physiology final review

  1. For an action potentiall to occur
    • a. the stimulus must reach or exceed threshold
    • b. Sodium movement into the cell must exceed potassium movement out of the cell
    • c. the membrane must be out of the absolute refractory period
    • d. all of the above
  2. The hormone insulin caused the transport of glucose into body cells.  Its secretion is controlled by negetive feedback system.  Which of the following is most likely to be correct?
    b. An increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration.
  3. Homestatis
    • a. depends primarily on positive feedback
    • b. depends upon the interaction of receptors, integrating centers, and effectors
    • c. depends primarily upon negetive feedback
    • d. b and c
  4. The way in which the nervous system can detect the intensity of a stimulus is
    b. the frequency of action potentials
  5. Cell membrane receptors are
    a. proteins
  6. Which of the following statements applies to paracrine regulation
    • b. Prostaglandins are paracrine chemicals
    • c. paracrine chemicals are released by cells in a tissue and a act on cells in the same vicinity
    • d. b and c
  7. Which of the following would be likely to alter a cell's resting membrane potential
    • a. loss of na+ through dehydration
    • b. opening chemical-gated Na+ channels
    • c. stopping the Na+/K+ pump
    • d. an excess of K+ in the ECF
    • e. all of the above
  8. A protein is found in blood that is produced by the pituitary gland and acts on the testes, the protein i sclassified as a/an
    d. hormone
  9. Cell membranes
    c. consist primarily of phosopholipids and proteins
  10. The process of breaking down glucose to form ATP energy
    a. glycolysis
  11. Enzymes
    a. are shape-specific proteins
  12. Which of the following can be used to produce ATP by cellular respiration?
    • a. carbohydrates
    • b. lipids
    • c. proteins
    • d. a,b and c
  13. Ammonia is
    • b. processed by the live to a less toxic compount
    • c. a waste product of protein metabolism
    • e. b and c
  14. Which of th following is true of cell membranes?
    c. some proteins integrated into the membrane serve as channels for the passage of ions through the membrane
  15. Which of the following is true of cell membranes?
    • c. does not requre a carrier protein
    • d. is influenced by the surface area of the membrane
    • e. c and d
  16. Which of the following could most easily cross the lipid portion of the plasma membrane?
    a. fatty acids
  17. Which of the following statments regarding the active transport of substances across cell membranes is correct?
    • a. both primary and seceondary active transport will eventually use ATP energy
    • b. active transport moves molecules from their low concentration to their high concentration
    • e. a,b and c
  18. Which of the following statements about the Na+/K+ pump is false?
    d. It transports Na+ and K+ in a 3:1 ratio
  19. Which of the following examples of transport requires a carrier protein?
    • a. facilitated diffusion of glucose down its concentration gradient
    • c. the Na+/K+ pump
    • e. both a and c require a carrier protein
  20. Which of the following statements regarding endocytosis and exocytosis is correct?
    • a. endocytosis is a method by which large molecules may be brought into the cell
    • b. exocytosis is a method by which large molecules may be excreted from the cell
    • c. a and b
  21. A chemical messenger is released by a cell within the thyroid gland and binds to receptors on other thyroid cells and to receptors on itself. This chemical messenger woudl be considered
    • c. Paracrine factor
    • d. autocrine factor
    • e. c and d are correct
  22. The concentration gradient for Na+
    • a. favors its diffusion into a cell
    • c. is maintained by the Na+/K+ pump
    • d. a and c
  23. In response to falling blood pressure, the nervous system will stimulate the heart to pump harder and increase blood pressure. This is an example of
    a. extrinsic regulation to accomplish negative feedback
  24. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution
    • b. the cell will crenate
    • c. the solution has a higher concentration of solutes than the cell
    • e. b and c are true
  25. If transepithelial transport of glucose from the lumen of the intestine into the bloodstream, which of the following moves in to the apical surface of the epithelial cell without the expenditure of ATP energy?
