-
What is the minimum age one must be to donate blood?
17
-
What is the temp and bood pressure one must have to donate blood
-
What must the hct and hgb of one who wants to donate blood be?
- > or = to 38g% hct
- >or = to12.5g% hgb
-
WHAT SHOULD THE PULSE AND WEIGHT BE OF ONE WHO WANTS TO DONATE BLOOD?
-
Name the common blood anticoagulants & the the expirations for each?
- CPD-(citrate, phosphate, dextroxse) 21day expiration
- CPDA-1 (adenine added) 35 day expiration
-
what is antologous donations?
donations for self
-
What is the hct and hgb of the antologous donor?
-
Define absorption(one of the methods for hemaphersis/apheresis collectiion)?
the removal of only a selected constituent of plasma with reinfusion of plasma after constituent removed
-
why is whole blood rarely used for transfusion?
Due to the increased use and availabilty of components
-
When is whole blood given?
in cases of shock needing the rbc's for oxygen and the plasma for volume
-
How is plasma removed from rbc's?
by successive saline washes
-
what do washed red cells prevents?
allergic response to plasma proteins and anaphylactic shock in IgA deficient pts. with anti-IgA
-
Where is Iga found?
in normal plasma
-
What is the preferrred way for wbc's prepared?
by filtration and washing will remove wbcs too
-
How must frozen cells be thawed?
37C
-
When do frozen cells expire?
10 yrs.
-
What is the storage of frozen cells?
at -65C or colder; 1-6C for 24hrs. after deglycerolizing
-
What is the expiration of fresh frozen plasma?
- 1 yr. from date of collection when stored at < or equal to -18C or colder or 7yrs. stored at<or equal to
- -65C
-
When do thawed FFP expire?
in 24 hrs. if kept at 1-6C
-
What must be FFP be compatible with?
ABO compatible with recipient cells
-
What forms when FFP frozen within 8hrs. of whole blood collection is thawed at 1-6C ?
a cold insoluble portion of plasma forms called CRYO(cryoprecipitate)
-
When should CRYO be transfused?
within 6hrs of thawing; 4hrs after pooling
-
What is cryoprecipitate used for?
fibrinogen and factor XIII deficiencies severe von Willebrand disease topical fibrin sealant
-
What is CRYO seldom used for?
hemophilia because of factor VIII concentrates which have little or no risk of viral infection transmission
-
From what are platelets prepared and tell the temp for storage?
whole blood and stored at 20-24C prior to processing
-
Explain the prepartion procedure of platelets
first spin lightly to remove rbc then spin heavy to spin down platelets and wbcs the supernatant plasma expressed in another bag and may be frozen the remaining plasma, platelets, amd wbcs=platelet concentrate
-
What should one unit of platelet raise the platelet count to?
5,000-10,000 in an average size adult
-
What should you not transfuse platelets through?
mircroaggregate filter
-
What should platelets be checked for before issuing?
bacteria
-
What is the coagulation factor in intrinsic pathway that APTT is not a screening test for
factor XIII
-
Coagulation factor decreased in Hemophilla A?
Factor VIII
-
Coagulation factor decreased in Hemphillia B?
Factor IX
-
Temp of FFP for performance for coag.
37C (35-38C)
-
Factors that may lose activity and least stable in vitro at room temp after 4-8hrs.
Factor V & VIII
-
the length of time APTT specimen can be held at room temp
no more than 4 hrs.
-
What indicates loss of precision with increase in SD and coefficient of variation?
shift, trends, increased scatter on quality control plot
-
If new lot of controls for PT has a mean of 12.2; SD of 0.4 sec what is the control ranges?
11.4 to 13.0 sec
-
what is itthe cause of Clumping of wbcs and platelets on wright stain peripheral blood smear
smear made from 1hr. old heparinized blood
-
What Adjustment is made when specimen has very low hematocrit
increase angle of spreader slide higher than normal 30-45 angle results in thcker slide
-
A cause of black purplish precipitate over slide
insufficient rinsing of stain and buffer mixture
-
formula for MCV (mean corpusucular vol.)
