BIO 115 FALL 2012 FINAL EXAM

  1. Glands that secrete products into ducts are called



    A.
  2. Which of the following are examples of body membranes?



    A.
  3. Muscle tissue with striations and a single nucleus in each fiber



    C.
  4. Cardiac muscle is


    C.
  5. Intestinal muscle is


    B.
  6. Skeletal muscle is


    A.
  7. Which type of muscle has intercalated disks?



    C.
  8. A neuron is a



    D.
  9. A neuron consists of



    A.
  10. Which one of these  contains  the nerve cell nucleus?



    A.
  11. Part of neuron that receives a nerve  impulse:



    D.
  12. Neuroglia are associated with



    D.
  13. Glands are mostly made of



    A.
  14. Arrange the following terms from the smallest to the largest:  1) cell, 2) organelle, 3) atom, 4) organ, 5) tissue
    a.       3,2,1,5,4
    b.      1,2,3,4,5
    c.       5,4,3,2,1
    d.      3,1,5,4,2
    e.      4,5,1,2,3
    • a:
    • atom
    • organelle
    • cell
    • tissue
    • organ
  15. Which type of tissue covers surfaces and lines cavities?



    A.
  16. What type of epithelium is often found in the kidneys?



    D.
  17. What type of epithelium is found where simple diffusion occurs as in the lungs?



    D.
  18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue?



    C.
  19. Epithelial tissue



    D.
  20. Which type of tissue binds and supports body parts?



    D.
  21. What type of epithelium is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch and slide to create a barrier?



