NASM Pre-test

  1. A client who exhibits the movement compensation of excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment should foam roll all of the following muscles EXCEPT:
    a. vastus lateralis
    b. lateral gastrocnemius
    c. Soleus 
    d. tensor fascia latae
    a. vastus lateralis
  2. A Lunge to Two-Arm Dumbbell Press is considered what type of exercise?
    a. Total Body-Strength 
    b. Functional-Strength 
    c. Leg-Strength 
    d. Shoulder-Strength
    a. Total Body-Strength 
  3. All of the following items are potential responses in the system when a stressor is too much to handle EXCEPT:
    a. Stress fracture 
    b. Muscle strain 
    c. Emotional fatigue
    d. Muscle spasm
    d. Muscle spasm 
  4. All of the following pieces of information are considered objective information gathered when performing an integrated client assessment EXCEPT:
    a. physiologic assessments
    b. performance assessments
    c. medical history
    d. static postural assessment
    c. medical history
  5. Alterations in length-tension relationships, force-couple relationships, and arthrokinematics can decrease which of the following?
    a. Neuromuscular control 
    b. Cumulative injury 
    a. Neuromuscular control 
  6. Although excess intake of most micronutrients can cause adverse effects, which of the following groups of nutrients when taken in excess can cause serious adverse effects including; birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves?
    a. A, D, and B-6
    b. C, E, and Selenium 
    c. A, C, and water 
    d. A, C, and B-6 
    a. A, D, and B-6
  7. Amino acids that are manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen and fragments of carbohydrate and fat are termed what?
    a. Essential 
    b. Non-essential 
    b. Non-essential 
  8. An example of an objective assessment would include which of the following?
    a. General and medical history 
    b. Heart rate 
    c. Dietary intake 
    d. PAR-Q 
    b. Heart rate 
  9. Ankle sprains have been shown to decrease neural control to which of the following muscles?
    a. Gluteus medius 
    b. Tensor fascia latae 
    c. Lateral gastrocnemius 
    d. Anterior tibialis 
    a. Gluteus medius 
  10. Balance is what type of process?
    a. Static 
    b. Static and Dynamic 
    c. Active 
    b. Static and Dynamic 
  11. Clients who have progressed to the Strength Level of the Optimum Performance Training Model would be ready to begin training in which new heart rate zone?
    a. Zone 1 
    b. Zone 2 
    c. Zone 3 
    d. Zone 4 
    b. Zone 2 
  12. Performing exercises in the scapular plane of motion is a preferred motion as it decreases the risk of rotator cuff impingement. This can be accomplished in which of the following shoulder exercises?
    a. Shoulder Press on Stability Ball 
    b. Dumbbell Scaption 
    c. Resisted External Rotation 
    d. Resisted Internal Rotation 
    b. Dumbbell Scaption 
  13. Prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle, resulting in:
    a. reciprocal inhibition. 
    b. excitation inhibition. 
    c. facilitation inhibition. 
    d. autogenic inhibition. 
    d. autogenic inhibition. 
  14. The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle is known as:
    a. intramuscular coordination
    b. intermuscular coordination
    c. sensorimotor integration
    d. neuromuscular efficiency
    a. intramuscular coordination
  15. If a client demonstrates the movement compensation of feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak (underactive)?
    a. Psoas 
    b. Lateral gastrocnemiu
    c. Soleus 
    d. Medial gastrocnemius 
    d. Medial gastrocnemius 
  16. If a client's low back arches while pressing overhead, it could be indicative of which of the following?
    a. Overactive intrinsic core stabilizers 
    b. Overactive latissimus dorsi 
    c. Underactive hip flexors 
    d. Overactive biceps femoris 
    b. Overactive latissimus dorsi 
  17. If carbohydrate or total energy intake is too low, the body has the ability to provide energy by using:
    a. glucose
    b. vitamins 
    c. amino acids
    d. caffeine
    c. amino acids



  18. Lifestyle questions that the Health and Fitness Professional should ask a client in the initial assessment includes which of the following?
    a. Past injuries 
    b. Medical history 
    c. Occupation 
    d. Recreational activities 
    d. Recreational activities 
  19. Over time, poor posture and repetitive movements can begin to create dysfunctions in connective tissue, such as ligaments and tendons, resulting in the initiation of the:
    a. cumulative injury cycle. 
    b. restoration of extensibility. 
    c. improper movement patterns. 
    d. exhaustion stage. 
    a. cumulative injury cycle. 