-
Formula for MCHC (mean cell hemoglobin concentration)
-
Miller Disc calculation for retic # count
- total retics in square A x100
- total retics in square B x 9
-
RPI (retic production index) calculation
- Retic % x pt. hct/normal hct(0.45)maturation time in peripheral blood(2)
-
most likely Conditions seen when schizocytes seen blood smear
severe burns megaloblastic anemia mircoangiopathic hemolytic anemia
-
RBC morphology on peripheral blood smear of alcoholic with cirrhosis
- Pseudomacrocytosis acanthocytes codocytes
- (seen in alcoholic cirrhosis)
-
What cell has single nucleolus marked cytoplasmic granularity cytoplasmic blembs and may be seen in myeloproliferative disorders(CML, AMM, etc.)?
micromegakaryocytes
-
What cells have the background of peripheral blood smear stained Rommawsky that appear very blue eccentric nucleus and perinuclear
plasma cells
-
Test used for differentation of HBF and HbA doesn't migrate in S region
Alkali denaturation
-
Test in useful procedure for fractionation of various hemoglobins?
acid electrophoresis
-
Test for sickling hgb nd don't differentiate between those and hgb S
Hgb solubility
-
Cells seen in falsely elevated G6PD assay using flourescent spot test seen in these types of pts.
presence of reticulocytes
-
identifies abnormal hgb such as S & C
hgb electrophoresis
-
Screening test for PNH (paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria)
sucrose hemolysis test
-
test that identifies some rbc enzyme deficiencies
fluorescent spot tests
-
test that identifies pts with a minority population of spherocytes
incubated osmotic fragility test
-
-
where is excess iron stored
tissues and body organs
-
the iron transport protein
transferrin
-
define ferritin
the major iron storage form
-
define hemosiderin
water insoluble iron storage form (long term)
-
the color & what is responsible for color seen in porphyrias
purple pigment is responsible for the wine red colr of porphyrin in urine
-
test tube # for gross examination cell count morphology
#3
-
test tube for microbial examination
#2
-
test tube for chemical and serological examination
#1
-
gross examinatiion findings fo CSF and its diagnosis:
Increased fibriongen
subarachnoid hemmorrhage
subarchnoid hemmorhage more than 12hrs. after bleed
pleocytosis
- gel formation
- grossly bloody specimen
- xanthochromia (yellow color)
- cloudy and turbid
-
microscopic findings with its conditions:
Lymphocytosis
increased segmented neutrophils PMNs
macrophages
extremely elevated wbc count in CSF
normal WBC reference range for CSF
- viral infection
- bacterial infection
- CNS leukemia or lymphoma
- intraventricular rupture of brain abscess
- 0-5 x106L
-
covers abodominal walls and viscera of abdomen
-
-
A fibrous sac around the heart
-
condition associated with pleural effusion
viral pneumonia
-
Male production structures and their constituents:
Testicle
seminal vesicles
prostate
cowper's glands
- sperm
- fructose/prostagladins
- p30glycoprotein
- unknown
-
sperm motility can become decreased if specimen is
stored at room temp and in a plastic container for more than 1hr, examined after 2hrs. of storage
-
normal value ranges of sperm cells is
60-150 x 10L
-
what do arthrocentesis test for
tests for infectious disease
-
name the abnormal crystals
cystine, cholesterol, leucine, tyrosine
-
Tell what color urine will one see if pt has the following substance:
HgB, myoglobin, rbcs, beets, PSP dye, food with dyes
bilirubin or medication and normal color
pyridium
normal
melanin, methemoglobin, methydopa, or homogentic acid
Pseudomonas spp (pigment producing bacteria)
BSP dye
- Red
- yellow brown to amber
- orange
- yellow
- brown
- blue green
- bright or dark blue
-
The major functional unit of the kidneys
nephron
-
Takes place in the kidneys
reabsorption
-
Refigeration of urine may result in the precipitation of what crystal
amorphous
-
Urine should sit for a minimum of __________ in order to come to room temperature
15 minutes
-
The fruity odor in urine is most likely indicative of the presence of
ketones
-
the normal specific gravity of urine
1.002-1.005
-
the largest most frequent seen epithelial cells
squamous
-
the normal sperm count #'s
-