    C.
  22. What type of tissue is found in the intestines?



    B.
  23. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue is found in (on) the



    D.
  24. This gland consists of a single cell and secrete mucus onto the surface of the intestines:



    C.
  25. What are found in the lacunae of bone tissue?



    B.
  26. Which of the following is NOT a formed element found in blood?



    A.
  27. Which of the following connects muscles to bone?



    D.
  28. Which tissue has lacunae?



    D.
  29. What type of cartilage makes up the frame of the outer ear?


    A.
  30. What type of tissue is made of concentric rings called an osteon of Haversian system?



    A.
  31. What type of cartilage makes up the intervertebral disks?


    C.
  32. Which of the following is the most common type of cartilage?


    B.
  33. Which of the following refers to the membrane lining the abdominal cavity wall?



    D.
  34. Which refers to a membrane attached to the surface of a lung?



    A.
  35. Visceral refers to:



    A.
  36. In which cavity would you find the stomach?



    B.
  37. The lungs would be found in which cavity?



    C.
  38. Which one of the following structures does NOT belong in the mediastinum?




    D.
  39. The thoracic cavity is part of which larger cavity?


    C.
  40. Integration and coordination are part of the body’s



    A.
  41. Which system of the body plays a major part in support, movement, and protection?



    A.
  42. Homeostasis refers to



    A.
  43. Which of the following provides the best examples of a negative feedback control mechanism?



    C.
  44. Which of the following is NOT a component of a homeostatic mechanism?



    B.
  45. Which two body systems are involved in maintenance of the body?




    D.
  46. The inflammation of the membranes of the posterior (dorsal) cavity is called



    D.
  47. Sally is rushed to the hospital with acute appendicitis. Which serous membrane is in danger of infection?



    D.
  48. A disease that occurs suddenly and does not last a long time is considered



    C.
  49. An ear infection is considered a(n) _____ disease.



    D.
  50. The random movement of simple substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called



    C.
  51. What differentiates passive transport from active transport?



    A.
  52. Active transport




    E.
  53. The movement of H2O across a plasma membrane



    C.
  54. The plasma membrane is


    C.
  55. When a cell is placed into a(n) _____ solution, crenation is possible.


    B.
  56. When a cell is placed into a(n) _____ solution, water leaves the cell.


    B.
  57. When a cell is placed into a(n) _____ solution, the cell lyse(burst).


    B.
  58. Which of the following organelles functions in protein synthesis?



    C.
  59. The rough ER is covered with



    C.
  60. Which organelle is involved in processing, packaging, and secretion of proteins and lipids?



    C.
  61. Digestive structures found in cells that help to detoxify drugs and alcohol are called:



    B.
  62. Mitochondria



    C.
  63. Which of the following is NOT considered anatomical position?



    B.
  64. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?



    B.
  65. Which of the following pairs are opposing terms?



    B.
  66. Which term refers to the back?



    C.
  67. The heart is ____ to the lungs.



    C.
  68. The hand is ____ to the elbow.



    A.
  69. The spinal cord is ____ to the esophagus.



    D.
  70. The right hand and the left foot are ____ to each other.



    B.
  71. Which of the following is INCORRECT in describing the nose?



    B.
  72. Which type of section divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?



    D.
  73. Which type of section divides the body into the right and left portions?



    A.
  74. The forearm is which region?




    E.
  75. The armpit is which region?



    D.
  76. The back of the skull is which region?



    D.
  77. The arm is which region?




    B.
  78. The lower back is which region?



    C.
  79. Appendicular refers to the



    B.
  80. The formation of a pocket in the plasma membrane to bring in solid food materials is called




    E.
  81. The process of programmed cell death due to problems in the cell cycle is called:



    B.
  82. The portion of the cell cycle when a cell is not dividing and doing what it is designed to do is called



    C.
  83. The period of interphase when cell growth and manufacture of organelles occurs is the



    C.
  84. The period of interphase when DNA is replicated is the



    C.
  85. The period of interphase when the proteins are made that will be needed for cell division is the



    C.
  86. The process of cell division involves the two processes of



    D.
  87. The reforming of the nuclear membrane around chromosomes occurs during



    C.
  88. The centrioles moving apart to opposite poles occurs during



    D.
  89. The formation of spindle fibers occurs during



    A.
  90. The chromosomes lining up randomly at the equator of the cell occurs during



    D.
  91. The separation of sister chromatids, being pulled toward the centrioles occurs in



    B.
  92. One body cell entering the cell cycles produces______identical daughter cell(s) @ the end of the cycle.



    B.
  93. What happens to the chromosomes number as a result to mitosis?



    C.
  94. The process of meiosis produces



    D.
  95. What happens to chromosome number as a result of meiosis?



    D.
  96. Which term refers to the study of how an organ functions?




    B.
  97. A group of similar cells performing a specialized function is referred to as a(n)



    D.
  98. Cells are to tissues as tissues are to



    D.
  99. The mitochondria are the cell’s “powerhouse”.
    a.       True
    b.      False
    a
  100. The plasma membrane consists primarily of:



    C.
  101. Which of the following is a function of the skeleton?



    A.
  102. Which of the following is NOT a general shape used to classify bones?



    D.
  103. The end of a long bone is the:



    D.
  104. The shaft of a long bone is the:


    B.
  105. What are the cells found within an osteon?



    A.
  106. Osteocytes live in small chambers within the calcified bone called:



    A.
  107. Which of the following is NOT a feature of compact bone?



    A.
  108. Which of the following are the bone-eating (resorbing) cells?



    D.
  109. What types of cells secrete the matrix of bone (bone forming cells)?



    D.
  110. Which would form by way of intramembranous ossification?



    A.
  111. During intramembranous ossification



    A.
  112. During endochondral ossification



    D.
  113. What structure is the site of bone growth in length?



    A.
  114. The addition of new bone on top of existing bone to increase bone thickness is called



    B.
  115. Which of the following is the correct order of events in bone repair of a fracture?



    C.
  116. A bone that is broken but does not pierce the skin is a(an)



    C.
  117. A condition in which bones lose bone mass and therefore become weak is



    D.
  118. Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?



    B.
  119. Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?



    A.
  120. What is the only movable bone of the skull?



    A.
  121. Which bone has no articulation with any other bone?



    D.
  122. Which of the following pairings of vertebra and their number is correct?



    A.
  123. An exaggerated lumbar curvature is called



    D.
  124. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called



    D.
  125. What are the intervertebral disks that are shock-absorbers composed of?



    A.
  126. The first cervical vertebra that “holds up the head” is the



    B.
  127. To which type of vertebrae are the ribs attached?



    D.
  128. How many pairs of ribs are found in humans?



    A.
  129. Which spinal curvature is incorrect?


    B.
  130. The most inferior part of the sternum is called the



    B.
  131. The pectoral girdle



    B.
  132. Another name for the collarbone is the



    D.
  133. What is another name for the wrist?



    C.
  134. The socket on the coxal bone that articulates with the head of the femur is the



    D.
  135. The longest and strongest bone in the body is the



    B.
  136. Which type of joint is correctly matched with the amount of movement they allow?


    C.
  137. Sutures occur mainly in the



    C.
  138. What type of synovial joint movement will decrease the angle between bones?



    C.
  139. What type of synovial joint movement will move a body part laterally, away from the body?



    D.
  140. Doing arm circles in an example of :



    C.
  141. Which of the following is NOT another name for the skin?



    A.
  142. The skin consists of _____ region(s).



    D.
  143. The epidermis and dermis make up the



    B.
  144. The integument or cutaneous membrane is the largest organ in the body.
    a.     True
    b.     False
    a
  145. The epidermis



