12. The room containing the cleanest animals should be under positive pressure to keep any potential pathogens out.
  13. 13. What is meant by the phrase caesarian derivation?
    13. Caesarian derivation means surgically removing fetuses from a female and cross-fostering them to them to a clean female in order to minimize the chance that any pathogens the original mother had will be transmitted to the offspring
  14. 14. What is the difference between a disease that is spread vertically and one that is spread horizontally?
    14. Diseases spread vertically are spread from one generation to another (i.e. mother to offspring) while those spread horizontally are spread within a generation of animals
  15. 15. What is a fomite? What are some examples of fomites?
    15. A fomite is an inanimate object that can carry disease from one location to another. Examples include a broom, a cage, a lab coat, a dust pan, etc.
  16. 16. What is a vector? What are some examples of vectors?
    16. A vector is a living organism that can transmit disease. Examples include mosquitoes, rats, ticks, etc.
  17. 17. If a disease is zoonotic, what does that mean?
    17. A zoonotic disease is one that can be transmitted from animals to humans or from humans to animals
  18. 18. What does it mean if a disease is said to be enzootic in a colony of mice?
    18. If a disease is enzootic, it means it exists in the population of animals but under normal conditions, most animals will not show signs of illness
  19. 19. What is an epizootic?
    19. An epizootic is when a disease spread rapidly throughout a population of animals with many of them getting sick
  20. 20. What is the name of the common respiratory pathogen of dogs and rabbits that may cause severe clinical disease in guinea pigs?
    20. Bordetella bronchiseptica is asymptomatic in rabbits but causes severe illness in guinea pigs
  21. 21. Is it true that infectious diseases are caused by some sort of microorganism while noninfectious diseases are not?
    21. Yes
  22. 22. What are some examples of noninfectious causes of disease?
    22. Temperature extremes, low humidity, exposure to toxins, unpalatable food, excessive light, excessive noise, etc.
  23. 23. What does neoplasia mean?
    23. Neo means new and plasia means growth so a neoplasia is a new growth, often used in reference to a tumor
  24. 24. What does dystocia mean?
    24. Dystocia means difficult or abnormal birth
  25. 25. What does BSL stand for?
    25. Biological Safety Level
  26. 26. What does MHV stand for?
    26. MHV stands for Mouse Hepatitis Virus
  27. 27. What is the name of the pathogenic organism of the upper respiratory tract of mice and rats that can be activated by high ammonia concentrations?
    27. Mycoplasma pulmonis can be activated by high concentrations of ammonia
  28. 28. What do you call a healthy animal that is placed in a room with experimental animals for the purposes of determining the health status of those animals but not manipulated in any other way?
    28. Sentinal animal
  29. 29. If a disease is said to be congenital, does that simply mean it was present at birth?
    29. Yes, congenital means present at birth
  30. 30. What are some examples of the types of organisms that can cause infectious diseases?
    30. Bacteria, protozoa, helminthes, arthropods (insects)
  31. 31. What is the difference between the diagnosis of a disease and the prognosis?
    31. The diagnosis of a disease is the determination of the cause; the prognosis is the expected outcome
  32. 32. If a disease comes on slowly and lasts a long time, would you call that an acute disease or a chronic disease? What is the difference between the two?
    32. A chronic disease comes on slowly and lasts for a long time; an acute disease comes on very suddenly
  33. 33. What is the difference between a disease that is clinical and one that is subclinical? What does the term "disease" mean?
    33. If a disease is clinical, that means it is observable, a person can see evidence of it in the animal; if a disease is subclinical, that means it is not observable, no evidence of the disease can be seen
  34. 34. What are the major clinical signs of inflammation?
    34. Heat, redness, swelling, pain, loss of function
  35. 35. What does it mean if an animal is moribund? What is the difference between the morbidity and the mortality associated with a certain disease?
    35. A moribund animal is one that is near death; the morbidity of a disease is the rate that animals get sick and the mortality of a disease is the rate that animals die from it
  36. 36. What is autolysis? What is the best way to minimize this in order to preserve tissues for a diagnostic necropsy?