fluid analyzed for fetal lung maturity(FLM)
amnoitic
-
tests which is most valuable assay for the assessment of fetal pulmonary maturity
L/S lecithin sphingomyelin ratio
-
body fluid used to diagnose cystic fibrosis
sweat
-
describes pink orange or yellow coloring of CSF
xanthochromia
-
Diazo reaction used to produce blusish purple color for which element of urine
ketones
-
the principle dipstick reaction for nitrate
gressis's
-
mature fetal lungs reflect a L/S ratio of
>2.0
-
T3 and T4 are produced in the
thyroid
-
Hgb A1C used to monitor the average glucose over a period of
2 months
-
the urobilinogen's principle that uses paradiamethylaminobenzaldehyde in acid buffer which reacts with itself to produce a peach to pink color is called
ehrlich's
-
Crystals that are 3 dimensional forms are
CPPD crystals
-
Increased % of segmented neutrophils PMNs) is characteristic of
basic calcium phosphate crysals
-
Identify the crystal that goes with the following disorders:
Chronic renal disease
chronic rheumatoid effusions
Acute and chronic arthritis
Acute gouty arthirtis
- calcium oxalate
- cholesterol
- lipid liquid Maltose cross
- monosodium urate
-
Disorders that can be diagnosed definitvely by synovial fluid analysis are
gout CPPD deposition disease and septic arthiritis
-
Aspiration sites for synovial fluid
posterior iliac crest
-
if a synovial fluid aspirate is very turbid and septic arthiritis is suspected a ________ should definitely be performed
gram stain and culture
-
normal CSF contains these cells
lymphocytes and ependymal cells
-
cell count on CSF specimen should be performed within _________ of collection
one hour
-
Clotting in CSF may be caused by
increased protein concentration
-
increase total WBC count in CSF specimen can be caused by
bacterial meningitis and intravascular rupture of a brain abscess
-
increase in lymphocytes in CSF specimen can be caused by
mutiple sclerosis, viral meniagoencephalitis, fungal meningitis
-
characteristic of effusion
abnormal accumulation of fluid can be a transduate or exudate
-
transudate description
specific gravity <1.016 PH 7.4-7.5 lactic dehydrogenase <200 IU/L
-
Exudate apperance of disorders:
Empyema
infectious process
anaerobic bacterial infection
chylothorax
malignancy in the absence of trauma
- clearly visible pus
- yellow and turbid
- foul odor
- milky
- bloody
-
the pleural fluid can have white supernatant fluid after centrifugation owing to
presence of chylomicons
-
extremely elevated wbc concentration in pleural fluid is typically associated with
empyema
-
cells seen in pleural fluid
LE cells mononuclear phagocytes mesothelial cells
-
characteristics of malignant cells
smooth chromatin
-
the cellular abnormality encountered in pleural and peritoneal and its disorders is
acute bacterial inflammation
-
condition seen when many lymphocytes, mesothelial cells, histocytes and plasma cells
viral infection
-
in a pleural effusion the % of __________ is extremely high in pneumonia and % of _______ is extremely high in viral peritonitis
segmented neutrophils
-
abnormal appearing peritoneal effusion can be caused by
tuberculous peritonitis
-
conditon that goes with the following peritoneal effusion colors is:
pale yellow
straw colored
bloody
- normal
- congestive heart failure
- pulmonary infarct
-
extemely high wbc concentration in peritoneal fluid can be caused by
bacterial peritonitis
-
the following abnormalities may cause an increase in what cell:
chronic peritoneal dialysis
conjestive heart failure
cirrhois and nephrotic syndrome
turberculous peritonitis
- eosionophils
- lymphocytes
- mesothelial cells
-
match the various types and causes of pericardial effusion:
infectious agents
collagen vasular disease
no plastic disease
- coxsackie group viruses
- rheumatic disease
- mesothelioma
-
a cause of an increase concentration of cells in pericardial fluid
microbial infection and malignancy
-
what is the plasma changes during storage (1-6)
increase potassium and ammonia and decrease pH and sodium
-
tranport temp of blood and components:
red cells
platelets and granulocytes
frozen components
-
Expiration of blood and components when seal is broken
- products stored at 1-6c=24hrs
- products stored at 2-24c=4hrs.
