_____ indicates a preferred, but not mandatory, method of accomplishment
a. May
b. Should
c. Will
d. Could
Should
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[16(1.3.2)]
________ and _________ indicate a mandatory requirement.
C. Should, May
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[16(1.3.1)]
__________ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damage to equipment if not followed carefully.
a. Warning
b. Note
c. Advisory
d. Caution
Caution
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[16(1.3.5)]
Who is in command of all persons aboard the aircraft, the final authority for requesting/accepting aircrew or mission waivers, and the final authority for making decisions not assigned to higher authority?a. The senior officer on the crew
b. The mission commander
c. The Pilot in Command
d. The navigator
The Pilot in Command
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[18(2.3)]
The unit commander will designate a mission commander when more than two aircraft are assembled to perform missions away from home station.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
True
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[21(2.6.1)]
When is a navigator not required to fly on a training mission?
a. When the reported/forecasted weather does not include
thunderstorms or other inclement weather.
b. When the mission will be conducted within radar control or if outside of radar control, will be
conducted above 3,000 ft AGL.
c. When authorized by the squadron CC or deployed mission commander.
d. All of the above.
All of the aboveRef:
AFI 11-2C-130V3[23(3.2) (T)]
During other than unilateral training missions, any crew can fly as the last ship in the formation even if it is a deputy lead or element lead position.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
True
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[25(3.2.4.4.)]
What is the maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for a basic C-130 aircrew?
a. 18 hours (14 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
b. 12 hours (10 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
c. 20 hours (18 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
d. 16 hours (12 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
16 hours (12 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[26(3.7.1.1.)]
What is the maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for an augmented C-130 aircrew?
a. 18 hours (16 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
b. 12 hours (10 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
c. 16 hours (12hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
d. 20 hours (18 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
18 hours (16 hours when the autopilot is inoperative)
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[27(3.7.1.2.)]
The maximum Flight Duty Period (FDP) for training, tactical, and FCF/ACF missions is 16 hours (12 hours when the autopilot is inoperative). However, all mission-related events i.e., (FCF/ACF checks, transition events, or tactical events) must be completed during the first _____ hours of the FDP.
a. 10
b. 9
c. 12
d. 8
12
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[27(3.7.1.5.1)
Crewmembers will not perform aircrew duties within 12 hours of consuming alcoholic beverages. What time is used to calculate this 12 hour period?
a. Scheduled takeoff time
b. ALFA standby force legal for alert time
c. Earliest show time from BRAVO alert
d. All of the above
All of the above
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[28(3.8.2.)]
For all missions, the latest allowable alert time is _____ hours after the expected alert time. The PIC may extend that window to ____ hours when flying as primary crew or _____ hours when flying in deadhead status.
a. 4,5,16
b. 6,8,12
c. 8,12,16
d. 2,4,10
6,8,12
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[32(3.11.2.2.)]
If a mission can't depart within ______ hours of scheduled takeoff time, the PIC will contact a C2 agent and establish a new expected alert time. The PIC may extend takeoff window to _____ hours.
a. 4,6
b. 2,8
c. 6,8
d. 5,7
4,6
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[32(3.11.2.4.)]
An aircraft and/or aircrew postured to permit launch within 3 hours describes what type of Standby Force?a. ALFA Standby Force
b. CHARLIE Standby Force
c. BRAVO Standby Force
d. Wing Standby Force
BRAVO Standby Force
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[33(3.13.2.)]
Who can grant waivers to operate with degraded equipment on local training missions?
a. SQ/CC or equivalent with mission execution authority.
b. Mission commander or equivalent with mission execution authority.
c. The Pilot in Command
d. OG/CC or equivalent with mission execution authority.
OG/CC or equivalent with mission execution authority.
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[37(4.3.1.)]
The radar (pilot's display/sweep on APN-241 equipped aircraft) is required if thunderstorms or hazardous conditions exist that can be detected by airborne radar are forecasted or exist along the route of flight, unless waived by the aircraft commander.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
FALSE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[49(4.14) (T)]
17. For flights on Category I routes outside the Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace in the North Atlantic Region or the Composite Hawaii/Mainland US Route System, who determines the minimum navigational capability required to safely accomplish the mission?
a. The Navigator
b. The Pilot in Command
c. The Sq/CC
d. The OG/CC
The Pilot in Command
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[50(4.8.2)]
During an NVG airland/assault training sortie, the radar fails en route. The crew must return to base to have the radar repaired or discontinue NVG airland/assault operations.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
FALSE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[50(4.10.2)]
During NVG operations the pilot's radar altimeter fails; however, the navigator's radar altimeter continues to function correctly. The crew may continue conducting NVG operations using only the navigator's radar altimeter.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
FALSE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[50(4.10.1)]
When responding to challenge and response items in the aircrew checklists, momentary hesitations for coordination items, ATC interruptions, and deviations specified in the flight manual, etc. are authorized.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
TRUE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[51(5.1)]
SCNS with integrated GPS and a minimum of one INS must be operational for low-level flights flown using NVG en route altitudes.
