A condition in which your body tends to stay at certain preset conditions. Your body has a set point where your body would ideally like to be and a normal range which is a range that your body will be okay within
What are the three different parts of the feedback loop?
receptor-reads whether our body is in the normal range and gives that information to the control center
Control center-The brain reads the information given by the receptor and then tells the effector how to fix the problem
Effector-Plays out the game plan and actually fixes the problem
In a positive feedback system, the response of the effector does what?
a. enhances the original stimulus
b. eliminates the original stimulus
c. reverses the original stimulus
d. does not change the original stimulus
e. does not change the original stimulus
Enhances the original stimulus
Negative feedback
Your body is going to correct the problem (something goes out of normal range but goes back to normal)
Positive feedback
This system only makes things worse (child birth, blood clots)
Ion
Something that has a charge
Hydrophillic
A substance that is capable of dissolving freely in water
Explain how your body would heal a fracture.
-hematoma-your bone would begin to bleed
-callus formation-cartilage takes ends of broken bone and connects them with internal cartilage and then around that with external cartilage.
-callus ossification-cartilage turns to bone
-remodeling of bone-osteoclasts will get rid of external bumps on sides of the bone which takes a long time to do
Explain what kind of bond a water molecule will form and its characteristics.
The molecule will form a polar covalent bond and will share the electrons unequally. The hydrogens are losing an electron by allowing the oxygen's valence shell to use their electron, and because of this, the side that the hydrogens are on have a slightly positive charge and the other end has a slightly negative charge.
How will water molecules bond together?
Water molecules would form opposite of each other. This happens because the hydrogens lose electrons so they become slightly positive and the oxygen is then slightly negative. They turn side by side because opposites attract.
Explain glycolysis. (First step of carbohydrate metabolism)
Starts with glycolysis which occurs in the cytoplasm. We start with 6 carbon. We then go through pphosphorylation where you add phosphate to carbon. You then go through sugar cleavage where you divide it in two. Each half is called pyruvic acid. This produces 2 ATP, 2 pyruvic acid, and some NADH (its really 4 ATP but it takes two to get it started)
Explain what happens after glycolysis.
The pyruvic acid moves to the mitochondria where the citric acid cycle occurs. As the pyruvic acid travels it goes through a series of reactions where it turns into Acetyl CoA. (This is the only thing that can go through the citric acid cycle) Through this process we creat 2 more ATP, 8 NADH, and 2 FADH2.
Explain what happens after the citric acid cycle
We then take the hydrogen off of the NADH and are left with a very high energy electron. The electron goes through a series of doors where the mitochondria slowly steals away its energy in the electron transport chain. We are left with a very sluggish electron where oxygen is the final electron acceptor.
How many ATP do we make in the electron transport chain?
30-34
How many ATP total do we end up with at the end of carbohydrate metabolism
34-38 ATP
What is it called where you breakdown pyruvic acid in the absence of oxygen?
Anaerobic fermentation
Definition of a cell
The basic unit of life
Definition of metabolism
The sum of all reactions in your body
Definition of differentiation
When cells are specialized for certain parts of our body
The life process by which a hemocytoblast (unspeciallized stem cell) matures into a red blood cell is called:
E. differentiation
All of the following are lipids EXCEPT:
B. enzymes
The normal PH of the blood is 7.35-7.45. This makes blood
B. alkaline
Which of the following is true of phospholipids:
D. all of the above
Which of the following organs is NOT in the abdominal cavity?
D. Ovaries
Which of the following is true of catabolism
B. breaking large molecules into small ones
A CL- has:
D. gained an electron
Which of the following is true of proteins folding into its secondary structure:
A. b & d only-it generates helixes and pleated sheets and folding is driven by H bonds
The process of making ATP from glucose in the presence of oxygen is called:
D. aerobic respiration
This type of membrane covers the outside of the organ itself.
E. Both visceral and serous
Which of the following is not true about nonpolar covalent bonds?
B. dissolve in water
A substance that is capable of dissolving freely in water is:
C. hydrophillic
__________ are not used as fuels and are required in relatively small quantities:
D. micronutrients
When is NADH broken down into NAD?
B. electron transport chain
What is a polysaccharide that is stored in the liver called?
glycogen
The pH scale is measuring the concentration of what?
hydrogen
_________ is anything that has weight and takes up space.
Matter
During a marrathon, Dan's cells began to run out of oxygen. The pyruvate that his cells are forming will be converted into ______________?