-
blood components and the storage temp and amt. of time
rbcs(packed cells)
wbc reduced cells
frozen red cells
FFP
platelets, single donor
platelets, pheresis
granulocytes
- 1-6 21 days (closed); 24 hrs open
- 1-6
- 10yrs. -65C
- 12 months < or equal to -18C
- 3/5 days
- 4hrs, 20-24C
- 5 days 20-24C
- 24 hrs. 20-24C
-
what is the expiration of pooled components
- platelets 4 hrs (open)
- cryoprecipitate 4 hrs (open)
-
when can unit of blood not be reused or reissued
if >10c (15 or 30 min.)or if seal disturbed
-
in the ABO system what are the subgroups of A
A1 (aggluntinated) and A2(not aggluntiated)
-
define lectin
plant or seed extract diluted to agglutinate specific human blood group antigens
-
when there is lack of H this is genetically________
hh (Bombay phenotype)
-
what problems might one see in ABO grouping
- rouleaux-failure to wash cells
- mixture of cell types ex. A or B transfused with O cells
- subgroups ex. A2 with or without Anti-A1
- unusual genotypes ex. bombay
- disease process-ex. leukemia or bacteria
-
what problems might one see with ABO grouping with serum
- rouleux- due to increased serum proteins ex Waldenstrom's or Muptiple Myeloma
- room temp or cold reacting antibody reacting with their corresponding antigens on reverse cells
- age-elderly (antibody production decreased) or newborn (antibody production hasn't reached optimm level); missing antibodies
- compromised immune system-ex. A/hypohgammaglobulinemia
-
what are the cold reacting antibodies
H, I, M, N, P1, or Lewis
-
describe rouleaux
a stack of coins apperance when observed under microscope occurs when the serum in the test mixture is replaced with saline, and the cells dissociate; it is associated with mutiple myeloma and Waldenstrom's macroglobulinema
-
in the Rh system what are the antigens
D C E c e
-
what is the most immunogenic of all blood group antigens
D
-
what is the D grouping (RH type) based on
presence or absence of D when tested with anti-D
-
Describe weak D
it is D reactive at antiglobulin phase only, weak D considered D positive, testing for weak D required on donors aned OB pts.
-
what is the most common cause of a positve D control
there is a positve DAT
-
for D negative grouping to be valid what must the D control be
negative
-
name the unusual phenotypes
- RH null- no D, C E c or e antigens
- deleted cells (-D-)
-
Are RH antibodies IgG or Igm significant
IgG
-
how may RH antibodies aggulinate
at 37c and AHG
-
which RH antibodies react stronger with enzyme treated cells
Anti C c E e
-
name all the IgM cold antibodies
anti I i M N P1 Lea Leb H
-
name all the IgG antibodies
anti D C c E e M(some) K k Fya Fyb Jka Jkb
-
what is the second most immunogenic antigen
K (kell) antigen
-
Describe Lewis blood group
- plasma antigens that absorb onto rbcs
- not on cord cells
- antibodies don't cause HDN but can be hemolytic
-
Describe I, i blood group
- absent or weak on cord cells
- i converts to I as infant matures due to branching of carbohydrate chains
- infants i pos. I neg and adults I pos i neg
- the antibodies: react with all adult cells (except rare i adults)
- may mask clinically significant alloantibody
-
describe P blood group
- antigen strength deteriorates upon storage
- antibodies: anti P1 can be neutralized to reveal other significant alloantibodieis
- anti P found in PCH (paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria and reacts with all P or P1 positive cells
-
describe MNS
- M&N are codominant alleles with no HDN will not react with enzyme treated cells
- (are destroyed by enzymes)
- anti M:may be IgG and cause HDN may require acidification of serum to identify
- Anti U: is IgG and formed by black individuals who lack S or s and U
-
describe Kell
- K&k are codominant
- 91% are K neg.
-
describe Kidd
- Jka & Jkb condominant
- react stronger with enzyme treated cells
- associated with delayed transfusion reactions
-
describe Duffy
- Fya & Fyb are condominant
- 68% of african americans are Fy(a-b-)
- antigens detroyed by enzymes and
- antigen typing -Fy(a t b-) white- homozygous for Fya (FyaFya) blacks-proabably heterozygous for Fya(FyaFy-)-dosage problem
- antibodies- weak ex. may show dosage and neg. reaction with enzyme treated cells
-
what is a direct exclusion of determining paternity
marker present in child but absent from father and mother
-
what is indirect exclusion
in paternity the child lacks a marker that the alleged father do(must) transmit ex. father has anti K but child and mother doesn't but child and mother has anti k but father doesn't
-
is the father excluded if from the test below
father: KK
mother: kk
child:Kk
no father is not excluded
-
Screening cells contain ____ different cells and panels contain ___________ cells
-
describe panel and screening cells
- commerically prepared group O red cells with specific distribution of blood group antigens
- pt. serum added to the cells and tested at various temps, different enhancement media, with antiglobulin reagent(IAT)
-
what is autocontrol
pt. serum tested against own cells to determine the presence of autoantibody
-
describe low ionic strength saline(LISS) & enzymes
- increases antibody uptake allowing decrease in incubation time
- removes sialic acid that decreases neg. charge and promotes cells aggluntination
- increase reactivity of RH kidd and lewis antibodies
- usually increases warm and cold autoantibodies
- destroys M, N S and dufffy antigens
-
describe IAT
- indirect antiglobulinr testing
- the antibody that attaches to corresponding antigen on red cells at 37c
- the excess serum/antibody removed by saline washes
- antiglobulin is added and bind to antibody on the cells
-
in IAT what may failure to adequately wash cells cause
false neg.-human globulins antibodiesl proteins, not wash away will neutralize the AHG
-
what is a pos. reaction indicative of in the IAT
aggluntination or decrease in size of button due to hemolysis at 37c
-
what should check cells (IgG sensitized cells ) be in IAT
positive indicating AHG was actually added in the final step and not neutralized
-
Name the enhanced and detroyed enzyme treated antibodies
- Enhanced: Kidd, I and some Rh (not D)
- Destroyed: duffy, MN and S
-
most panels with 1+ or 3+ reactions are indicative of
two different antibodies
-
what may be indicative if autocontrol is pos.