    D.
  146. In which layer of the epidermis are cells constantly dividing?



    C.
  147. Which of the following types of cells are NOT found in the epidermis?



    B.
  148. What happens to cells when they move from the epidermis to the surface of the skin?



    C.
  149. A person with no color in their skin, hair, and eyes has



    C.
  150. Which layer of the epidermis protects from abrasion and is found only in thick skin?



    D.
  151. Which layer of the epidermis is closest to the surface?



    A.
  152. Keratin is



    A.
  153. Melanin



    D.
  154. Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels and nerve fibers?


    B.
  155. The dermis is composed of



    A.
  156. Hair follicles are  produced by epithelial cells located in the



    B.
  157. Which consists of keratinized cells?



    A.
  158. The arrector pili



    B.
  159. A condition described by excessive body and facial hair in women is



    D.
  160. ________ glands open into hair follicles; while __________ open onto the surface of the skin
    a.     Apocrine; eccrine
    b.     Eccrine; apocrine
    a
  161. The area of the nail that covers the root




    C.
  162. What type of skin gland secretes sweat?



    D.
  163. Which type(s) of skin gland(s) become(s) active with puberty?



    B.
  164. What percentage of a person’s skin would be involved if they had burned the entire trunk?



    B.
  165. What type of skin gland secretes earwax?



    D.
  166. Which is the most dangerous form of skin cancer?



    C.
  167. Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer?


    C.
  168. Pain is rarely felt from a



    A.
  169. The epidermis only is damaged from a



    A.
  170.  The epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged from a



    C.
  171. What percentage of a person’s skin would be involved if they had burned their left arm, front of the trunk, and the front of their left leg?



    D.
  172. Regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number of melanocytes.
    a.     True
    b.     False
    a
  173. The dermis__________.



    C.
  174. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?



    B.
  175. The white crescent portion of the nail is called the_________.




    D.
  176. The central nervous system includes the



    D.
  177. The spinal cord is part of the _____, while the nerves are part of the _____.
    a.      CNS, PNS
    b.      PNS, CNS
    a
  178. Which effectors of the PNS are served by somatic motor nerves?



    C.
  179. Which of the following is part of a neuron?



    B.
  180. Which of the following contains the nucleus?



    D.
  181. Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?



    B.
  182. A bundle of parallel axons in the CNS is called a



    B.
  183. Within the peripheral nervous system, the myelin sheath is formed by



    D.
  184. Within the central nervous system, the myelin sheath is produced from



    C.
  185. A sensory neuron carries impulses



    B.
  186. An interneuron carries impulses



    D.
  187. A motor neuron carries impulses


    A.
  188. What is the structural classification of a motor neuron?


    B.
  189. What is the structural classification of a sensory neuron?


    A.
  190. The “jumping” of an action potential from one node of Ranvier to the next node is called



    B.
  191. Nerves are composed of axons.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  192. The small gap between two successive neurons is called the



    C.
  193. Which of the following is a common neurotransmitter in the muscular system?



    A.
  194. The protective membranes around the brain and spinal cord are the



    D.
  195. Which of the following is the correct layering of the meninges from superficial to deep?



    B.
  196. The tough outer meninx is the


    A.
  197. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the



    B.
  198. What do the ventricles of the brain contain?



    B.
  199. In the spinal cord, the gray matter is
    a.      Inside with white matter outside
    b.      Outside with white matter inside
    a
  200. What separates the hemispheres of the cerebrum?



    B.
  201. What white matter structure connects the two cerebral hemispheres?



    D.
  202. A shallow groove on the structure of the cerebral cortex is called a



    C.
  203. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum?




    A.
  204. The primary motor cortex is located in the ___ lobe.



    C.
  205. The primary somatosensory area is located in the ___ lobe.



    D.
  206. The primary visual area is located in the ___ lobe.



    C.
  207. The primary auditory area is located in the ___ lobe.



    D.
  208. Wernicke’s area or general interpretive area, is involved with



    D.
  209. The area in the brain concerned with our deepest emotions, such as rage, sorrow, pleasure



    B.
  210. Which part of the brain regulates hunger, sleep, thirst, body temperature and water balance?



    A.
  211. What part of the limbic system is vital in converting short-term memory to long-term memory?



    A.
  212. The peripheral nervous system has two main divisions: Sensory which is the ______________ division and motor which is the ______________ division.
    a.      Afferent; Efferent
    b.      Efferent; Afferent
    b
  213. Which one of the following is NOT a specific function of the nervous system that works to maintain homeostasis?