    • b. glucose
    • c. sodium
    • e. b anc c are correct
  26. Which of the following types of transport does not rely on a concentration gradient?
    d. filtration
  27. Increasing the concentration of a substrate for an enzyme-catalyzed reaction will increase the rate of the reaction until the point of         is reached
    b. saturation
  28. Which of the following types of transport is involved in transepithelial transport of sodium?
    • a. active transport of Na+
    • c. diffusion of Na+ through a channel
    • e. a and c
  29. Which of the following would generally cause an increased (enzyme-catalyzed) reaction rate?
    • a. increased substrate concentration
    • b. increased enzyme concentration
    • e. a and b only
  30. Which of the following examples of transport does not require a carrier protein
    • b. diffusion of K+ down its concentration gradient
    • d. the movement of water into a cell
    • e. neither b or d requires a carrier protein
  31. Place the number of these components of a reflex arc in the correct order?
    1. effector
    2. receptor
    3. afferent pathway
    4. stimulus
    5. integration center
    6. efferent pathway
    b. 423561
  32. Which of the following is responsible for restoring the resting electrical gradient (polarized nature) of the plasma membrane after an action potential?
    e. the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels
  33. The absolute refractory period of a cell has primarily to do with
    a. the status of the voltage-gated Na+ channels
  34. Opening gated Na+ channels in a cell membrane would result in 
    • c. depolarization
    • d. The inside and the outside of the cell membrane becoming more similar
    • e. both c and d are true
  35. The movement of which ion will dependably cause depolarization
    a. sodium
  36. The process of making glucose from amino acids
    b. gluconeogenesis
  37. When an enzyme is controlled by a molecule binding somewhere other than trhe active site, it is called
    c. allosteric regulation
  38. The sodium/potassium pump is a    protein that pumps    out of the cell and    into the cell
    a. carrier, Na+, K+
  39. which of the following statements about transepithelial transport of glucose with sodium is true
    d. glucose and sodium both move into the apical surface of the cell
  40. What type of ion channels are responsible for establishing the resting membrane potential of a cell
    a. leak channels
  41. Hypocalcemia explains the basis for stopping the heartbeat during lethal injection
  42. A cell must have equal intracellular and extracellular concentrations of Na+ and K+ in order to be homeostatically balanced
  43. a system in which the response increases the strength of the original stimulus is know as negative feedback
    false (postive feedback)
  44. graded potentials can be either depolarizing or hyperpolarizing
  45. Blood clotting is an example of positive feedback since the action of the effector amplifies the original stimulus
  46. Allosteric regulation often involves the covalent attachment of a phospahte group to an enzyme to change the enzyme activity
  47. A strong stimulus produces a strong action potential
  48. during the reletive refractory period, thes timulus intensity required to start an action potential is greater
  49. the charge inside the cell membrane is positive at resting membrane potential
  50. The primary source of negative charges in the intracellular fluid is the presence of chloride ions
  51. In skeletal muscle, ATP
    d. allows myosin to release actin and cock back
  52. which type of muscle fiber is least resistant to fatigue (fatigues the easiest)
    d. fast glycolytic
  53. when an acetylcholinesterase (AchE) antagonist is in the synapse
    e. there will be more acetylcholine in the synapse
  54. rigor mortis occurs in a dead person because
    a. Atop, which is necessary for the removal of Ca2+ from the sarcomere, is not being formed