Lactic acid
The outermost shell (orbit) of electrons around the nucleus is referred to as the what?
Valence shell
What occurs in the ribosome?
protein synthesis takes place
What occurs in the golgi apparatus?
Packages proteins to be shipped out of the cell
What occurs in the mitochondria?
ATP is made here
What is located in the nucleus?
Contains DNA
What occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Lipid synthesis
What is the plasma membrane responsible for?
Regulates movement in and out of the cell
What is responsible for destroying bacteria and cellular debris?
lysosomes
What is the job of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
Folds proteins
What is the structure that neutralizes free radicals in the body?
peroxisomes
The plasma membrane consists of:
B. phospholipids, proteins, and cholesterol
The plasma membrane is _________ ___________.
Selectively permeable
A red blood cell placed in a hypertonic solution
A. loses water
Certain white blood cells can destroy bacteria by a process that engulfs the bacteria
A. phagocytosis
When a ribosome reads a codon on mRNA, it must bind to the _____ of a corresponding tRNA
D. anticodon
A semipermeable membrane, which permits water movement, but not ion movement, separates two solutions. Solution A contains 0.9% NaCl and solution B contains 9.0 % NaCl. With respect to this system, which of the following statements would be true?
A. water would move from solution A to solution B
The molecule responsible for separating DNA helix is known as:
D. DNA helicase
Which structure increases the surface area of a cell in the digestive system?
A. microvilli
The type of RNA that is the copy of a gene segment of DNA is:
C. mRNA
Which of the following is true for cell membranes:
A. Selectively permeable, contains phospholipids, AND contains proteins
Which of the following is true about passive movement:
E. it moves from a higher concentration to a lower concentration and it releases energy
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the plasma membrane?
B. hydrophobic phosphate heads
Which of the following will move out of the capillary by simple diffusion INTO the cell tissue
C. oxygen
The phospholipids in a plasma membrane move across one another and can separate. This is referred to as what?
fluid mosaic theory
Which organelle has their own DNA?
mitochondria
What are hair like structures that help in movement?
cilia
What structure on the plasma membrane increases surface area?
microvilli
What structure on the plasma membrane is a tail that helps in movement?
flagellum
What are the two wways that things can move in and out of the cell?
through the plasma membrane or through a door such as a protein channel
Passive transport
Goes from a higher concentration to a lower concentration
Releases energy as it goes from high to low
Active transport
Lower concentration to higher concentration
We have to make energy and use it
Simple diffusion (passive transport)
Through the phospholipid bilayer
Goes through the membrane
What are the items that can pass through the plasma membrane?
Carbon dioxide
oxygen
small lipids/water
Facilitated transport (passive transport)
Everything that is too big to go through the membrane go through protein channels
Osmosis (passive transport)
To move water from high concentration to low concentration
Isotonic solutions
Stuff in the cell and in the solution are the same
hypertonic solution
When stuff in cell has more stuff than solution
Hypotonic solution
When stuff in the solution has more stuff than in the cell
Describe the process of protein synthesis. (Essay)
There are two parts of protein synthesis, transcription (making of mRNA) and translation (making of a protein). Thranscription has RNA polymerase come into the nucleus, find the specific gene that we are looking for and make a copy of it and create mRNA. In translation, the mRNA leaves the nucleus and moves to the active portion of the ribosome. The ribosome must read the start codon (AUG) in order to start protein synthesis. tRNA then has to come down and is the anticodon or pair for that codon (tRNA comes from the food we eat, so if we are not eating all of our amino acids, we won't have tRNA). After tRNA pairs with the codon it becomes a true amino acid where it moves to the passive site. The next codon comes in and does the same thing, along with the next. Protein synthesis stops when the active site of the ribosome reads the stop codon, which does not have an anticodon, or tRNA pair. The true amino acids then leave the ribosome from the passive site and goes to whatever part of the body needs that protein.
Explain deep wound healing
First a scab or blood clot would form. Then basophils will come in and release hystemine in order to start the inflammation process (make the blood vessels bigger and walls of capillaries more permeable so more blood and more white blood cells can come in) Then the neutrophils will come in and eat any bacteria in the wound and they die as they eat the bacteria. Macrofages then come in and get rid of anything else that should not be in the wound, including the dead neutrophils. Then fibroblasts come in and fill the remainder of the dermis to the epidermis. Then the stratum basale will break free and begin to move toward the middle until they touch and have contact inhibition. The contact inhibition will trigger the cells to go through mitosis and all the rest of the epidermis
Describe a first degree burn
Only the epidermis (when the skin turns bright red)
Describe second degree burns
When we blister (it has gone down into the dermis)
Third degree burns
Full thickness burns (epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous area) Burns through pain receptors.