    C.
  214. Restful activities are governed by the


    A.
  215. The autonomic system that gets the body ready for “fight or fight” is the


    A.
  216. Which type of muscle tissue has intercalated disk?



    A.
  217. Which type of muscle tissue is striated?



    D.
  218. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow internal organs?



    C.
  219. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary?



    D.
  220. Which of the following surrounds a fascicle?



    D.
  221. Which of the following connective tissue sheaths covers the muscle organ itself?



    D.
  222. 1.      Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?



    A.
  223. The special name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is:



    A.
  224. Sarcomeres are located in myofibrils and extends between two vertical Z lines
    a.      True
    b.      false
    a
  225. There are two types of myofilaments: thick, composed of__________ and thin composed of____________.
    a.      Myosin, actin
    b.      Actin, myosin
    a
  226. In the sliding filament theory, ____________ filaments slide past ___________filaments.
    a.      Actin, myosin
    b.      Myosin, actin
    a
  227. True or false:  in the sliding filament theory the thick and thin filaments remain the same length.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  228. According to the sliding filament theory, in a sarcomere the___________  and the_________ disappear.



    B.
  229. Which of the following obeys the “all-or-none” law?


    B.
  230. What is an obvious sign that a person has accrued an oxygen debt?


    A.
  231. The latent period of a muscle fiber contraction is:



    D.
  232. A sustained muscle contraction with no relaxation is called:



    A.
  233. A single muscle contraction lasting a fraction of a second is a:



    B.
  234. A motor unit is:



    D.
  235. What is formed when an axon terminal comes into close proximity to the sarcolemma?



    D.
  236. The synaptic cleft is a small gap that separates the dendrites from the sarcolemma.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    b
  237. Muscles acquire new APT in three ways. Which one of the following is an incorrect:




    A.
  238. The more stimulation a muscles receives, the more the motor units are activated. This is called:



    C.
  239. When muscles are not used, they shrink which is called:



    A.
  240. Which type of muscle fibers would be utilized for moderate activity(walking, jogging, bike riding)?



    D.
  241. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fast-twitch fibers?



    A.
  242. Which part of a muscle is on the stationary bone?


    A.
  243. The muscle that does most of the work for a particular movement is called the:


    A.
  244. Slow-twitch fibers are dark in color because they contain a pigment called:



    A.
  245. Which type of muscle fibers is multinucleated?


    C.
  246. Contraction of cardiac muscle does not require outside nervous stimulation.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  247. About cardiac muscle, which statement is true?



    C.
  248. The term used for the cytoplasm in a muscle fiber is:



    A.
  249. The term used for the endoplasmic reticulum in a muscle fiber is:



    A.
  250. In our bodies, some muscle fibers are always contracting which helps the body to maintain posture. This is called:



    A.
  251. The nervous system works with the_____________ system to coordinate and regulate the functioning of other systems.



    B.
  252. What does the connective tissue called “perimysium” cover in a muscle?



    C.
  253. What does the connective tissue called “epimysium” cover in a muscle?



    B.
  254. Oxygen debt occurs when muscles use fermentation to supply ATP.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  255. A whole muscle does NOT obey the “All-or-none-law”.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  256. how many teeth are produced in a human's life?