  55. which of the following statements regarding the shortening of a skeletal muscle fiber is not true?  when a skeletal muscle fiber shortens
    c. the actin and myosin myofilaments shorten
  56. which neurotransmitter is implicated in Parkinson's disease
    b. dopamine
  57. The tension in a skeletal muscle can be increased by
    • a. temporal summation of a muscle fiber
    • b. motor unit summation
    • d. a and b
  58. an inhibitory postsynatptic potential (IPSP)
    b. is produced by an increased membrane permeability to K+
  59. What will happen to the concentration of a neurotransmitter in a synaptic cleft when the frequency of action potentials increases in the presynaptic neuron
    a. it increases
  60. The EPSPs from two differnet synapses occur at the same time and cause a larger depolarization than either one alone could cause. This is an example of 
    d. Spatial summation in neurons
  61. Which of the following is parasympathetic nervous system function
    a. increase smooth muscle contraction in the digestive tract
  62. The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the    of       channels
    d. opening; potassium
  63. Predict the response of the smooth muscle of the uterus to sympathetic nervous system stimulation
    d. inhibition and relaxation
  64. exocytosis of a neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft is triggered by an influx of   (to the presynaptic cell) in response to the arrival of an action potential in the axon terminal
    c. Ca2+
  65. when skeletal muscle has been working for an extended period of time (more than 15 minutes, but less than 40), the primary source of ATP is 
    c. metabolism of blood glucose
  66. The transverse (T) tubules in a skeletal muscle fiber
    c. provide a means of transmitting an action potential in the muscle sarcolemma to the central portions of the muscle fiber
  67. The neurotransmitter used in communication between a sympathetic motor neuron and a cardic muscle cell is
    a. norepinephrine
  68. Which of the following is a biogeneic aminethat is NOT classified as a catecholamine
    c. seratonin
  69. Place the following steps of crossbridge formation in the correct order
    1. AP reaches T-Tubules
    2. Tropomyosin moves to reveal active sites
    3. Ca+2 is released from the SR
    4. Crossbridge forms
    5. Ca+2 binds to troponin
  70. which of the following statements about acetylcholine is correct
    • a. acetylchoine binds to cholinergic receptors
    • b. acetycholine binds to nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
    • d. a and b
  71. An EPSP in a membrane
    a. is often a direct result of the opening of chemical-gated Na+ channels in the membrane
  72. "Motor unit" refers to
    a. a single motor neuron plus all of the skeletal muscle fibers in innervates
  73. A marathon runners legs would likely contain extremely well-trained       fibers?
    d. slow oxidative
  74. a myofibril is
    • b. composed of actin and myosin
    • c. composed of proteins
    • e. b and c
  75. The way in which the nervous system can detect the intensity of a stimulus is
    b. the frequency of action potentials
  76. During a skeletal muscle fiber twitch, Ca+2 is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum primarily during the      phase?
    d. relaxation
  77. Which of the following drugs does NOT act at opioid receptors?
    c. LSD
  78. Which of the following neurotransmitters is lipid-soluble and is contained in chocolate?
    b. anandamide
  79. The response of a single skeletal muscle cell to a single action potential is termed
    c. a twitch
  80. Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and then travels to the sarcomere via      and it is taken back up into the SR via       .
    a. diffusion; primary active transport
  81. The nervous system uses     ca+2 to initiate neurotransmitter exocytosis, and skeletal muscle uses     Ca+2 to initiate sarcomere contraction.