What would be the healing process for full thickness burns?
Put you in reverse isolation (everyone cleans up so we can't bring anything to them)
Leaks lots of fluid
Skin graphs could be done-cover the skin so that we cover wounds while they are healing in order to give body time to fill from bottom to top
Periostinum
Part of a long bone
Outside surrounding cover that covers the outside of bone
Articulating bone (part of a long bone)
Hyaline cartilage makes two bones that meet come together nice and smooth
Distal/proximal epiphysis (part of a long bone)
The ends of the bone
diaphysis (part of a long bone)
Nice long shaft that runs along bone
If you carve open the middle is the medullary cavity (where yellow bone marrow is)
epiphyseal plate (part of a long bone)
Growth plate. Made of cartilage, where we get our height
If growth plate is big, we will still have a growth spurt
If growth plate is all bone, they will not grow anymore
epiphyseal line (part of a long bone)
A line means you are done growing and it is all converted to bone
define absorption
to take things back into the body
define secretion
to put things back into a duct or tube
Define tissue
When you put cells together to do a specific function
Define joint
When two bones come together
Which of the following bones are classified as long bones:
C. a, b, and c
The secondary ossification center develops:
B. when blood vessels enter the epiphysis
A thin layer of hyaline cartilage that is found covering the region of the epiphysis that is involved in forming a joint with another bone is called
a epiphyseal cartilage
b. articular cartilage
c. periosteum
d. perichondrium
b. articular cartilage
Define pathology.
The study of diseased tissues
What substance gives bones flexibility?
Collagen
What substance gives bones its hardness?
Calcium
Spongy bone tissue contains lamellae arranged in a lattice-like network of bone referred to as what?
trabeculae
Name the four zones of the growth plate and describe what occurs in each.
zone of resting-cells are resting/not doing anything
zone of proliferation-cells stack up into nice little lines
zone of hypertrophy-cells get bigger and bigger until they explode
zone of calcification-the explosion causes a change in pH which causes ossification
List the four types of bone cells and briefly describe their function.
osteocyte-maintains bone
osteoclast-Destroys bone and breaks it down to get calcium from it
osteoblast-builds bone from the calcium
osteoprogenitor cells-these are a stem cell that makes another stem cell and then an osteoblast so that we can continue to lay down bone
Describe the process of endochondrial ossification.
-Starts with a bone that looks like a bone but is cartilage
1. cartilage model is formed (shape of bone)
2. (bone collar) perichondrium is formed
3. a primary ossification center forms
4. brings osteoblasts and lays down matrix
5. blood vessels enter epiphyses and the secondary ossification centers form
6. Original cartilage model is almost completely ossified. Medulliary cavity gets hollowed out. The only cartilage left is on the growth plate
7. In a mature bone, the growth plate becomes ossified and is now called the epiphyseal line
What is intramembraneous ossification. Example.
Makine bone within a membrane. This is how bones of the skull are made (done growing by the age of 2)
Where does the growth actually occur in long bones?
At the epiphyseal plate. It adds new bone to the diaphysis side of the plate
What is the functional unit of a compact bone?
osteon
How would the body respond to hypocalcemia?
Osteoclasts would break down bone in order to pull the calcium out from the bone
Describe skeletal muscle
attached to bones
striated
multinucleated
nucleus lays on top of fibers
voluntary
always controlled by nerves
Describe smooth muscle
Nonstriated
found in organs or blood vessels
involuntary
It is either autorhythmic or a nerve or hormone tells it to contract
There are two types
Visceral smooth (around organ/blood vessels)
multiunit smooth (controlled ONLY by nerves. ex. irrector pili, pupil of the eye)
Describe cardiac muscle
Striated
branched
involuntary
found in the heart
has intercalated discs (gap junctions)
autorhythmic
has special group of cells called SA node
nucleus in center of cell
How do muscles contract if they are autorhythmic?
They open their own sodium doorways
The ability of muscle to stretch without being damaged is referred to as what?
extensibility
The muscle fiber membrane is called
sarcolemma
The thick filament is composed of what?
myosin
Which area(s) within sarcomeres that are lost during complete muscle contraction?
h zone
The neurotransmitter involved in skeletal muscle contraction is called:
acetlcholine
The type of muscle contraction where the muscle develops tension, but does not shorten is referred to as a(n)?
isometric contraction
A second stimulation of skeletal muscle before it has time to relax is called what?