  20. What is the recommended rest interval between pairs when training in the Power Level of the Optimum Performance Training Model?
    a. 0 - 90 seconds 
    b. 1 - 2 minutes 
    c. 2 - 3 minutes 
    d. 3 - 5 minutes 
    b. 1 - 2 minutes 
  21. What is the recommended rest intervals for a client performing resistance training exercises in the Hypertrophy Phase of training (Phase 3) of the Optimum Performance Training Model?
    a. 0 - 60 seconds 
    b. 1 - 2 minutes 
    c. 2 - 3 minutes 
    d. 3 - 4 minutes 
    a. 0 - 60 seconds 
  22. What motion is the rectus abdominus responsible for?
    a. Concentrically accelerating spinal extension 
    b. Eccentrically decelerating spinal flexion 
    c. Eccentrically decelerating ipsilateral rotation only 
    d. Concentrically accelerating spinal flexion 
    d. Concentrically accelerating spinal flexion 
  23. What muscles are most likely to be overactive (tight) if a client's head protrudes forward during a pushing/pulling assessment?
    a. Deep cervical flexors 
    b. Levator scapulae 
    c. Teres minor 
    d. Teres major 
    b. Levator scapulae 
  24. What type of exercise would a Single-Leg Balance Reach be considered?
    a. Balance-Strength 
    b. Balance-Stabilization 
    c. Core-Stabilization 
    d. Functional-Balance 
    b. Balance-Stabilization 
  25. When a client exhibits the movement compensation of the feet turning out on the overhead squat assessment, all of the following will be probable underactive muscles EXCEPT:
    a. medial gastrocnemius. 
    b. gracilis. 
    c. sartorius. 
    d. adductor complex. 
    d. adductor complex. 
  26. Which of the following heart rate training zones increases endurance and trains the anaerobic threshold?
    a. Zone 1 
    b. Zone 2 
    c. Zone 3 
    d. Zone 4 
    b. Zone 2 
  27. Which section of the heart gathers re-oxygenated blood coming from the lungs?
    a. Right Atrium 
    b. Left Atrium 
    c. Left Ventricle 
    d. Right Ventricle 
    b. Left Atrium 
  28. Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body?Choose one answer.
    a. Left Atrium 
    b. Right Ventricle
    c. Left Ventricle 
    d. Right Atrium 
    d. Right Atrium 
  29. The idea that there is a certain/optimum length at which a muscle can produce the greatest amount of force is termed what?
    a. Force-Velocity curve 
    b. Force-Couple relationship 
    c. Muscular leverage 
    d. Length-Tension relationship 
    d. Length-Tension relationship 
  30. The single most functional unit of the nervous system is a neuron. What are its three major components?
    a. Axon, mechanoreceptors, and dendrites 
    b. Actin, myosin, and sarcomere 
    c. Cell body, axon, and dendrites 
    d. Lysosomes, mitochondria, and golgi complex 
    c. Cell body, axon, and dendrites 
  31. Which of the following energy source(s) are used while training in the first Phase of the OPT Model, Stabilization Endurance Training?
    a. Glycolysis 
    b. ATP-CP and Glycolysis 
    c. Oxidative 
    d. Oxidative and Glycolyisis
    d. Oxidative and Glycolyisis 
  32. Which kinds of fatty acids is considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer
    • Monounsaturated fatty acid
    • Polyunsaturated fatty acid
  33. The _______  _________ of a food is the rise in metabolic rate that occurs after the food is ingested
    Thermic effect
  34. Recommended protein intake for athletes and exercisers is:
    15-30% of total caloric intake
  35. The recommended carbohydrate intake for adults is ________of total caloric intake, according to preference, performance, and satiety.
    50-70%
Author
readyreg29
ID
185243
Card Set
NASM Pre-test
Description
NASM Pre-test
Updated