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Volume 3 (Self-Test)

  1. name the LRUs tested by the digital DAAE
    RTC, ATU, DFE, CIU, JLA, and JLB
  2. the digital DAAE operates with what other station?
    DIG station
  3. what's the purpose of programmed self-test on the digital DAAE?
    ensure proper operation of the overall digital DAAE system and to isolate malfunction to replaceable components within the digital DAAE
  4. what happens in the even of an over-temperature condition inside either bay?
    sensors light a power control panel indicator and shut down the power supplies of the over-temperature condition persists
  5. list the items that make up the power distribution group.
    power supplies, control circuits, and the distribution network
  6. what DC voltages are supplied by the power distribution group?
    5 VDC, 12 VDC, and +-15 VDC
  7. what's the purpose of the control circuits within the power distribution group?
    monitor operation of the group
  8. name the three subgroups of the power distribution group.
    AC power and neutral system, DC power and ground system, status and control system
  9. what does the TMA FTG provide?
    a microprocessor-controlled, bidirectional interface between the IATE host computer and other digital DAAE FTGs via the IEE-488 bus
  10. what does the ATU FTG simulate?
    complex radar signatures to test the ATU and monitors the response of the ATU to these stimuli
  11. the ESP FTG provides the real-time scenario emitter descriptor inputs during off-line testing and fault isolation for which LRUs?
    RTC, ATU, CIU, JLA, and JLB
  12. what components make up the TAG?
    the DAAE ITA, IATE ITA, self-test cables, and STA
  13. what's the purpose of the STA?
    used for ITA and cable self-test
  14. what are the three forms of wiring in the digital DAAE?
    cabinet cabling, cabinet and assembly harnessing, and backplane wire wrapping
  15. what's the purpose of the cable termination list?
    tabularize the connections of all digital DAAE interdrawer cables
  16. how are the standard wire-run lists tabularized?
    in three columns: FROM TERMINAL, TO TERMINAL, and AWG NO
  17. what's the purpose of the signal-family list?
    is provided for convenience in determining all wires connected to a pin in the double-entry wire listing
  18. what test verbs are used with the DAAE?
    SETUP, INITIATE, FETCH, and REMOVE
  19. what test verb initiates all necessary parameters?
    SETUP
  20. what ATLAS noun modifiers are peculiar to the RF DAAE?
    THREAT SCAN, FREQ ENCODING, and PATTERN GENERATOR
  21. what noun modifier identifies the UUT?
    LRU ID
  22. which components make up the LRU DC power generation and switching section of the RF module?
    the controlled turn-on panel assembly, DC power switching assembly, and 8 LRU DC power supplies
  23. how is the AC power applied to the eight DC power supplies?
    through the use of relays (K1-K8)
  24. what signals are applied to the DC power supplies to make automatic adjustments to the output voltage?
    LOCAL/REMOTE SENSE
  25. what is the purpose of the sense lines used by the DC power supplies?
    to monitor the output voltage and provide feedback to the individual power supply voltage regulators
  26. how many of the eight DC power supplies can be activated at one time?
    a single unit, several units, or all of the DC power supplies, depending on UUT requirements
  27. describe the difference between local and remote sensing.
    a local sense line samples the DC power supply output at the DC power switching assembly, while remote sensing takes a sample of the output voltage just prior to being applied to the UUT
  28. how does the computer know when an LRU DC power supply is energized?
    the second set of relays in the controlled turn-on assembly generates a FLAG OUT signal that is applied to the monitor CCA
  29. what type of power is required to energize the RF module LRU DC power supply assemblies?
    2 phases of 120/208 VAC, 50/60 Hz
  30. what SIM CCAs are used to control the operation of the DC power switching assembly?
    power sense switch and power switch driver
  31. how does the test station computer select the power supply output to be switched to the ICA?
    PS1 SELECT signals are generated by the SIM power switch driver CCA to energize the appropriate DC power switching assembly relays
  32. when is the ITA interlock driver signal present?
    when an ITA/STA is installed on the test station
  33. why are the DC power supply sense signals routed to the four-wire bus?
    this makes the power supply outputs available to the test station for diagnostic testing
  34. what types of frequency stimulus does the RF module provide?
    CW, AM, PM, FM, PAM, and biphase modulation
  35. which components provide the stimulus in the RF module?
    3 RF synthesizers
  36. which components provide stimulus to the LRU indirectly?
    the PNA and the MSC
  37. which RF module synthesizer is connected to unswitched AC power? explain why this is done.
    synthesizer 3A1A4; unswitched power maintains a constant temperature for the synthesizer crystal oscillator, negating warm-up time and increasing accuracy
  38. describe the output characteristics of the RF synthesizers used int he RF module.
