2ax7x_vol_2.txt

  1. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?



    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
  2. The block trainingmethod is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?



    B. Maintenance Orientation
  3. How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
    a. Annually.
    b. Semi-annually.
    c. Quarterly.
    d. Monthly.
  4. In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of



    A. master sergeant (MSgt)
  5. Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    a. access to Distance Learning courseware.
    b. access to special certification roster criteria listings.
    c. visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
    d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
  6. In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
    a. Open suspenses.
    b. System upgrades.
    c. Application problems.
    d. Changes to your user roles.
  7. What training phase has these four sub-phases:multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?



    D. II
  8. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?



    C. Maintenance qualification
  9. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?



    D. Monthly
  10. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?



    C. 30
  11. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?



    B. Unit training manager
  12. Manpower authorizations are



    A. funded
  13. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held



    C. monthly
  14. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
    a. 12 hours.
    b. 13 hours.
    c. 14 hours.
    d. 15 hours.
  15. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
    a. 14 hours.
    b. 15 hours.
    c. 16 hours.
    d. 18 hours.
  16. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
    a. Maintenance supply liaison.
    b. Maintenance supply support.
    c. Maintenance operations center.
    d. Maintenance data system analysis.
  17. Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
    a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS).
    b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
    c. Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).
    d. Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).
  18. Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
    a. Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
    b. Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
    c. Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
    d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
  19. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?



    D. 30
  20. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?



    B. XB3
  21. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
    a. 30.
    b. 60.
    c. 90.
    d. 120.
  22. Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?
    a. I
    b. II
    c. III
    d. VI
    II
  23. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
    a. MXG Commander.
    b. MXG Superintendent.
    c. MXG Deputy Commander.
    d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
  24. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
    a. Audio Visual Center.
    b. Engineering Data Service Center.
    c. AF Primary Standards Laboratory.
    d. Communication and Information System.
  25. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
    a. Oil sheen on standing water.
    b. Stressed vegetation.
    c. Stains on ground.
    d. Cloudy water.
    Cloudy water
  26. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communivation (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?



    A. Section supervisor
  27. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
    a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
    b. DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.
    c. DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.
    d. DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
  28. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?



    B. Squadron Commander
  29. An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?



    A. IIB
  30. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
    a. AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.
    b. AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.
    c. DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
    d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
  31. Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
    a. Flight Service Center (FSC).
    b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
    c. Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
    d. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
  32. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
    a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.
    b. Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander.
    c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
    d. Maintenance Group (MXG) commander.
  33. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?



    A. A
  34. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?



    A. D04, Daily Document Register
  35. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?



    C. D18, Priority Monitor Report
  36. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?



    A. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report
  37. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
    a. Aircraft commander.
    b. Host installation commander.
    c. Operations Group Commander.
    d. Mission Support Group commander.
  38. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
    a. hour.
    b. 2 hours.
    c. 3 hours.
    d. 4 hours.
  39. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?



    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron(LRS) Chief Inspector
  40. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a partsrequest?
    a. Customer.
    b. Maintenance Supply support.
    c. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
    d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.
  41. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?



    B. AR or BR
  42. Before a supply point cant be establishd and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?



    C. LRS material management element
  43. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?
    a. Annually.
    b. Semiannually.
    c. Quarterly.
    d. Monthly.
  44. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the



    C. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
  45. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
    a. Deficiency Report (DR).
    b. Supply Discrepancy Report.
    c. Maintenance cross-tell report.
    d. Product Quality Deficiency Report.
    Supply Discrepancy Report
  46. Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency report program managemet for the submitting organization or group?
    a. Originator.
    b. Action Point.
    c. Screening Point.
    d. Originating Point.
    Originating Point
  47. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
    a. Originator.
    b. Action Point.
    c. Screening Point.
    d. Originating Point.
    Action Point
  48. Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within
    a. 8 hours.
    b. 16 hours.
    c. 24 hours.
    d. 32 hours.
  49. Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?



    B. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
  50. What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
    a. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
    b. Maintenance Operations Center.
    c. Maintenance Management Analysis.
    d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
  51. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?



    C. Quality Assurance
  52. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
    a. Urgent.
    b. Routine.
    c. Standard.
    d. Emergency.
    Standard
  53. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
    a. A4MT.
    b. A4YE.
    c. A4U.
    d. A4BM.
  54. Who designates cannibalization authorities?
    a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
    b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.
    c. MXG Vice Commander.
    d. MXG Superintendent.
  55. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
    a. Weapons loading operations.
    b. Radiographic inspections.
    c. Fuel system repair.
    d. Aircraft on jacks.
  56. Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
    a. air aborts.
    b. late takeoffs.
    c. ground aborts.
    d. aircraft status changes.
  57. Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
    a. Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.
    b. MXG Impoundment Release Authority.
    c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.
    d. Applicable Squadron commander.
  58. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?



    C. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)
  59. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aeerospce maintenance industrial areas?



    C. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
  60. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?



    B. 9
  61. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
    a. Maintenance Flight.
    b. Quality Assurance section.
    c. Engine Management section.
    d. Maintenance Operations Center.
  62. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
    a. 8.
    b. 12.
    c. 24.
    d. 48.
  63. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?



    C. Explosive munitions.
  64. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
    a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.
    b. AFI 10–2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.
    c. AFI 91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.
    d. AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.
  65. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
    a. AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.
    b. AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
    c. AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.
    d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
  66. Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?



    C. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer in Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)
  67. When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
    a. 30.
    b. 60.
    c. 90.
    d. 120.
  68. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?



    C. Personnel Evaluation.
  69. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    a. Special Inspection.
    b. Personnel Evaluation.
    c. Management Inspection.
    d. Quality Verification Inspection.
  70. In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
    a. Air Force Mobility Command.
    b. Quality Assurance.
    c. Inspector General.
    d. Lead command.
Author
Anonymous
ID
183469
Card Set
2ax7x_vol_2.txt
Description
vol 2 ure
Updated