    c. extracellular; intracellular
  82. Place the following action of synaptic transmission in the correct order;
    1.vboltage-gated Ca+2 channels open on synaptic terminal of presynaptic cell
    2. voltage-gated Na+2 cannels open on axon of presynaptic cell
    3. neurotransmitter released
    4. chemical-gated channels open on postsynaptic cell
    d. 2134
  83. which of the following neurotransmitters binds to adrenergic receptors
    e. Adrenaline, epinephrine, norepinephrine
  84. A postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs-from neurons, X, Y and Z.  When X and Y are stimulated simultaneously and repeatedly, the postsynaptic neuron reaches threshold and undegoes an action potential.  When X and Z are stimulated simultaneously, however, there is no change in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic neuron.  What can you tell about presynaptic neurons Y and Z
    c. Y is probably excitatory and Z is probably inhibitory
  85. BLANK is an amino acid neurotransmitter at excitatory synapses whereas     is an amino acid neurotransmitter at inhibitory synapses
    a. aspartate; glycine
  86. The neurotransmitter released from postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system is
    b. acetylchoine
  87. Endorphins and enkephalins bind to which of the following receptors
    d. Opioid
  88. The release of a phosphate from the myosin molecule directly results in which of the following
    b. power stroke
  89. put the following sources of energy for skeletal muscle contraction in the order in which they would be utilized
    1. ATP bound to myosin thick filaments
    2. blood glucose
    3. creatine phosphate
    4. fatty acid metabolism
    5. stored glycogen
    d. 13524
  90. The binding of calcium to troponin will directly cause which of the following
    d. the movement of tropomyosin, exposing the actin active sites
  91. Aerobic, or low-intensity, muscle training eventually results in 
    e. more capillaries, more myoglobin
  92. What is the effect of parasympathetic postganglionic acetycholine
    c. not enough information to  determine
  93. the preganglionic synapses in the sympathetic nervous system are
    b. excitatory and cholinergic
  94. which molecule is NOT physically associated with or part of the thin filament
    a. ATP
  95. in resting state,      covers the actin active site
    c. tropomyosin
  96. multi-unit smooth mjuscle has gap juntion and all cells act as a single functional unit
  97. muscles used for delicate, finely controlled movements have smaller, more numerous motor units than more coarsely system???????
  98. The afferent division of the peripheral nervous system consists of the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system
  99. the difference in color between white muscle fibers and red muscle fibers is accounted for by the greater abundance of glycogen in white muscle fibers
  100. a neurotransmitter that opens chemical-gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic cell would cause an IPSP on the postsynaptic cell
  101. during the isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fiber, tension increases but the fiber length stays the same
  102. the site of calcium ion storage in muscle cells is the transverse tubules
  103. during the skeletal muscle contraction, the I band and H zone shorten but the A band stays the same
  104. the neurotransmitter used primarily for reward and reinforcement in teh CNS is GABA
    false (its dopamine?)
  105. If the somatic motor neuron is damaged permanently the muscle cell it stimulates can still contract normally
  106. this hormone is called a mineralocorticoid because it helps regulate the concentration of mineral electrolytes, such as sodium and potassium ions
    b. Aldosteron
  107. This gland secretes growth hormone
    c. Anterior pituitary
  108. Ca+2 is required during coagulation in the
    d. Intrinsic pathway, extrinsic pathway, common pathway
  109. Which hormone is released in response to low levels of calcium in the bloodstream
    e. PTH (parathyroid hormone)
  110. Which is involved for the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting
    d. tissue factor III. Tissue damage. Ca+2
  111. Gonadotropin releasing hormone stimulates the release of which of the following from the anterior pituitary
    e. follicle stimulating hormone, luteinizing hormone
  112. the pancreas secretes hormones involved directly in regulation of 
    a. blood glucose
  113. Which of the following is NOT a hypophysiotropic hormone
    a. TSH
  114. An individual with bulging eyes (exophthalmos) may
    b. be secreting excessive thyroid hormone
  115. The thyroid gland secretes
    b. calcitonin
  116. the adrenal cortex is not directly involved in
    regulation of Ca+2 balance
  117. Blood clots are primarily made of a protein called    . 
  118. a deficiency of dietary chjolesterol would decrease the production of
    e. estrogens
  119. One major target of antidiuretic hormone is
    b. the kidneys
  120. Which of the following hormones targets the anterior pituitary
    d. GHIH
  121. which of the following is not a steroid hormone
    a. calcitonin
  122. which of the following hormones affects fluid volume and blood volume
    d. aldosterone, vasopression
  123. insulin is secreted by the     cells of the    .