a. SCNS with integrated GPS
b. a minimum of one INS
c. both a and b above
d. none of the above
TRUE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[51(5.1)]
Who may be absent from their duty station at any one given time?
a. Either pilot and the flight engineer may be absent at a time
b. Only one pilot or the flight engineer may be absent at a time
c. Both pilots may be absent as long as the navigator and engineer monitor the instruments
d. Pilots may never be absent from their stations
Only one pilot or the flight engineer may be absent at a time
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[51(5.2)]
Crewmembers will have seat belts fastened when occupying a duty position, unless crew duties dictate otherwise.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
TRUE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[52(5.7.2)]
Total lights-out operations are authorized with concurrence of the controlling agency in what type(s) of airspace?
a. Warning areas
b. Restricted areas
c. Terminal Control Areas
d. Both A and B
Both A and B
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[52(5.8.1.1.)]
"Taping" with NVG compatible chemical lights is an acceptable lighting scheme for NVG airland operations.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
FALSE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[53(5.8.3.)]
Any crewmember seeing a deviation of ______ feet altitude or 10 knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF.
a. 200
b. 400
c. 600
d. 1000
200
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[55(5.11.1.2.)]
The common assertive statement that provides a clear warning sign of a deviation or loss of situational awareness, an opportunity to break the error chain before a mishap occurs, and notifies all crewmembers when someone sees the aircraft or crew departing from established guidelines, the briefed scenario, or that someone is simply uncomfortable with the developing condition is what?a. "Knock it off"
b. "Time out"
c. "Heads up"
d. "My Aircraft"
"Time out"
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[56(5.12.4.1.)]
The minimum runway width for max effort operations is:
a. 80 Feet
b. 30 Feet
c. 60 Feet
d. 100 Feet
60 Feet
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[56(5.15.1.)]
The minimum taxiway width for C-130 operations is _______ feet.
a. 30
b. 60
c. 45
d. 20
30
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[56(5.15.1.)]
Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions.
a. 15
b. 25
c. 30
d. 35
25
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[59(5.16.1.)]
During reverse taxi operations, stop no less than ____ feet from an obstruction even if using a wing walker.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40
25
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[59(5.16.4.4.)]
During an IFR departure the aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway with all engines operating. What climb gradient will be used if there is no climb gradient published?a. 100 ft/nm
b. 300 ft/nm
c. 500 ft/nm
d. 200 ft/nm
200 ft/nm
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[75(6.16.2.3.)]
If the weather at the departure field is below landing minimums, can the aircraft still depart?
a. Yes, as long as there is enough fuel to hold for 2 hours
b. No
c. Yes, but a departure alternate is required
d. Yes, but it requires OG/CC approval
Yes, but a departure alternate is required
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[76(6.17.1.1.)]
When briefed of potential en-route turbulence, crews should confirm the type of aircraft to which forecast turbulence applies, or what type of aircraft reported the turbulence, to gain a more accurate picture for their route of flight. What category aircraft is the C-130 for turbulence considerations?
a. Category III aircraft
b. Category 2 aircraft
c. Category V aircraft
d. Category 6 aircraft
Category III aircraft
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[77(6.21.1.1.)]
Do not fly directly above (within 2,000 feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds. If unable to vertically clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least 2000 feet, avoid them by at least ____ NMs at or above FL 230.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
20
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[78(6.21.3.)]
The potential for lightning strikes exists within which of the following conditions?
a. Within plus or minus 5000 feet of the freezing level
b. Usually not encountered during winter months
c. Within plus or minus 8° of the freezing level
d. Both A and C
Both A and C
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[78(6.21.6.3.)]
There should be enough oxygen on board the aircraft for takeoff to accomplish the planned flight from the equal time point (ETP) should oxygen be required. What is the minimum amount required?
a. 2 liters
b. 5 liters
c. 10 liters
d. 15 liters
5 liters
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[81(6.26.1.)]
What is the minimum weather requirement for a fully current/qualified crew to conduct an NVG departure?
a. 200 ft ceiling and 1/2 sm visibility
b. 300 ft ceiling and 1 sm visibility
c. 500 ft ceiling and 2 sm visibility
d. 600 ft ceiling and 2 sm visibility
300 ft ceiling and 1 sm visibility
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[84(6.32.1.)]
While in-flight , the navigator will recompute the ETP when the actual time of arrival at a reporting point is _____ minutes or more ahead or behind the planned time if the change was caused by erroneous wind information.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
15
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[134(11.4.2.)]
Navigators will annotate suitable emergency airfields on flight charts. Optimum emergency airfields are located within how many nautical miles of the intended route of flight?
a. 50 NM
b. 100 NM
c. 150 NM
d. 200 NM
50 NM
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[134(11.5.1.3.)]
In flight fuel management procedures are required on Category I routes when the time between the LSAF and FSAF is how long?
a. In flight fuel management procedures are always required, regardless of time between LSAF and FSAF
b. 5 hours or more
c. 2 hours
d. 4 hours
5 hours or more
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[135(11.6.6.)]