a delayed transfusion reaction or if along with all panel cells autoantibody indicated
-
name the enzymes
bromelin ficin papain trypsin
-
name the antigen dosages
MNS Rh(other than D) kidd duffy(weak ex. mahy show dosage)
-
the enhanced enzymes
kidd RH lewis I
-
destroyed enzymes
Duffy MNSs
-
antigens that are absent and present on cord cells
- present i
- absent I Lewis Sda
-
name the RH antibodies and the class
anti D C E c e; IgG
-
Igm are what type of antibodies
warm 37c antibodies
-
IgG are whatg type of antibodies
Cold antibodies
-
name the IgM using polyspecific antibodies
complement binding anitbodies: anti I anti Lea and Leb
-
37c IgG uses what enhancement
LISs/albumin or AHG
-
cold IgM antibodies uses what enhancement
saline
-
what antibodies can be seen directly at 37c (IgG)and which ones must see when using antiglobulin testing
- RH antibodies
- Kell Duffy and Kidd
-
what do EDTA chelates
Calcium preventing complement activation by plasma antibody causing a false pos. DAT
-
describe DAT
- direct antiglobulin testing
- antiglobulin added to washed red cells
- if cells coated in vivo the antiglobulin reacts with the IgG antibody or complement(depends on AHG used)
-
how many times do you wash red cells(blood) before adding AHG
4x
-
when do you add check cells in DAT procedure
add to all negative antiglobulin tests in antibody detection and compatibilty testing
-
what are the autoimmune hemolytic anemia conditions
- warm autoantibodies WAIHA
- cold hemagglutinin disease CHD
- mixed type AHA
- paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria PCH
-
what are the drug induced hemolytic anemia DIHA conditions in alloimmune hemolytic anemia
- HDN hemolytic disease of the Newborn
- tranfusion reaction
-
name the AHG reagents -mono/polycolonal
- polyspecific anti IgG & anti C3d
- anti IgG
- anti complement
-
when should you avoid refrigerating a red top and why?
before performing the DAT due to anti I may attach to antigen I present on red cells and cause false pos. DAT and will also cause false neg. cold aggluntinin titer since the test measures anti I (cold aggluntinin) in serum
-
antibodyto human IgG and C3d component of complement
polyspecific
-
antibody to IgG or to C3b, C3d
monospecific
-
why perform DAT with polyspecific-monspecific
- To screen
- to characterize the globulin
-
why perform IAT with monospecific anti IgG
TO avoid cold complement binding antibodies
-
when do you use check cells
To confirm all neg. antiglobulin tests in antibody detection and compatibility testing when using anti-IgG ; confirms AHG added and not neutralized (insuffcient removal of serum proteins prior to addition of AHG)
-
define antologous
pts. own serum and cells
-
when is absorption used
- to separate mutiple antibodies
- remove autoanitbody-reveal alloantibody masked by autoantibody
- confirm antigen exsistence on RBC
- confirm antibody specificity
-
in gel testing if the cells settle at bottom what type of reaction do you have
neg.
-
in gel testing if the cells settle at top what type of reaction is this
pos.
-
name the pretransfusion tests
- ABO & D grouping
- antibody screens
- crossmatch
- autocontrol
-
describe the procedure for crossmatch
- the patient serum reacts with donor RBCs
- observe for aggluntination or hemolysis
- demonstrate ABO compatibilty
- carry through 37c incubation with AHG if current antibody screen positive or history of clinically significant antibodies
-
in antigen typing pts. with clinically significant antibodies should recieve what type of units
antigen neg.