    beta; pancreas
  124. steroid and thyroid hormones have receptors that are located BLANK of the target cell
    e. in the ICF. In the nucleus
  125. What is the function of plasmin
    c. dissolve blood clots
  126. If an individual takes large amounts of testosterone for a period of time, which of the following hormones would you expect to find in decreased concentration in the blood
    d.  Gonadotropin releasing hormone, luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone
  127. Chronic hypersecretion of a hormone can lead to      the receptor for that chemical messenger on the target cell
    e. downregulation of. Hyporesponsiveness of
  128. which disorder represents a hyposecretion disorder
    e. addisions disease.  Diabetes insipidus
  129. Which of the listed signal transduction mechanisms could not be initiated with a water-soluble chemical messenger
    b. gene activation
  130. place the following stages of hemostasis in order:
    1. Platelet plug formation
    2. coagulation
    3. fibrinolysis
    4. Clot retraction
    c. 51243
  131. which of the following is NOT a hormone released from the anterior pituitary
    b. porlactin inhibiting hormone
  132. Which of the following hormone is NOT released from the adrenal gland
    a. somatotropin
  133. Which of the following is NOT involved in the control of hormone levels in the blood
    Molecular size of the hormone molecule
  134. Choose target(s) for vasopressin
    e. kidneys, blood vessels
  135. Choose the signal transduction mechanism used by acetylcholine to initiate skeletal muscle contraction
    A. Ion channel receptor
  136. Gluconeogenesis may be stimulated by which of the following hormones
    e. glucagon. cortisol
  137. A person is diagnosed with hypothyroidism and his T3, T4, TSH, and TRH all measure lower than normal values.  What is the most likely diagnosis
    c. tertiary hypothyroidism
  138. what controls oxytocin release
    a. hypothalamus action potentials
  139. a peptide hormone that is responsible for stimulating sperm development by the testis is
    a. follicle stimulating hormone
  140. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome includes elevated levels of cortisol and aldosterone
    b. resistance phase
  141. choose the enzyme that begins the common pathway of coagulation
    b. prothrombinase
  142. BLANK inhibits the release of glucagon
    d. high plasma glucose
  143. prolactin releasing hormone (PRH) is produced in the
    a. hypothalamus
  144. aldosterone stimulates
    d. Na+ reabsorption.  K+ secretion
  145. All hormones must be bound to carrier/binding/escort proteins in the blood plasma in order to travel to target cells.
  146. Cortisol and insulin can both activate gluconeogenesis
  147. destruction of the hypophyseal portal vessel would eventually cause increased TRH secretion
  148. insulin receptors are located on plasma membranes
  149. Type 1 diabetes insipidus is caused by a lack of insulin
  150. hypersecretion of growth hormone during childhood will cause precocial puberty
  151. treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus involves injections of glucagon
  152. a tumor stimulating oversecretion of hormones by the parathyroid gland would cause plasma Ca+2 to increase
  153. Hashimoto's disease is associated with low levels of triiodothyronine
  154. dopamine is released from the hypothalamus and the adrenal cortex
  155. type 2 diabetes is an autoimmune disease where antibodies/white blood cells destroy the pancreatic islets
  156. ANP will cause the blood pressure to     and aldosterone will cause the blood pressure to     .
    d. decrease, increase
  157. Which of the following statements is true concerning the depolarization of a cell in the SA node
    c. the pacemaker action potential is slower in achieving threshhold when acetycholine is applied to cells
  158. Which type of vessel has the highest pressure
    a. arteries
  159. Which of the following will DECREASE systemic blood pressure
    a. vasodilation
  160. Choose the correct description of Starling's law
    b. increase venous return stretches the sarcomeres of the heart to their optimal length
  161. With regard to the regulation of heart rate
    • e. stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.
    • Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.
    • A person whose heart lacks all autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart
  162. Which of the following channels are involved in contractile cells of the heart
    e. voltage-gated Na+ channels. Voltage-gated Ca+2 channels
  163. which of the following factors would tend to increase blood pressure
    • e. increased sympathetic stimulation of the blood vessels.  Increased blood volume.
    • Increased venous return.
    • Increase epinephrine release from adrenal medulla
  164. The carotid sinus baroreceptor reflex
    • d. regulates blood pressure to the brain.