For fuel conservation purposes, the unidentified extra should not exceed the required ramp fuel load by more than how many pounds?
a. 2,200 pounds.
b. 3,500 pounds
c. 5,000 pounds
d. 5,500 pounds
2,200 pounds.
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[166(14.2.1.)]
If either the pilots’ NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, radar altimeter, GPS, or aircraft radar fail, climb to MSA until resolving the problem. In addition, climb to MSA to resolve any T.O. 1C-130(x)/(x)-1 Section III procedures, commensurate with the tactical situation.
a. True
b. False
True
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[174(16.3.1.3.)]
If on NVGs, fly NVG en route altitude through slowdown. After slowdown, the aircraft may descend from run-in to the drop altitude specified in AFI 11-231, AMT, SPINS, or mission planning sheet provided the following requirement(s) are met:
a. when the drop zone is in sight and will remain in sight
b. when a positive position is identified
c. adequate terrain clearance is assured
d. all of the above
all of the above
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[175(16.3.2.2.)]
Low-level navigation charts will be annotated with the most recent CHUM. In no case will CHUM coverage be less than ____ NMs either side of the entire planned route of flight.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 22
22
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[176(16.3.5.)]
Due to peacetime route restrictions, routes will not be planned or flown with less than ____ NM separation when below 2,000 feet AGL from sensitive environmental areas such as hospitals, fish hatcheries, large poultry complexes, ostrich and emu farms and similar locations.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
1NM
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[175(16.3.4.1.)]
Due to peacetime route restrictions, routes will not be planned or flown with less than _____ NMs of separation from nuclear power plants.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
3
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[175(16.3.4.3.)]
What is the minimum taxi interval between aircraft during formation operations?
a. One aircraft length with four engines operating
b. As briefed by the pilot
c. Two aircraft lengths with two engines operating
d. Both A and C
Both A and C
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[186(18..4.1.)]
What is the minimum takeoff interval between aircraft during formation operations?
a. 300 feet
b. 15 seconds
c. 100 feet
d. 20 seconds
15 seconds
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[186(18..5.1.)]
Lead will announce airspeed changes of _____-knots or greater at night.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
15
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[187(18..7.2.)]
While conducting a formation rejoin during visual formation operations, the rejoining aircraft will maintain _____ feet above or below the formation until the formation is in sight and clearance to rejoin is granted.
a. 1000
b. 500
c. 2000
d. 300
500
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[188(18..9.1.)]
Minimum formation spacing for a CDS airdrop is ______ feet between aircraft.
a. 2000
b. 4000
c. 6000
d. 12000
6000
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[188(18..12.1.)]
What is the minimum landing interval between aircraft during visual formation operations?
a. 20 seconds
b. 500 feet
c. 15 seconds
d. 1000 feet
15 seconds
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[188(18.14.)]
Touch-and-go landings are approved during formation operations as long as the lead aircraft is the only aircraft that performs the touch-and go and all other aircraft in the formation perform a full-stop landing.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
FALSE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[188(18.14.) (W]
What is the minimum spacing between aircraft during SKE operations?
a. 2000 feet
b. 4000 feet
c. 6000 feet
d. 8000 feet
4000 feet
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[189(18.15.3.)]
What drift value will each aircraft in a SKE formation use to determine SKE crosstrack for airdrops?
a. The drift displayed on the individual aircraft's SCNS once at drop altitude.
b. The drift as briefed in the formation brief.
c. The lead aircraft's drift
d. Drift relayed from the DZ control team
The lead aircraft's drift
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[190(18.18.1.)]
What is the minimum landing interval between aircraft during SKE formation operations?
a. 15 seconds
b. 6000 feet
c. 20 seconds
d. 5000 feet
5000 feet
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[190(18.19.1.)]
What is the minimum weather required for an NVG formation departure?
a. 200/1
b. 300/1
c. Approach minimums
d. B or C, whichever is higher
B or C, whichever is higher
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[186(18..3.1.1)]
As long as the loadmaster has looked at the load and verified the correct weight and parachute types, the navigator is not required to verify the load information.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
FALSE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[193(19.5)]
The Ten Minute advisory is a required call during a heavy equipment airdrop.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
FALSE
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[195(19.11.2.)]
During personnel airdrops, when must the aircraft be at or above drop altitude and stable for the drop?
a. Green light
b. One minute
c. Two minutes (jumpmaster directed)
d. Both B and C
Both B and C
Ref: AFI 11-2C-130V3[195(19.11) (N)]
Prior to the "one minute advisory" who may call a "no-drop" should unsafe conditions exist?
a. The PIC, all other crewmember will notify the PIC of conditions that could jeopardize a safe drop.
b. Any crewmember observing an unsafe condition
c. The loadmaster
d. The navigator
The PIC, all other crewmember will notify the PIC of conditions that could jeopardize a safe drop.