-
how dou you confirm antigen neg. status
by reacting cells with commericial preparations of the antibody
-
what is the appropiate controls for antigen typing of heterozygous cells(ex. anti-K tested with a Kk)
pos.
-
what appropiate control is used in antigen control for the cell without antigen
(ex. anti-K tested with a kk cell)
neg.
-
who can O rbc's be given to?
any blood group
-
what blood groups can AB group recieve
A, B and O rbc's
-
when do D neg. individual get D pos. blood
in an emergency if no D neg. available
-
what is the procedure when ABO identical is not available for Rbcs
- decide what antibody is in pts plasma
- transfused cells must lack corresponding antigens
- EX. O recieve O A B AB
- B recieve B or AB
- AB recieve AB
-
what is the procedure when ABO identical is not available for plasma
- decide what antigen is on the pts. RBCs
- transfused plasma should lack the corresponding antibody
- ex.O recieve O
- A recieve O or A
- AB recieve O A B AB
-
ABO grouping is not required unless what?
giving ABO type not compatible with mother
-
when is crossmatch not necessary
if intial antibody screen is neg. using infant or maternal serum or plasma and group O is given
-
when is repeating test for crosmatch not required
for infants less than 4 months for any one hospital admission
-
when should blood products with reduced risk of CMV transmission be used for infants
If infants are <1200 g at birth and the mother is CMV neg. or CMV status is unknown
-
A group B pt. needs blood but ABO identical blood is unavailabe what group may be used and why
group O since B individuals have anti-A and O units have no A antigens or B antigens
-
A group AB pt. needs blood but ABO identical unavailable what group should be given a and why
any blood group red cells since AB individuals have no ABO antibodies
-
what type of blood should not be given for pretransfusion testing
whold blood
-
A group O pt. was crossmatched with group B red cells will this incompatibility be defected and why or why not?
yes the pt. serum contains anti A B AB and will show aggluntination when added to the group B cells
-
A group B needs FFP which blood group would be acceptable and why or why not?
a group B pt has B antigens on his red cells no group with anti B will be acceptabe. group B(has anti-A) or AB(has no ABO antibodies) will be fine
-
A group B neg needs 3 untis of red cells and 1 unit of FFP no B neg rbcs or FFP are available what would be the choice for both components and why
O neg red cells is the appropriate emergency and no B neg or O neg is available B pos or O pos would be used. The FFP should be AB since group O and A contain anti-B.
-
four units of O neg rbcs are issued on emergency release to the ER after blood is issued a blood sample and a request for 4 more units is recieved the 4 additional units of O neg rbcs are issued and the type and crossmatch started. the pt. turns out to be A pos. with a neg. antibody screen. the crossmatch with the first 8 O neg units are compatible and the antibody screen neg. the ER calls requesting more units. what ABO/RH group should these next 6 units be?
pt. should be switched to D pos. blood now; a new sample can be requested and tested for ABO antibodies either with an immediate spin crossmatch or a crossmatch carried through the AHG to detect ABO antibodies
-
what can be the cause for delayed transfusion reactions
- hrs. to days after transfusion
- indicated by no rise or decrease in hemoglobin after transfusion
- positive DAT
- often due to Kidd antibodies
-
what might be the cause of febrile nonhemolytic in transfusion(temp rise )
- recipient performed antibodies reacting with donor lymphocytes granulocytes or platelets
- infusion or cytokines in donor bag from storage
- wbc reduced blood components; prestorage leukoreduction prevents cytokine buildup
-
what is the single most important diagnostic test after birth for the diagnosis of HDN
DAT
-
when is antepartum administration given in RH immune globulin(concentrated anti-D)
at 28 weeks to all D neg. women and again with 72 hrs. of delivery to D neg. women with D pos. infants
-
what are the 2 prepartions of RHIg
intramuscular IM injection only- 1 vial neutralized 30 ml whole bloood (15 ml rbcs) fetal maternal hemorrhage and IM or intravenous- 1 vial neutralizes 17 ml RBCS
-
what terst is usually used for screeningf on all RHIg candidates to determine if more than one vial necessary
rosette test
-
what happens if rosette test pos.
Kleihauer Betke acid elution will quantiate fetal maternal bleed
-
what is the second in importance to ABO for long term survival of transplanted solid organs and the most important in hematopoietic progenitor cell transplantation
HLA SYSTEM -Human leukocyte antigens
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