    • responds to low blood pressure by activating the sympathetic nervous system
    • responds to high blood pressure by activating the parasympathetic nervous system
  165. If an increase in blood pressure is detected in the right atrium, which of the following would occur
    • e. sympathetic increases of heart rate.
    • increased vasconstriction
  166. The aortic arch baroreceptor reflex
    • e. regulates systemic arterial blood pressure
    • Responds to high pressure by activating the parasympathetic nervous system
    • responds to low pressure by activating the cardioacceleratory center in the medulla oblongata
  167. Which of the following would directly add to vessel resistance
    • d. increased vessel length due to weight gain
    • atherosclerosis
    • dehydration leading to added viscosity
  168. put the following events in the cardiac cycle in order, beginning immediately after atrial contraction
    1. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
    2. isovolumetric ventricular contraction
    3. ventricular filling
    4. ventricular ejection
    c. 2413
  169. Which of the following would cause an increase in cardiac output, if detected in the aortic arch
    • e. low systemic arterial 02
    • high systemic arterial CO2
    • low systemic arterial pH
    • high systemic arterial H+
  170. which of the following will increase stroke volume
    • d. increased sympathetic stimulation.
    • increased preload.
    • increased venous return
  171. Afferent arteriole vasoconstriction        blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular capillary blood pressure to       , leading to a(n)         in the net filtration pressure and a resultant         in the GFR.
    b. decreases; decreases; decreases; decreases
  172. As resistance increases, systemic blood flow will     , as (difference in pressure) P increases, systemic blood flow tends to        .
    d. decrease, increase
  173. basic renal processes include
    e. none of the above (filtration from bowman's capsule into the glomerulus. secretion from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries.  Reabsorption from the capillaries into the tubules)
  174. The amount of a substance that is excreted in the urine is equal to the amount that is       plus the amount that is BLANK minus the amount that is     .
    d. filtered, secreted, reabsorbed
  175. each of the following substances is initially present in filtrate in the PCT in the kidney.  Which one is not normally present in urine?
    e. glucose
  176. which of the following substance undergo renal secretion
    c. calcium ion, sodium ion
  177. which organ has the most variable blood flow needs
    d. skeletal muscles
  178. the myogenic regulation response in the kidney to HIGH systemic blood pressure would be
    a. constrict afferent arterioles
  179. which of the following would cause an increase in Na+ reabsorption at the proximal convoluted tubule
    e. none of the above (decreased blood volume, decreased blood pressure, decreased cardiac output.)
  180. In order for WATER to be absorbed at the distal convoluted tubule,    must be present
    b. ADH
  181. what is the condition of the valves during ventricular ejection
    a. atrioventricular valves: closed; semilunar valves: open
  182. which is true of tubuloglomerular feedback
    d. increased flow in the distal convoluted tubule causes an afferent arteriole constriction response
  183. which of these is true
    • When resistance increases, flow decreases.
    • When vessel radius increases flow increases
  184. which of the following decreases EDV (end-diastolic ventricular volume)?