    CW or modulated outputs with a frequency range of 10 MHz to 18 GHz and a power output range of -100 to +10 dBm
  39. which RF synthesizer provides the PM signal that the MSC converts to a biphase signal?
    3A1A2
  40. what is the source of the drive signals used to produce PM in the RF synthesizers?
    STB, 10 MHz REF, or STG from the test station SIM
  41. what drive signals are used to produce AM and FM in the RF synthesizers?
    AFG or AC REF
  42. which synthesizer outputs pulse amplitude modulation, and how is the signal produced?
    3A1A4; PAM results when the PM and AM drive signals are applied simultaneously
  43. what power supply conditions are monitored inside the MSC power supply?
    overvoltage, undervoltage, and overcurrent on each output voltage
  44. what is the power range, in dBm, that the RF module can measure?
    between -70 and +35 dBm
  45. what is the purpose of power meter 3A1A1 in the RF module?
    making RF power measurements in the range of -70 to +35 dBm
  46. identify the three sensors used with the power meter and state their measurement ranges.
    8484A, -70 to -20 dBm; 8481A, -20 to +10 dBm; 8481H, 0 to +35 dBm
  47. what precautions do you take to prevent damaging the power meter sensors?
    do not drop or jar sensor; turn off power meter before removing or installing a sensor; ensure that the power being measured won't exceed the rating of the sensor
  48. what is the frequency range of the spectrum analyzer?
    100 Hz to 22 GHz
  49. how is data encoded in a PM signal?
    as PRF, pulse widtth, or pulse rise and fall time
  50. what is FM deviation?
    the amplitude of a modulating FM signal
  51. what signals are required when performing a biphase measurement?
    a biphase modulated RF signal, two local oscillator signals, and a 50 MHz clock signal
  52. how is the LRU 50 MHz REF signal used during biphase demodulation?
    shifts the biphase-coded modulation into the biphase decoder in a serial format
  53. how does the station computer know which assets are required by the program?
    all of the station resources are assigned a number or resource code that tells the computer which asset to use
  54. when can you use the SETUP command to program a fixed DC power supply?
    to modify the previous and effective APPLY statement; however you can only use the SETUP command for internal confidence testing
  55. what ATLAS commands are used to provide RF stimulus?
    APPLY, SETUP, and REMOVE
  56. what types of RF stimulus can you provide?
    CW, pulsed AC, AM, FM, biphase modulation, and pulse AM
  57. how do the VERIFY and MEASURE commands differ?
    MEASURE performs the same function as VERIFY, but compare is omitted
  58. what RF measurement command displays the results of a measurement on the CRT?
    MONITOR
  59. where are the results of the READ command stored?
    the results are stored into the system variable 'MEASUREMENT'
  60. what is the purpose of the ICA?
    to provide the means for interfacing various FTGs of the RF DAAE test station with external devices used to interconnect the DAAE with different UUTs
  61. what happens if low airflow is detected in the DAAE cabinets?
    airflow switches activate an alarm and an indicator on power control assembly A1 and shut down the power supplies if low airflow from the cabinet blower is detected in the cabinet
  62. describe the WFG FTG.
    used to test the WFG LRU
  63. what is the purpose of the RF interface in the band 1-3 receiver FTG?
    to generate a series of pulses for transmission to the receiver under test
  64. state the purpose of the RFS FTG.
    it provides a digital and RF interface with the RFS bands 4-8 LRUs
  65. what are stimuli from the FRE FTG used for?
    to stimulate the normal FRE operating conditions
  66. what does the UUT provide to the TWR FTG, and how is it used?
    under test, it provides a sample of its coherent oscillator (COHO), stable oscillator (STALO), and synchronization signals
  67. what components make up the TAG?
    DAAE ITA, IATE ITA, and self-test cables (W1-W7)
  68. what is the purpose of the TAG?
    allows data and control signals to be transferred between the R/EW IATE and RF DAAE during theRF DAAE self-test
  69. what does the cable termination list document?
    cabinet cabling
  70. how are wire-wrap programs documented?
    as wire connection lists
  71. each wire-wrap program is organized into three lists. how are these lists further divided?
    into signal name directory, input data listing, signal-family listing, and double-entry wire listing
  72. what does the signal name directory list provide?
    a cross-reference between the signal number and the signal name
  73. what are the components of the AC power and cooling subsystem?
    the primary AC box, secondary AC box, master and slave 30 KVA PDUs, cooling fans in each frame, and the EMO loop
  74. where are the four emergency off buttons located on the test station?