    36. Autolysis is the breakdown of tissues; the best way to preserve tissue for necropsy is to refrigerate it
  37. 37. What is the definition of each word below::
    • A. alopecia
    • B. dyspnea
    • C. listlessness
    • D. prolapse
    • E. pruritus
    • F. stunting
    • G. malignant
    • H. benign
    • I. etiology
    • J. peracute
    • K. ischemia
    • L. necropsy
    • M. dehydration
    • 37.
    • A. alopecia - hair loss
    • B. dyspnea - difficulty breathing
    • C. listlessness - lethargic, lacking energy
    • D. prolapse - an internal organ slipping out of place
    • E. pruritis - frequent itching or scratching
    • F. stunting - not growing at the normal rate
    • G. malignant - usually deeply invasive and often life threatening
    • H. benign - usually superficial and not life threatening
    • I. etiology - the study of disease
    • J. peracute - extremely sudden onset
    • K. ischemia - reduction in flow (often related to a blood vessel)
    • L. necropsy-dissecting a dead animal to determine cause of death
    • M. dehydration - abnormally low amount of water in body with weight loss
  38. 38. What is the difference between a disease that is systemic and one that is local?
    38. A systemic disease is spread throughout the body while a local one is limited to a specific location in the body
  39. 39. What does anorexia mean?
    39. Anorexia means not eating, off feed
  40. 40. What does it mean if an animal is dehydrated?
    40. A dehydrated animal has abnormally low body water and is often accompanied by weight loss.
  41. 41. What are some examples of a body's initial defenses against disease? How about a couple of examples of the secondary defenses?
    41. The initial body defenses include skin, mucous lining, cilia, the acidic environment of the stomach, enzymes secreted from the salivary glands, liver and pancreas and phagocytes; examples of secondary body defenses include antibodies and lymphcytes
  42. 42. Why is sanitation such an important component of disease management within an animal facility?
    42. Because without regularly killing microorganisms in a facility, they can reach pathogenic levels and increase the likelihood of cross-contamination
  43. 43. Familiarize yourself with the diseases we discussed that are common to all laboratory animals.
    43. See Animal Health and Disease outline
  44. 44. If an animal is not eating, what would be an example of something in the animal's environment you would check first?
    44. If an animal is not eating, the first thing to check is the animal's water supply; often when animals have no access to water, they will stop eating
  45. 45. If an animal is showing signs of excessive barbering, what does that mean?
    45. That they are being aggressed by a dominant animal, resulting in lesions and patches of missing fur
  46. 46. What is the specific name given to a room or area that is used to house animals that may be sick or suspected of carrying infectious disease?
    46. Isolation
  47. 47. What disease can low humidity in a rat room cause?
    47. Ring tail
  48. 48. What is the name of a common parasite in rodent colonies?
    48. Pin worms can be common to rodent colonies; they live in the digestive tract of animals, spending most of their time in the cecum and large intestine
  49. 49. What is malocclusion?
    49. Mal means abnormal and occlude means to close so malocclusion is the condition in which the upper and lower jaws of an animal are misaligned so they do not close normally; this can result in overgrowth of the teeth if the teeth are open rooted and therefore grow continuously
  50. 50. What is anatomical pathology?
    50. The study of the structure of diseased tissue
  51. 51. When doing a necropsy, what is the solution that tissues are often placed in for preservation?
    51. 10% formalin
  52. 52. What term is used to describe the splitting open of a surgical incision?
    52. Dehiscence
  53. 53. What is a hemostat used for? How about a retractor?
    53. A hemostat is used to clamp blood vessels to stop the flow of blood; retractors are used to clamp and pull back (retract) tissue
  54. 54. Clinical pathology is the study of disease. It involves a variety of tests to determine what is causing disease. Below is a list of some of those tests. For each, briefly describe what the test is. Two answers are provided:
    • A. microbiology
    • B. hematology
    • C. blood chemistry
    • D. necropsy
    • E. immunoserology
    • F. toxicology
    • G. teratology
    • H. cystocentesis
    • I. parasitology - evaluation for the presence of parasites in (endoparasites) or on (ectoparasites) the animal
    • J. urinalysis - evaluation of physical and chemical characteristics of urine
    • 54. A. microbiology - isolation and identification of microorganisms associated with disease
    • B. hematology - the study of blood
    • C. blood chemistry - determination of chemical levels in blood
    • D. necropsy - the dissecting of a dead animal to determine the cause of death
    • E. immunoserology - the measurement of antibody levels in serum
    • F. toxicology - the study of substance that are toxic
    • G. teratology - the study of substances that cause birth defects
    • H. cystocentesis - the removal of urine from the bladder by inserting a needle directly through the skin and into the bladder
  55. 55. What is an anthelmintic?