    D.
  257. the pancreas and liver are referred to as accessory organs because:



    B.
  258. appendicitis and diverticulosis are associatede with the:



    A.
  259. Which is the first portion of the small intestine?



    A.
  260. What mechanical process moves the bolus through the esophagus?



    B.
  261. The wisdom teeth are also the:



    A.
  262. the function of the uvula is to prevent food from entering the:



    B.
  263. The material that leaves the mouth and enters the pharynx is called:



    D.
  264. the pharynx transports food into the



    C.
  265. which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?



    D.
  266. food is digested so that:



    C.
  267. which of the following substances is not normally found in urine?



    D.
  268. The functional unit of the kidney is the :



    C.
  269. a urinary tract infection that involves the urinary bladder is called:



    B.
  270. urea is a by-product of the metabolism of:



    B.
  271. where are the kidneys located?



    A.
  272. which of the following carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder



    B.
  273. the average adult body is about ___ water weight.



    B.
  274. which of the following is a function of the urinary system?



    D.
  275. which of the following is not a homeostatic function of the kidney?



    B.
  276. which of the following is an excretory waste?



    B.
  277. what female external gential is homologous to the male's penis?



    C.
  278. which of the following is not a function of the male reproductive system?



    D.
  279. which of the following is not a function of the female reproductive system?



    A.
  280. how many cell divisions occur in meiosis?




    E.
  281. the lining of the vagina is called the endometrium.
    a. true
    b. false
    b
  282. a fertilized egg is first called a ___.



    D.
  283. the testes



    C.
  284. where does fertilization of an egg usually occur?



    B.
  285. a mature follicle is called a



    C.
  286. once a follicle releases an egg, it becomes a



    D.
  287. development of the fetus occurs in the



    A.
  288. which of the following is not a section of the uterus?



    D.
  289. what type of cell is found in the seminiferous tubules?



    D.
  290. the ___ stores sperm and allows them to mature.



    B.
  291. the vas derferens joins a duct from the seminal vesicles to form the



    B.
  292. the ejaculatory ducts join the ___ in the prostate gland.



    B.
  293. the primary sex organs of a male are the:



    A.
  294. why do the testes descend into the scrotum?



    B.
  295. in human meiosis the chromosome number is reduced from:



    D.
  296. what male structures secrete a mucus-like fluid that lubricates the end of the penis?



    D.
  297. the seminiferous tubules




    D.
  298. what are the functions of the interstitial cells of the testes?


    B.
  299. the most important androgen is:



    B.
  300. which male gland is located behind the urinary bladder and secretes an alkaline fluid with fructose and prostaglandins?


    B.
  301. what type of cell acts to support, nourish, and regulate the development of sperm?


    C.
  302. name the structures that sweep over the overies at the time of ovulation to help propel the egg towards the uterus.



    B.
  303. the external genitals of the female are collectively called the ___.


    A.
  304. which of the following is not part of a mature sperm?



    B.
  305. which male gland encircles the urethra and secretes a fluid that enhances sperm motility?


    B.
  306. what activities are included in the process of respiration?



    D.
  307. what is the primary function of the respiratory system?


    B.
  308. what is the external respiration?



    A.
  309. what is internal respiration?



    B.
  310. which of the following is the correct sequence when tracing the path of air from nose to lungs?


    C.
  311. as air moves through the respiratory tract, it is



    D.
  312. what is the purpose of the mucociliary escalator mechanism?


    A.
  313. which portion of the respiratory tract is also a passageway for food?



    C.
  314. which of the following is not a division of the pharynx?



    C.
  315. what is the first lymphatic tissue inspired air encounters?



    B.
  316. the common name for the larynx is the


    C.
  317. the epiglottis



    C.
  318. the windpipe is known as the


    A.
  319. what portion of the bronchial tree supplies each lobe of the lung?



    A.
  320. which serous membrane lines the thoracic cavity?


    C.
  321. the visceral pleura


    C.
  322. the ___ are air sacs where gas exchange occurs.


    C.
  323. an alveolar sac is made of


    C.
  324. the diaphragm contracts during ___ and relaxes during ___.
    a. expiration, inspiration
    b. inspiration, expiration
    b
  325. an instrument that is used to measure lung volume is a


    B.
  326. the primary respiratory control center is located in the


    A.
  327. a secondary respiratory center is found in the ___ that helps ventilation to become smooth and rhythmic.


    B.
  328. external respiration is a gas exchange through the respiratory membrane between the


    B.
  329. internal respiration is the exchange of gases between the


    B.
  330. in internal respiration, oxygen is diffusing from the


    C.
  331. oxygen is carried by the blood


    A.
  332. once hemoglobin has joined with oxygen, it is bright red and called


    A.
  333. most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported


    A.
  334. a primary oocyte has 70 pairs of chromosomes before meiosis I.  how many chromosomes will this cell have at the end of meiosis II?


    C.
  335. a primary spermatocyte will produce ___ spermatozoa at the end of meiosis II.




    A.
Author
makeartnotwar89
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Card Set
BIO 115 FALL 2012 FINAL EXAM
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BIO 115 FALL 2012 FINAL EXAM
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