    two on the front of the station at control panel 1A2 and panel 4A2, and two on the rear of the station on the primary and secondary AC boxes
  75. what happens during the first three seconds of conversion while the main power switch is being held in?
    the master and slave power distribution units each verify the incoming power for phase rotation, under and overvoltage, and overcurrent conditions
  76. what does the uninterruptible power supply provide power to when it is turned on?
    the controller, monitor, KVM, ethernet hub, printer, keyboard, and mouse
  77. what is the function of the thermistors in each of the cabinets?
    to open the EMO loop, causing test station power down if the temperature inside any of the cabinets exceeds 122 degrees F
  78. what prevents power on to the UUT unless all protections are in place?
    interlocks for all of the programmable power supplies that are controlled by the UUT power controller
  79. what is the AT800A composed of?
    five modular 200-wat DC supplies housed in a single chassis located at 1A3
  80. what makes up AC1 supply?
    three CW801 single-phase AC supplies are cabled together
  81. what does the IRU do?
    under test program control
  82. what is the purpose of the CAT5 KVM extender?
    it allows for the monitor, keyboard, and mouse to be placed as far as 150 feet from the station
  83. what does the ethernet switch 2C1 provide for the system?
    high-speed 10/100 Mbps auto-sensing connectivity
  84. what does the DAQ interface do?
    it provides a path betweent the system controller and the forced air blower at 2A1
  85. what is special about force channels 33, 34, and 35 on the two Agilent digital multimeters?
    they have 75, 93, and 50 ohm resistors, respectively, for selectable loading
  86. where does the 10 MHz standard signal for station analog instruments come from?
    the VM2164 TIC provides an accurate 10 MHz clock signal to the 3A1-A0 VXI-MXI controller
  87. what does the VT1802 provide for the station?
    120 single or 60 differenctial discrete digital channels
  88. what makes up the M9 digital test instrument?
    two VXI modules, the M927-04 channel card and the M-918-04 CRB
  89. what are the individual sine wave outputs of the two Racal 3171 AWGs?
    • 1 - 20 MHz sine wave
    • 2 - 40 MHz sine wave
  90. what are the output capabilities of the Agilent 33250A AWG?
    up to 80 MHz of sine and square wave outputs
  91. what is the purpose of the oil-cooling cart?
    to provide cooling oil to LRUs being tested in the shop
  92. what determines the flow rate of cooling oil being supplied to the UUT?
    cooling requirements of the UUT and ambient temperature conditions
  93. what are the two modes of operation of the oil-cooling cart?
    manual and automatic
  94. how does the oil-cooling cart respond to the +12 VDC control signal from the IATE?
    electrical panel assembly sends a +28 VDC interlock signal to the test station
  95. when does the alarm circuit of the oil-cooling cart activate?
    when one of the temperature or flow switches open
  96. what provides ground for the motor control circuit?
    a temperature switch located at the output of the A4 hydraulic pump
  97. what are the hydraulic circuits made up of?
    flow meter, flow switch, and pressure guage
  98. what does the unused hydraulic circuit do when only one LRU is being cooled?
    it bypasses using the jumper hose assembly
  99. what is the purpose of the differential pressure selector valve?
    allows the operator to select which inputs will be applied to the differenctial pressure guage
  100. how does the oil-cooling cart cool the hot oil?
    it is passed through coils that have cooling air blown (flows) across them
  101. list the three computer systems associated with the test station and include any alternate names they go by.
    DEC AlphaStation 200 or the DEC compter; SPARC station 20 or the Sun computer; HP Vectra or phase noise computer
  102. what is the other name for the Ethernet interface?
    TCP/IP interface
  103. what are the three handshake lines on the IEEE-488 bus?
    NRFD, NDAC, DAV
  104. list the interface management lines used by the GPIB.
    ATN, EOI, IFC, REN, and SRQ
  105. what is the main input power for the L393 test system?