    55. An anthelmintic is a drug that kills a wide variety of endoparasitic worms (helminths)
  56. 56. Is it true that chronic toxicity tests assess not only the toxicity of a compound but also whether it is a carcinogen?
    56. Yes
  57. 57. What are some examples of acute toxicity tests?
    57. Acute toxicity tests include the LD50 test and the Draize test
  58. 58. What does the acronym PCR stand for?
    58. PCR stands for polymerase chain reaction and is a procedure that enables a person to detect very small numbers of microorganisms by amplifying the DNA they contain
  59. 59. What are adjuvants used for? What is CFA?
    59. Adjuvants are used to slow down the rate that something injected into an animal is broken down my the animal; CFA stands for Complete Freund's Adjuvant
  60. 60. If an animal dies, what is the best way to preserve the body if you know that animal will need to be necropsied tomorrow?
    60. If the animal will be necropsied within 24 hours, the body should be put in a refrigerator
  61. 61. What species are commonly used for behavioral research?
    61. Rats, pigeons and cats (and to a lesser extent rhesus monkeys and squirrel monkeys) are the most common animals used in behavioral research
  62. 62. Is it true that a major surgical procedure is one that exposes a major body cavity or produces a permanent impairment whereas a minor surgical procedure does not?
    62. Yes
  63. 63. When performing major survival surgery on a non-rodent mammal such as a cat or rabbit, four distinct rooms are required in the area in which the procedure is to be done. What are those areas? Are the same distinct areas required for rodents or birds or fish?
    63. The four distinct areas required to do survival surgery on non-rodent mammals are animal prep room, surgeon prep room, surgery room and animal recovery room; rodents or birds or fish do not require these four rooms, they just require a sanitizable surface in an area that while the surgery is occurring, nothing else is happening
  64. 64. What does aseptic technique consist of?
    64. Aseptic technique consists of using sterile instruments and sterile gloves, prepping the animal with an antiseptic and draping the animal with a sterile drape
  65. 65. Why are animals usually fasted prior to being anesthetized for surgery?
    65. Animals are fasted prior to anesthesia because most anesthetics make an animal nauseous; by not having food in their stomach, an animal will have less to regurgitate and therefore be less likely to choke
  66. 66. When scrubbing an animal in preparation for surgery, the antiseptic should be applied in a spiral motion, starting in the area where the incision will be made and moving toward the edge of the shaved area. Why?
    66. To create a gradient of cleanliness in which the area immediately around the incision site is cleanest with the degree of cleanliness decreasing as you get further from that area
  67. 67. Why is it important to remove organic matter from surgical instruments immediately after surgery?
    67. So they don't dry on the instruments and then become much more difficult to remove
  68. 68. For how long a period is a surgical pack wrapped in paper or cloth considered sterile? How about a pack wrapped in autoclavable plastic?
    68. A pack wrapped in paper or cloth is considered sterile for 6 months; a pack wrapped in autoclavable plastic is considered sterile for one year.
  69. 69. Gowning, scrubbing, and gloving are integral parts of a surgeon's effort to prepare for conducting surgery. What is the proper order in which those three activities should be performed?
    69. Scrubbing, gowning, gloving
  70. 70. Topical, intradermal, and regional are examples of how what type of anesthetic can be administered?
    70. Local anesthetics
  71. 71. What is the difference in effect between a general anesthetic and a local anesthetic? What are some examples of commonly used local anesthetics?