Complete tetanus
Which of the following are true of a resting muscle cell:
C. has membrane potential AND is polarized
The short immediate burst of energy that is used in a fight or flight reaction is from:
phosphagen system
Which of the following are true with respect to a muscle contraction
C. actin filaments slide over myosin
The vastus lateralis and the vastus medialis muscles work together to extend the knee, they are called?
synergists
The functional unit of a muscle fiber is the _____, a segment from one z disc to the next.
sarcomere
Which of the following are characteristics of skeletal muscle.
C. many peripherally located nuclei per muscle cell
The protein in the muscle fibers that stores oxygen is what?
myoglobin
During depolarization, the inside of the membrane does what?
Becomes more positive than the outside of the membrane
The difference between picking up a pencil versus picking up a 20 pound weight is:
D. the number of times a neuron stimulates the muscle AND the number of motor units involved
Slower stimulus to the muscle, your muscle has time to relax
incomplete tetanus
Jerry Jogger's 3 mile run every morning takes about 30 minutes. Which of the following sources provides most of the energy for this run?
B. aerobic respiration
The ________ surrounds groups of 10-100 muscle fibers and separates them into bundles called _______
perimysium, fascicles
The nerve and all of the muscle fibers it attaches to is called what?
motor unit
When the myosin heads bind to actin what is formed
a cross bridge
Calcium is stored where?
in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Actin is composed of what?
troponin, active sites, and tropomyosin
To make a muscle contract more strongly, the nervous system can activate more motor units. What is this called?
recruitment
A muscle that is in a continual muscle contraction without rest is called what?
complete tetanus
What is the end product of anaerobic fermentation that causes muscle fatigue?
lactic acid
Explain muscle contraction.
The electrical message travels down the nerve where it opens the voltage gate and allows the calcium to come in. The calcium is the trigger for ACH to go into the synaptic cleft and bind to the ligand gate which will open the first sodium doorway, and sodium will fly in. All of the other gates will then open in succession, which is action potential, which is the electrical message. The electrical message will then travel down the muscle fiber to the t-tubule which will then tell the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release its stored calcium. The calcium then binds to the troponin which triggers the active sites to show. The myosin heads will then bind to the active sites on the actin causing our muscles to contract
Explain immediate energy
It is energy for a 100m dash, lasts for 10-15 seconds/ phosphagen system-comes from muscle directly. Uses ADP and adds a phosphate group
Explain short term energy.
Anything up to 40 seconds, anaerobic system.
Biproducts are lactic acid and a little ATP to extend time
Explain long term energy
Anything over 40 seconds. Uses an aerobic system (electron transport chain)
cation
positive charge (lose an electron)
anion
negative charge (gain an electron)`
What does a neuron do?
receives and transmits nervous impulses or messages to other neurons or organs
Dendrite
branchlike, brings electrical message into the body of a neuron
Cell body
middle, brain of the neuron
Axon
Takes electrical message away from the cell body. Trigger zone is located here.
Trigger zone
Where axon and dendrite meet. Where all of the electrical messages get added up to see if it meets threshold.
Axon Hillock
Dendrite that goes into an axon
Initial segment of axon
Very first section of the axon
Schwann cells
Myaline sheaths (allows electrical messages to jump quickly)
Nodes of Ranvier
Little pieces of the axon that are not covered by the myelin sheath
Presynaptic end bulbs
neurotransmitters are stored here
afferent neuron
Brings sensory information into where the spinal cord is
Association neurons
Only found in the brain and spinal cord (information highway)
Efferent neurons
Carries motor information
Saltatory conduction occurs only
D. in mylenated nerve fibers
A reflex response accompanied by the conscious sensation of pain is possible of this type of pathway
divergent
Which of these events occurs when a person steps on a tack with the right foot?
D. the flexor muscles of the right thigh contract and the extensor muscles of the right thigh relax because of reciprocal innervation
This part of the neuron summates all of the action potentials to see if it meets threshold
C. trigger body
This is the space that hold cerebralspinal fluid and is where you would be tested for meningitis.
