Practice Quiz 3

  1. ____ provides more flexibility than basic disks so there is
    virtually no restriction on the number of volumes that can be on one disk.



    B.  Virtual disk architecture
  2. ____ creates a root directory (folder) and a volume label.



    C.  Formatting
  3. A(n) ____ is created from space that is not yet partitioned.



    D.  extended partition
  4. The ____ is the partition that contains the operating system files
    located in the Windows folder.



    A.  boot partition
  5. A ____ consists of two or more partitions that are combined to
    look like one volume with a single drive letter.



    B.  volume set
  6. A ____ is two or more disks that are combined like a volume set, but that are striped for RAID level 0 or RAID level 5.



    A.  stripe set
  7. A ____ is a portion of a disk or an entire disk that is set up as
    a dynamic disk.
    a.  dynamic volume
    b.  basic volume
    c.  simple volume
    d.  primary volume
    c.  simple volume
  8. A ____ is stored on 2 to 32 dynamic disks that are treated as one volume.



    D.  spanned volume
  9. When you partition a disk, leave ____ or more of the disk space free.



    A.  1 MB
  10. A ____ is one that appears as a folder and is accessed through a path like any other folder.



    C.  mounted drive
  11. A ____ is a server folder that is associated with a user’s account and that is a designated workspace for the user to store files.



    C.  home directory
  12. The ____ tool allows you to scan your disk for bad sectors and
    file system errors.



    D.  Disk Check
  13. ____ is the ability of a system to gracefully recover from
    hardware or software failure.



    C.  Fault tolerance
  14. Disk mirroring involves creating a shadow copy of data on a backup disk and is RAID level ____.



    B.  1
  15. A ____ is a grouping of storage devices that forms a subnet.



    A.  Storage Area Network (SAN)
  16. ____ is a subnetwork technology originally developed for
    mainframes but now is used primarily for SANs and enables gigabit high-speed data transfers.



    B.  Fibre Channel
  17. ____ is used to enable management of disk volumes in SANs through one interface at a server.



    B.  Dynamic Disk Service (DDS)
  18. When you install Multipath I/O, you also install the ____.



    A.  Device Specific Module (DSM)
  19. To use the Windows Server Backup tool that comes with Windows Server 2008, you need to install it using ____.



    D.  Server Manager
  20. You can install wbadmin.exe in Server Core using the command: ____.



    A.  Ocsetup WindowsServerBackup
  21. A(n) ____ is in a dotted decimal format that contains four fields
    of decimal values representing 8-bit binary octets.



    A.  IPv4 address
  22. ____ is a measurement specification of the transmission quality,
    throughput, and reliability of a network system.



    D.  Quality of Service
  23. A(n) ____ packet (unique to IPv6) contains a destination address that is associated with multiple interfaces, usually on different nodes.



    B.  anycast
  24. A(n) ____ packet has a destination address that is associated with multiple interfaces and is directed to each of the interfaces with that address group.



    A.  multicast
  25. The ____ zone holds the pointer (PTR) resource record, which contains the IP-address-to-host name.



    C.  reverse lookup
  26. The ____ enables information in a name server to be automatically updated in coordination with DHCP.



    A.  DNS dynamic update protocol
  27. A ____ is the DNS server that is the main administrative server
    for a zone.



    B.  primary DNS server
  28. A primary DNS server is the ____ server for a zone.



    C.  authoritative
  29. A ____ contains a copy of the primary DNS server’s zone database, but is not used for administration (is not authoritative).



    C.  secondary DNS server
  30. DNS forwarding can be set up so that if the DNS server that
    receives the forwarded request cannot resolve the name, then the server that originally forwarded the request attempts to resolve it, which is called ____.



    B.  nonexclusive forwarding
  31. When DNS forwarding is set so that only the DNS server receiving the request attempts resolution (and not the server that forwarded the request), this is called ____.



    B. exclusive forwarding
  32. When a DNS server receives a query for a domain it does not
    recognize, it can use a ____ to find that domain on the Internet.



    D.  root hint
  33. In ____, resource records are created for two or more servers that have different IP addresses but are associated with the same host name.



    D.  DNS round robin
  34. ____ means that a DNS server that has a large number of entries in its zones can load those entries as a background process.



    C.  Background zone loading
  35. Being able to make ____ means that the DNS server can provide a complete answer to a query or an error message when it cannot.



    C.  recursive queries
  36. If you have multiple servers used for one application, such as for Web access or accounting software, use ____ to distribute the load.



    C.  DNS round robin
  37. The ____ registers the IP addresses and names of its client
    computers by writing them to the WINS database.



    C.  WINS server
  38. The ____ stores the IP addresses, names, and mapping information for name-to-IP address lookups.



    A.  WINS database
  39. A Windows Server 2008 server can be configured in the role of a DHCP server using Microsoft ____ services.



    D.  DHCP
  40. As you plan server implementation, consider placing DNS and DHCP services on ____ servers to reduce hardware, energy, and support costs.



    D.  virtual
  41. A ____ is really a physical folder or a redirection to a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) that points to a folder, so that it can be accessed over the Internet, an intranet, or VPN.



    C.  virtual directory
  42. A ____ is a special addressing format used to find, for example, particular Web locations or FTP sites.



    B.  URL
  43. The virtual directory share permission ____ enables groups and
    users to read, execute, and add files, but can only modify and delete files provided by them.



    C.  contributor
  44. ____ enable you to group similar Web applications into groups for management.



    D.  Application pools
  45. A(n) ____ is an ASP.NET process that runs on its own without using the same memory space as IIS.



    A.  worker process
  46. The ____ is created automatically when you install the Web Server role.



    B.  DefaultAppPool
  47. The ____ feature is used to manage Internet e-mail via e-mail
    programs that take advantage of the application programming interface, system.net.mail.



    D.  SMTP E-mail Page
  48. The ____ Web site feature is used to configure the dll files, code files, and other files used to fulfill client requests.



    D.  handler mappings
  49. Windows Server 2008 offers the Active Directory ____ Services role as a way to implement a network infrastructure built on trust.



    A.  Certificate
  50. A ____ is linking a public key or a combination of public and
    private keys to a user or network entity to verify that user or entity is trusted.



    D.  public key infrastructure
  51. A ____ is a network entity or host, typically a server that issues digital certificates of trust verifying the legitimacy of the certificate holders.



    A.  certificate authority
  52. ____ is an encryption method that uses a public key and private key combination.



    D.  Public key
  53. Lists of certificates that have been revoked are known as ____.



    A.  CRLs
  54. A(n) ____ CA does not have to be integrated with Active Directory and so does not have to use user and security group information derived from Active Directory.



    D.  standalone root
  55. A(n) ____ CA uses the same hierarchical subordinate structure as for an enterprise subordinate, but does not require integration with Active Directory.



    B.  standalone subordinate
  56. PKI activity can be set up so that no action needs to be taken by users and very little action by CA administrators by using ____.



    D.  autoenrollment
  57. ____ means that when a user logs into the network, the digital certificate information stored on the user’s computer is automatically synchronized with the digital certification information for that user stored in Active Directory.



    D.  Credential roaming
  58. Credential roaming is configured as a ____, which enables it to be automatically applied to client computers running Windows operating systems such as Windows Vista and 7.



    C.  group policy
  59. Through ____, network device administrators are given enrollment passwords.



    B.  Network Device Enrollment Service
  60. CRLs are issued at regular intervals as determined by the ____.



    B.  CRL issuer
Author
rcpantoni
ID
186190
Card Set
Practice Quiz 3
Description
Practice Quiz 3
Updated