    71. A general anesthetic renders an animal unconscious while a local anesthetic only desensitizes a specific part or area of the body; some commonly used local anesthetics include lidocaine, novocaine, bupivicaine
  72. 72. What is pinching the toe of an animal used to assess?
    72. Pinching the toe of an animal is used to assess if the animal is anesthetized; if they are, they should not withdraw their foot when it is pinched
  73. 73. What are sodium pentobarbital, ketamine, and chloral hydrate examples of?
    73. Injectable anesthetics
  74. 74. What are halothane, isoflurane, and methoxyflurane examples of? How are these agents administered to an animal?
    74. Volatile anesthetics; they are administered by allowing vapors from these chemicals to be added to the breathing circuit of an animal
  75. 75. What are the advantages of using a volatile anesthetic over an injectable one? How about an injectable over a volatile one?
    75. Volatile anesthetics are breathed in by the animal; therefore, if an animal is too deeply anesthetized, you can have them breath in a little less; injectable anesthetics are administered usually as a single dose all at once, limiting your ability to modify the depth of anesthesia once you have administered the drug; the advantage of injectable anesthetics is that all that is needed to administer them is a needle and syringe rather than an anesthetic machine
  76. 76. Is it true that the age, health status, or species of an animal can affect its response to an anesthetic?
    76. Yes
  77. 77. What are some examples of parameters that can be monitored to assess the anesthetic depth of an animal?
    77. Heart rate, respiratory rate, toe pinch response, blood gases (O2 and CO2), mucous membrane color, etc.
  78. 78. What does an analgesic do? What are three examples of analgesics?
    78. Analgesics relieve pain; examples of analgesics include aspirin, morphine, fentanyl and oxymorphone
  79. 79. What color is an oxygen tank? How about a nitrous oxide tank?
    79. An oxygen tank is green and a nitrous oxide tank is blue
  80. 80. What does an antipyretic do?
    80. An antipyretic is a drug that reduces a fever such as acetaminophen
  81. 81. We discussed six parenteral routes of administration, IV, IM, IP, SC, ID, and IC. What do each of these stand for?
    81. IV = intravenous, IM = intramuscular, IP = intraperitoneal, SC = subcutaneous, ID = intradermal, IC = intracardiac
  82. 82. What is the difference between administering a drug parenterally and administering one enterally? What are three examples of enteral routes of administration?
    82. A drug administered parenterally is administered into the animal through the skin (i.e. by injection) while an drug administered enterally is administered directly into the digestive system (i.e. by mouth, by gavage (stomach tube), by suppository)
  83. 83. What are some examples of vessels that are commonly used to take blood samples?
    83. Common blood sampling sites include the jugular vein, cephalic vein, saphenous vein, femoral vein, tail vein, etc.
  84. 84. What color would the stopper in a blood collection tube containing EDTA be? How about if the tube contained heparin? How about if the tube did not contain any anticoagulant? What about if the blood in the tube was to be used for routine hematology?
    84. A tube with a purple stopper contains EDTA; a tube containing heparin would have a green stopper; a tube without any anticoagulant would have a red stopper; for routine hematology, the blood should be put in a tube with a purple stopper (EDTA)
  85. 85. What is the difference between plasma and serum? Approximately what percent of an animal's blood volume is plasma?
    85. Plasma is the fluid portion of blood that has not clotted and therefore contains clotting factors; serum is the fluid portion of blood that has clotted and therefore the clotting factors are in the clot and not in this fluid; approximately 6-7% of an animal's body weight is blood
  86. 86. What are examples of animals who have nucleated red blood cells?
    86. Birds, reptiles and amphibians have nucleated red blood cells
  87. 87. What is an example of a test done to evaluate liver function?
    87. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are evaluated
  88. 88. What are the two names for the measurement of the percentage of cells versus liquid in a blood sample?
    88. Packed Cell Volume (PCV) or hematocrit
  89. 89. The neutrophils of which two species appear very similar to eosinophils and have been referred to as heterophils?
    89. Guinea pigs and rabbits
  90. 90. Of the different parenteral routes of administration, which result in the quickest rate of absorption? How about the slowest? By which route can the largest volume be administered?