    d. afterload
  185. sympathetic nervous system stimulation increases
    • ventricular contractility
    • SA node depolarization
  186. Angiotensin II
    • causes vasoconstriction
    • stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex
    • is produced when blood pressure is low
    • is produced by ACE
  187. If stoke volume falls because of a weak myocardium, the body will attempt to maintain blood flow by
    c. increasing heart rate
  188. exercise will increase which of the following
    • e. heart rate
    • stroke volume
    • venous return
    • blood pressure
  189. which of the following would cause local arteriole vasoconstriction, if detectred in a specific systemic capillary bed
    e. none of the above (low O2, High CO2, low pH)
  190. increasing the GFR will increase the loss rate of sodium into the urine
  191. renin is released in the kidney in response to high blood pressure
  192. cardiac muscle cannot undergo tetanus because its absolute refratoryperiod lasts as long as the muscle contraction
  193. the pons of the brain controls heart rate
    false (I think has to do with urinary)
  194. aldosterone cause sodium secretion and potassium reabsorption
  195. valves are important for promoting one-way flow of blood through the heart and veins
  196. hypertension is often treated with drugs that increase resistance
  197. the sinoatrial node is normally the hearts pacemaker because it has the fastest spontaneous rate of depolarization
  198. the most important function of the cardiovascular system is to maintain blood pressure within normal ranges, regardless of blood flow to capillary beds
    false (most important is blood capillary beds)
  199. increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart will decrease heart rate and stroke volume
  200. the three mechanisms used to regulate blood pressure are: vessel diameter, vessel length, and cardiac output
  201. sympathetic nervous system activation tends to increase glomerular filtration rate
  202. regulated K+ reabsorption  (this was not a complete question so the answer was true)
  203. glomerular filtration is very effective, in part because of the diameter of the efferent arteriole is larger than the afferent arteriole
    false (afferent arteriole is larger)
  204. The functional contractile unit of skeletal muscle tissue is the
  205. when the myosin head an an actin active site are attached to one another, it is called a
  206. the protein barrier       must be moved for the myosin head to bind to the actin active site
  207. maintaining postural staility and trying to move a load that will not move are examples of      contractions.
  208. BLANK receptors bind epinephrine and norepinephrine
  209. List the steps in the synaptic transmission and skeletal muscle fiber activity leading to crossbridge formation.  stop at crossbridge formation.
    1. acetycholine
    2. receptors - sodium gated channels
    3. t-tubules
    4. presynaptic motor neuron
    5. Action Potential
    6. neuromuscular junction
    7. voltage gated ca2+ channels
    8. Action Potential
    9. sarcoplasmic reticulum
    10. calcium released
    11. calcium bind troponin
    12. myosin heads
    13. tropomyosin move
    14. actin active site
    15. crossbridge
    4, 5, 7, 1, 6, 2, 3, 9, 10, 11, 13, 12, 14, 15
  210. write the summary equation for aerobic cellular respiration
    c6 h12 o6 o2      =     ATP co2 h20
  211. List three stages of aerobic cellular respiration (of glucose) in order
    glucose, atp, krebs cycle, oxidative phosphoralation (glycolysis somewhere?0
  212. How many ATP's are produced in the entire process of aerobic cellular respiration, from a single molecule of glucose, if oxygen is present
  213. In three sentences or fewer explain significance of cellular respiration to the concept of human physiology
    low cellular respiration means low oxygen which makes it so you can't go into krebs cycle and then oxidative phosphoralation which in turn causes less productin of ATP which makes the sodium potassium pump not work and disturbs homeostasis of the cell.
  214. Explain the transepithelial transport of glucose from the lumen of hte intestine until it enters the bloodstream.  Name all transport proteins (channels v. carriers) and types of transport used in the entire process
    glucose is in the lumen of the intestine it then crosses epithelial sheet lining with facilitated diffusion then it goes to apical surface and uses carrier "hitchhiker" protein with Na+ so secondary active transport, to go into the cell. Then glycolysis occurs and/or extra glucose turned into glycogen and the rest moved with a facilitated carrier and diffuses into the bloodstream through the capillaries.
  215. If the testes were removed from a patient, one would expect his levels of anterior pituitary hormone,        to      (raise or lower), and his levels of the hypothalamus hormone,    to (raise or lower) because of the loss of     feedback.
    LH (lutenizing hormone), raise, GRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone), raise, negetive