    480 VAC, 3-phase, 60 Hz
  106. when replacing instruments in the test station, why is it important to ensure you plug the new instrument into the same power strip as the old instrument?
    to maintain the load balance
  107. what plug-in modules are used by the two HP 8110 pulse generators in bay2?
    the HP 81103A output channel and HP 81106A PLL/external clock
  108. name at least four of the measurement functions of the HP 53132A counter in bay 4.
    frequency, period, pulse width, duty cycle
  109. what waveforms can the AFG2020 arbitrary function generator in bay 4 produce?
    the standard waveforms of sine, triangle, ramp, square, and pulse, and 32 types of custom waveforms
  110. which power supply in bay 5 is capable of acting as a measurement device?
    the Keithley 237 power supply
  111. what instrument is the only AC power supply in the analog subsystem? where is it located?
    the California Instruments 4500 L AC power supply; at the bottom of bay 5
  112. the HP 80000 data generator system is used for what?
    to characterize or emulate fast ICs, modules, or components by generating data in the form of PRWSs and PRBSs
  113. what does the tub assembly do?
    provides the interface between the UUT and the station stimulus/measurement instruments, generates digital signals to be sent to the UUT, and receives digital signals from the UUT to be analyzed
  114. what assemblies and systems make up the tub?
    the left matrix card cage, left utility card cage, driver/detector card cage, right utility card cage, cooling system, and mechanical rotation system
  115. what is the VXI bus?
    a bus specifically designed for automated test systems and data collection
  116. how many connections does the hybrid pin matrix support? how are they broken down?
    456 connections; 408 pin connections distributed to 17 of the 22 D17 channel cards, and 48 instrument connections that go to the DCAI
  117. list the modules in the HP VXI mainframe in bay 2
    slot 0 controller, ARINC 429 module, 1153 bus module, and GPS module
  118. what is the configuration of the 14 slots in the backplane of the station computer?
    11 PCI backplane slots, 2 ISA backplane slots, and 1 ISA/PCI combination backplane slot
  119. what does Teststudio provide for the station?
    an integrated environment for TPS development, execution, and documentation
  120. when does communication with VXI components in the station start?
    when you run the resource manager program
  121. how are the GPIBs identified or labeled?
    GPIB 0 or main instrumentation, GPIB 1 or ancillary, and GPIB 2 or front panel
  122. what are the four basic components of the PDU?
    isolation transformer, low-pass filter, surge suppressor, and phase rotation monitor
  123. where are the two EMO buttons located?
    on the primary AC box on the back of unit 1 and on tthe station control panel on the front left side of unit 1
  124. what components make up the EMO loop?
    2 EMO buttons, 3 temperature sensors, and main power switch on the station control panel
  125. what has the same effect as pressing one of the EMO buttons?
    pressing the off portion of the main power switch
  126. what does the CRB in the DTI provide?
    clock generatioon, control timing, guided probe, and other instrument-wide functions
  127. how many digital pins are provided by each of the DTIs?
    DTI in VXI chasses 1A4 has 192 pins; DTI in VXI chassis 1A5 has 64 pins
  128. what modules are available to the SCPM? which ones are used in the CATE SCPM?
    the matrix module, pass-thru module, and port module; 10 matrix modules and 3 port modules
  129. what is the flow of command instructions in the VXI chassis 2A3?
    the chassis controller card in slot 0 sends commands to the 3 assemblies that contain the option 01T switch module controls
  130. what must you do to access the SPCM 1A3 or VXI chassis 1A4?
    lower the ICA to a horizontal position on its hinged frame
  131. how are the tiers of the ICA labeled? which ones are currently used?
    from top A1, A2, and A3; A1 and A2
  132. the three VM3616A-3 DACs in the VXI chassis 2A4 are treated as how many independent instruments within the VXI chassis?
    9
  133. what are the VXI-AICs used for?
    to provide integrated interface to multiple avionics data buses
  134. why is the 2461C frequency conter so effective at providing accurate measurements of signals in noisy environments?
    it has selectable sensitivity and 50 kHz low-pass filters on each channel
  135. what are the resolution settings of the HP E1412A multimeter?
    4.5 digits for fast measurements or 6.5 digits for greater accuracy
  136. what does the PV103 provide for the station?
    vacuums equivalent to 85,000 ft and pressure for airspeeds up to 1,000 knots
  137. what component of the computer automated display test set is used specifically to test the HUD LRU?
    the low-level photopic high-speed PMT assembly
  138. what functions as the intelligent interface between the CATE and DUTS measurement devices?
    the intelligent radiometer
  139. what computer automated display test set component provides the ability to make multicolored measurements?
    the TRI-PMT assembly
  140. what two items of the computer automated display test sset are specifically used to test the MFD LRU?
    TRI-PMT assembly and supplementary lens
  141. what is the function of the variable light source?
    it provides a stimulus to the ambient light sensors of the LRU under test
  142. how does the intelligent radiometer communicate with the CATE?
    over the IEEE-488 bus
  143. what component is used as a reference for alignment of the DUTS?
    the boresight fixture
Author
sisney
ID
19264
Card Set
Volume 3 (Self-Test)
Description
volume 3 self-test
Updated

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