    90. Intravenous (IV) results in the quickest absorption; the slowest would be either subcutaneous (SC) or intradermal (ID). The largest volume can be administered by the SC route.
  91. 91. The insertion of a small plastic tube into a body cavity, duct or vessel is called what?
    91. Catheter
  92. 92. Where is the quadriceps muscle group located?
    92. In the upper thigh
  93. 93. Is it true that retro-orbital bleeding and cardiac puncture should be performed in animals that are anesthetized?
    93. Absolutely yes
  94. 94. When something is administered by a parenteral route, what determines how quickly it will take effect?
    94. How quickly it gets into the blood stream
  95. 95. When giving an IP injection, if you notice a small amount of yellowish fluid when aspirating prior to injection, where is the tip of the needle most likely located? What should you do if this happens?
    95. If you aspirate yellowish fluid when injecting something IP, the tip of the needle is probably in the bladder; if this happens, you should withdraw the needle from the animal, discard it and start over
  96. 96. If you are asked to administer a drug q.i.d., how often would you do it? How about if you are asked to give it p.r.n.?
    96. q.i.d. = four time a day; p.r.n. = as circumstances require
  97. 97. Where in a rat you would administer a drug that you wanted to inject intravenously?
    97. Usually into a tail vein
  98. 98. Approximately what percent of an animal's blood is a watery fluid?
    98. Blood is approximately 55% watery fluid and 45% blood cells
  99. 99. Why is it so important that animals recovering from surgery be kept warm and turned from side to side?
    99. Animals should be kept warm because anesthetics often lower their body temperature; they should be turned from side to side as they are recovering so blood doesn't pool inside their body
  100. 100. What is the name of the tube that is placed in the airway of an animal for delivery of a gas anesthetic?
    100. An endotracheal tube
  101. 101. What are three uses of an endotracheal tube?
    101. An endotracheal tube can be used to deliver a gas anesthetic, to prevent an animal from inhaling foreign matter such as vomit and to aid in the resuscitation of an animal that is having trouble breathing
  102. 102. What are some possible signs of pain or distress in animals?
    102. Panting, restlessness, guarding a part of the body, unusual vocalization, self-mutilation, tooth grinding, lethargy, ataxia, etc.
  103. 103. What are some examples of surgical emergency situations?
    103. Anesthetic emergencies, sudden illness, dystocia, injury from fighting, flooded cages, trapped animals, etc.
  104. 104. What is silver nitrate used for?
    104. Silver nitrate is used to stop bleeding
  105. 105. If you are attempting to euthanize an animal, what criteria would you use to determine that it is dead?
    105. To visualize that the heart and breathing have stopped
  106. 106. Why is it difficult to euthanize neonatal rats and mice with carbon dioxide?
    106. Because they can hold their breaths for 10-15 minutes
  107. 107. What is the difference in the care required by immunocompromised animals versus conventional animals?
    107. Immunocompromised animals require an extremely clean environment free of pathogens
  108. 108. What are three examples of ways in which animals are made immunocompromised?
    108. Animals can be made immunocompromised by surgically removing the thymus gland, by giving them a drug such as FUDR which suppresses antibody synthesis or by irradiating them which disrupts antibody formation
  109. 109. What animals are anatomically unable to vomit?
    109. Mice and horses are anatomically unable to vomit
  110. 110. What compound is most commonly used to euthanize rodents?
    110. Carbon dioxide is the chemical most commonly used to euthanize rodents
  111. 111. Is it polyclonal or monoclonal antibody production that rabbits are often used for?
    111. Rabbit are often used for polyclonal antibody production
  112. 112. You are asked to anesthetize a dog with an anesthetic that has a recommended dose of 40 mg/kg of body weight administered intramuscularly. The dog weighs 20 kilograms and the concentration of the anesthetic is 400 mg/ml. What volume of anesthetic should be administered?
    112. 2 mls
  113. 113. A 50% solution is how many grams of solute per ml of solution?
    113. 0.5 grams
  114. 114. To reconstitute a 1 gram vial of a dried chemical to yield a 5% solution, how much saline would you add?
    114. 20 mls
  115. 115. How is tuberculin administered?