C. subarachnoid
This cranial nerve helps regulate blood pressure:
B. glossopharyngeal
Which of the following are true about cholinergic neurons
D. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter AND goes to all presynaptic neurons
These neurons go from the central nervous system to the peripheral nervous system
A. efferent neurons
This type of neuron is found in the special senses.
A. bipolar
This tract is used for two point discrimination.
C. ascending and posterior column
The part of the nervous system that controls smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and the glands is the
C. autonomic nervous system
Which of the following is part of the diencephalon
D. pineal and hypothalamus
neurons receive incoming signals by way of specialized extensions of the cell called
B. dendrites
The different charge between the outside and the inside of a neuron at rest is called:
B. resting membrane potential
The innermost layer of the meninges is the
B. pia mater
Which of the following is true concerning the adrenal gland?
D. the sympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to release epinephrine
Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue covering associated with nerves?
D. endomysium
Because of a brain lesion, a certain patient never feels full, but eats so excessively that she now weighs 600lbs. The lesions most likely in her
A. hypothalamus
Damage to the ________ nerve could result in defects of eye movement.
A. abducens
What does a neuron have to have in order to send electrical messages?
Have membrane potential and sodium doorways
Central nervous system
Association neurons/ brain and spinal cord
Peripheral nervous system
Efferent and afferent neurons, outside of the brain and spinal cord
Somatic nervous system
Voluntary (skeletal muscle
Autonomic nervous system
no control over it, breathing diegestion, heart beat, blood pressure, automatic
What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
Sympathetic vs. parasympathetic
Sympathetic nervous system
fight or flight
Everything speeds up
Has chain ganglia
Info comes from T1-L2
Preganglionic-short
Postganglionic-long
Parasympathetic nervous system
Body at rest
no chain ganglia
info comes from the brain stem or sacral area
preganglionic is long
postganglionic is short
What are the neuroglia cells
Astrocyte
microglial cells
ependymal cells
oligodendendrocyte cells
schwann cells
satellite cells
Astrocyte cells
Blood brain barrier
CNS
all blood that goes to brain gets looked over by astrocyte to make sure its okay to go to brain
Microglial cells
CNS
does phagocytosis
Ependymal cells
CNS
makes cerebral spinal fluid
Oligodendrocyte
CNS
cell that makes myelin sheath around axon
Schwann cell
PNS
cell that makes myelin sheath around axon
Satellite cells
Wraps around cell bodies to keep them in one place
In both PNS and CNS
(like garbage bags around a balloon)
Dura mater
Outter most layer of the meninges
Arachnoid
middle of meninges. looks like a spider web
pia mater
Actually touches. Inner most layer
Epidural space
Between vertebrae and dura mater
Subdural space
Below the dura mater
Subarachnoid
under arachnoid area
Has cerebrospinal fluid in it
What are the five parts of the reflex arc?
sensory receptor-reports data
sensory neuron-brings info in
interneuron-processes the info (in spinal cord)
efferent neuron-sends info out
effector organ-does the work
Stretch reflex
Your receptor is in muscle fiber itself and it detects stretch and will contract if it is overstretched
Gogli tendon reflex
special receptors in tendon and monitors so that the tendon stays attached to the bone. prevents you from tearing muscle off bone
Withdrawal reflex
When you touch a hot stove, you automatically pull away
Reciprocal innovation
Whichever muscle is contracting to pull away, the opposite will automatically relax
Crossed extensor reflex
if you step on a tac with your right foot, your left leg will automatically hold you up
Releasing hormone
hypothalamus
secretes a hormone to make pituitary gland work
Inhibitory hormone
secretes a hormone to make pituitary gland stop working.
hypothalamus
Oxytocin
hypothalamus--->posterior pituitary
puts woman into labor
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH bitch)
makes peopole retain water within the body
regulates blood pressure
hypothalamus--->posterior pituitary
Growth hormone
grows tissues and cells
anterior pituitary
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
anterior pituitary
goes to thyroid and tells it to work
leutenizing hormone (LH)
anterior pituitary
triggers a woman to ovulate
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
anterior pituitary
matures sperm and egg
Adrenatorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Goes to outside portion of adrenal gland to release its hormone
anterior pituitary
Prolactin (hormone)
anterior pituitary
helps women in formulating milk
Which part of the phospholipid is hydrophillic and which is hydrophobic?
fatty acid tails-hydrophobic
phosphate group-hydrophillic
What are the properties of a nerve connecting to another nerve?
multiple connection points
Connections are only at dendrites
positive AND negative doorways
open a couple doors and it will stop (local potential)