  216. The common pathway of blood clotting begins with productin of the enzyme?
  217. Hyper secretion of growth hormone during adulthood causes the endocrine disorder
  218. The hormone     inhibits oogenesis
  219. example of 
    a hormone controlling hormone secretion
    the nervous system controlling hormone secretion
    nutrient or ion (non-hormone substance) controlling secretion  can do flow chart
    • a. hormone control hormone = reproductive
    • b. nervous control hormone = oxytocin, ADH
    • c. nutrient or Ion (non hormone substance) = calcitonin
  220. gonadotropins releasing hormone stimulate the release of which from Anterior pituitary
  221. Which hypothalamus hormone indirectly causes release of cortisol
    • Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)
    • Hypo - CRH - Ant. Pit - ACTH (adrenocorticotropic)(not this) - adrenal cortex - cortisol
  222. which of the following NOT hypophysiotropic hormone (goes from the hypothalamus to ant. pit)
    • TSH (goes from ant. pit. to thyroid)
    • TRH
    • cRH
    • GHIH
    • PIH
  223. which would be released in response to high blood plasma calcium levels
    calcitonin (tones down blood ca2+ levels)
  224. which of following targets ant pit?
    • GHIH
    • FSH - hormones gonads
    • ACTH - adrenal cortex
    • GH - everywhere
  225. which is a lipid soluble hormone
    • T3 - lipid soluble amine
    • thyhroxine - T4
    • coritcosterone - steroid
    • DHEA - androgen steroid
  226. which hormone is a peptide
    • PTH
    • T3 - lipid soluble amine
    • aldosterone - steroid
    • norepinephrine - amine
    • norepinephrine - amine
  227. which follow functions is regulated by corticosteroids (salt sugar sex)
    • blood glucose levels
    • sodium concentrations
    • sex hormones
    • potassium concentrations
  228. Which hormone uses gene activation to do the signal transduction mechanism (lipid soluble)
  229. a person is diagnosed with hypethyroidism and his t3 t4 and TSH all measure lower than normal whats diagnosis
    secondary hypothyroidism
  230. which following hormoens target bone specifically
    PTH, calcitonin
  231. which signal transduction is not possible to initiate with a water soluble hormone?f
    gene activation
  232. which disorder is a hypo secretion disorder?
    • addisons - cortisol (is hypo secretion of cortisol)
    • diabetes insipidus - ADH
  233. which hormone is released due to varying concentrations of nutrients or ions in teh blood stream
    Insulin, aldosterone, calcitonin, PTH (all of these)
  234. which hormone are involved in the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome
    • Cortisol, Aldosterone
    • Epinephrine and dopamine are alarm phase
  235. which inhibits spermatogenesis?
  236. which is a metabolic effect of epinephrine hormone
    • Increased skeletal muscle metabolism, glycogenolysis in skeletal muscle, lipolysis
    • (epi tries to raise nutrient circulation level)
    • glycogeneis (drops glucose level dont want do this)
  237. the productio of RBC is called
  238. name 3 vitamins or minerals required for erythropoiesis
    Iron, folic acid, vitamin B12
  239. name one kidney hormone required for erythropoiesis
    erythropoitin EPO
  240. what is the target of erythropoiesis
    red bone marrow stem cells
  241. why do males tend to have more RBC than females
    more testosterone
  242. when o2 is bond to hemoglobin, it is called
  243. define hemostasis
    mechanisms to stop bleeding
  244. name five stages of hemostasis, as described in your notes
    • vasoconstriction
    • platelet plug formation (platelet phase)
    • clotting (coagulation phase)
    • clot retraction phase
    • fibrinolysis phase
  245. the pathway for blood clotting that is initiated by chemicals released by a damaged vessel wall or damaged tissue is called the         pathway and is fastest way to initiate blood clotting
  246. the common pathway of blood clotting begfins with Xa, also called
  247. activated or sticky platelets initiate the        pathway of blood clotting
  248. how does aspirin prevent inappropriate  clotting
    interferes with prostaglandin synthesis - platelets less sitcky, inappropriate plugs and clots
  249. when is Ca2+ required for blood clotting
    • all
    • intrinsic pathway
    • extrinsic pathway
    • common pathway
  250. blood clots are primarily made of a protein called
  251. contact of blood with collagen triggers
    • platelet aggregation
    • activiation of the intrinsic clotting pathway
    • (not activation of the extrinsic pathway)
  252. what is the function of plasmin
    dissolve blood clots
Card Set
physiology final review
all quizes and tests and worksheets are in these