    115. Intradermally (ID)
  116. 116. For the following animals, state which vessel is the most commonly used to take blood:
    • A. dogs
    • B. monkeys
    • C. cats
    • D. rabbits
    • 116.
    • A. dogs - cephalic vein
    • B. monkeys - femoral vein
    • C. cats - cephalic vein
    • D. rabbits - marginal ear vein
  117. 117. Is it accurate to say that degenerative disease generally worsen with age?
    117. Yes
  118. 118. Doxycycline is an antibiotic that can be used to treat enteric pathogens. It usually comes in two concentrations, 25mg/5mls and 50 mg/5mls. What is another way of writing those concentrations? For the first concentration, what is the ratio of the drug to solution
    118. 25mg/5mls is the same as 5mg/ml and 50mg/5mls is the same as 10mg/ml. For the 25mg/5mls concentration, the ratio of the drug to solution is 5:1
  119. 119. What is gram staining?
    119. Gram staining is a way of staining bacterial cells so you can differentiate bacterial species into two large groups (Gram-positive and Gram-negative) based on the chemical and physical properties of their cell walls. This will help you then know what kind of antibiotic to use to treat them.
  120. 120. What is the morbidity rate a measurement of? What is the mortality rate a measurement of?
    120. Morbidity rate is the rate at which a disease causes illness in animals. Mortality rate is the rate at which a disease causes death in animals.
  121. 121. If an animal was said to be showing signs of pruritis, what would you expect to see?
    121. Pruritis means frequent itching or scratching
  122. 122. Why is it important to monitor an animal's body temperature while they are anesthetized?
    122. The body temperature of animals goes down while they are anesthetized. It is therefore important to monitor their body temperature and provide supplemental heat as needed.
  123. 123. If 200 animals are born over a two month period and 40 of those animals die over that time as a result of an infectious disease, what is the rate of mortality associated with that disease in that population?
    123. Since 40 out of 200 animals died, the mortality rate would be 20%.
  124. 124. If you wanted to make 4 liters of a 10% bleach solution, how many milliliters of bleach and how any milliliter of water would you need
    124. A 10% bleach solution is one part bleach and nine parts water. So, a 4 liter (which is the same as 4000 mls) would be 400 mls of bleach and 3600 mls of water. That is the same as saying it would be 1/10th bleach and 9/10th water.
  125. 125. What animal gets Q-fever? Is that a zoonotic disease?
    125. Sheep get Q-fever and yes, it is zoonotic.
  126. 126. If you were responsible for taking care of the following animals all on the same day, which would you take care of first? Which would you take care of last?
    • A. SPF animals
    • B. conventional animals
    • C. quarantined animals
    • 126. You should take care of the SPF animals first and the quarantined animals last.
  127. 127. If you receive a shipment of mice and find that their actual weight is less than that listed on the packing slip, what is the likely cause?
    127. Dehydration
  128. 128. If you need to anesthetize a dog with an injectable anesthetic, what to do to that dog to accurately determine how much anesthetic he should be given?
    128. Weigh the dog because drug doses are based on the weight of an animals (i.e. mg of drug/ kg of animals)
  129. 129. For what disease do people who work with primates need to be tested for regularly?
    129. Tuberculosis (TB)
  130. 130. What are signs that an animal is dehydrated?
    130. Dehydrated animals will usually stop eating, resulting in a decrease in feces production. Their faces will appear gaunt, with their eyes in particular appearing very sunken.
  131. 131. One of the regulations that USDA has is that any animal that is shipped from one facility to another has to have a health certificate that accompanies the shipping container with the animal. What does that health certificate say and who signs it?
    131. The health certificate states that the animal has been evaluated by a veterinarian and found to be healthy. The certificate must be signed by a veterinarian.
  132. 132. If swine eat 4% of their body weight everyday, how much food would a 100 kg boar eat in a day?
    132. 4% of 100kg is 4 kg
  133. 133. If you receive an animal that is wet, what condition might that animal suffer from?
    133. Hypothermia (low body temperature)
  134. 134. What vector will give dogs heart worm?
    134. Mosquito
  135. 135. What is a common vector in cats?
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