1114 Test 5

  1. Glycopyrrolate (Robinul) is classified as a/an:



    A.
  2. Chloral hydrate (Noctec) is classified as a/an:



    A.
  3. Promethazine hydrochloride (Phenergan) is classified as a/an:



    C.
  4. Pentobarbital sodium (Nembutal Sodium) is classified as a/an:



    C.
  5. Diazepam (Valium) is classified as a/an:



    C.
  6. Atropine sulfate is classified as a/an:



    C.
  7. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol HCl) is classified as a/an:



    C.
  8. Secobarbital sodium (Seconal sodium) is classified as a/an:



    D.
  9. Morphine sulfate (MS Contin, Duramorph) is classified as a/an:



    C.
  10. Which postoperative problems are obese surgical patients more likely to have?



    C.
  11. Electrolyte imbalances may predispose the surgical patient to:



    A.
  12. If the patient is a minor, who signs the surgical consent form?



    C.
  13. Shaving the skin in preparation for surgery is often delayed until shortly before surgery in order to:



    C.
  14. The use of local anesthetics that block the conduction of nerve impulses in a specific area is called:



    D.
  15. The injection of an anesthetic agent into and under the skin around the area of treatment is called:



    A.
  16. One complication of spinal anesthesia is:



    B.
  17. Post-spinal headache can be relieved by:



    A.
  18. A "blood patch" may help treat:



    C.
  19. Which of the following adverse effects of anesthetic agents may be reduced by giving pre-anesthetic medications?



    B.
  20. When peristalsis is slow and there is increased gas buildup, what is the result?



    D.
  21. "Gas pains" typically occur:



    C.
  22. An outcome criterion related to absence of thrombophlebitis is:



    C.
  23. What is used to monitor the oxygenation of the blood?



    A.
  24. When regional block anesthesia is used during surgery, the nurse must remember that after surgery:



    C.
  25. Once the immediate postoperative phase has passed, which risks lessen?



    D.
  26. Clean sutured incisions heal by:



    B.
  27. A soft tube that permits passive movement of fluids from the wound is called a(n):



    C.
  28. Which sudden change in condition may precede wound dehiscence?



    D.
  29. If evisceration occurs, the usual practice is to cover the wound with:



    D.
  30. Signs and symptoms of wound infection usually do not develop until:



    D.
  31. A postoperative patient complains of pain, fever, swelling, and purulent drainage. These signs and symptoms are indications of:



    B.
  32. Pulmonary emboli usually originate from thrombi that develop in veins of the:



    B.
  33. Emboli may be treated with:



    C.
  34. Catheterization is usually done postoperatively if the patient does not void in:



    D.
  35. When a patient passes small amounts of urine frequently without feeling relief of fullness, this indicates:



    B.
  36. Some agencies have policies that limit the amount of urine that can be drained from a full bladder at one time; these limits are usually:



    A.
  37. When do most patients pass flatus?



    B.
  38. Which surgical drain works be creating negative pressure when the receptacle is compressed?



    B.
  39. Which drug supplements the effects of local anesthetics?



    C.
  40. A patient states that his wound feels as if it is "pulling apart." This is an indication of:



    D.
  41. Which of the following postoperative drugs causes urinary retention?



    D.
  42. The use of IV drugs to reduce pain intensity or awareness without loss of reflexes is called:



    D.
  43. Which is a commonly used IV drug for conscious sedation?



    A.
  44. Enfulrane (Ethrane) and nitrous oxide are administered by:



    B.
  45. The surgical patient who is malnourished is at risk for:



    B.
  46. The patient develops rupture of the suture line and states: "My incision is breaking open." Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications in this patient?



    C.
  47. After the first 24 hours following surgery, which finding should be reported to the physician if it is observed?



    C.
  48. Which finding in a postoperative patient should be reported to the physician?



    D.
  49. A week after surgery, the patient develops pain, fever, swelling, and purulent drainage around the wound site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications?



    A.
  50. What is the priority nursing diagnosis during the immediate postoperative period?



    A.
  51. An opening created to drain contents of an organ



    D.
  52. A surgically created opening in the kidney to drain urine



    C.
  53. A surgically created opening into the urinary bladder



    D.
  54. A surgical procedure that creates an opening into a body structure



    C.
  55. What is capable of controlling natural impulses; in relation to an ostomy, able to retain feces or urine



    D.
  56. A surgically created opening in the ureter



    C.
  57. A downward placement



    D.
  58. A communication or connection between two organs or parts of organs



    A.
  59. A surgically created opening in the ileum



    A.
  60. A surgically created opening in the colon



    A.
  61. If edema occurs after the first week postoperatively, this most likely indicates:



    C.
  62. What type of medication can be inserted into a colostomy stoma to stimulate evacuation?



    C.
  63. What is the treatment for yeast infections around the ureterostomy stoma?



    A.
  64. If odor is a problem with ureterostomy, the pouch can be soaked for 20-30 minutes in:



    B.
  65. A colostomy is performed by bringing a loop of the intestine through the wall of the:



    C.
  66. Which complication of colostomy involves the narrowing of the abdominal opening around the base of the stoma?



    A.
  67. What is the result of the loss of bicarbonate in ileostomy drainage?



    D.
  68. The nurse notices that the patient's ileal conduit stomas has turned black. The nurse notifies the physician immediately, because it may mean that:



    B.
  69. After bowel resection for the ileal conduit procedure, the nurse should expect:



    B.
  70. The Kock pouch is made with a section of:



    A.
  71. Which foods tend to produce thicker stools?



    B.
  72. Why is a nasogastric tube placed in a patient with bowel obstruction?



    B.
  73. What is a complication of colostomy irrigation?



    C.
  74. A patient with an ileoanal reservoir is prescribed metronidazole (Flagyl), and asks the nurse why this drug is prescribed. The nurse answers that Flagyl is given to treat:



    D.
  75. A patient with a colostomy is experiencing weakness when the colostomy is irrigated. Which manifestation requires the nurse to contact the physician?



    D.
  76. Which of the following is a sign of bowel obstruction?



    D.
  77. Which of the following is a major long-term complication caused by coughing in a patient with a colostomy?



    B.
  78. Which is a complication of ureterostomy?



    B.
  79. Which drug is used to treat a rash around the stoma of a patient with an ureterostomy?



    A.
  80. Which group has the highest rate of colon and rectal cancers that are commonly treated with ostomies?



    D.
  81. Which type of patient with a colostomy should be given a two-piece appliance that allows frequent pouch changes without skin trauma?



    B.
  82. Following ileostomy surgery, the stoma is inspected for bleeding and:



    A.
  83. When does ileostomy drainage occur after surgery?



    A.
  84. Postoperative ileostomy patients may experience electrolyte imbalances due to:



    C.
  85. If the color of the stoma is pale or blue following ileostomy surgery, what should the nurse do?



    C.
  86. What does a small amount of bleeding around the base of a new stoma indicate?



    D.
  87. A postoperative ileostomy patient becomes confused. What is the nursing intervention for this mental status change?



    C.
  88. A nurse notices that the patient's colostomy is not draining properly. What is the appropriate nursing action to take?



    D.
  89. The nurse is taking care of a patient with an ileostomy. The nurse is watching for signs of small bowel obstruction. To reduce the risk of obstruction, what is the appropriate diet for this patient?



    D.
  90. A patient with an ileostomy one week postoperatively has a pulse of 120 bpm, respirations 28/min, temperature of 101⁰ F, and a rigid abdomen. The nurse suspects that this patient has which complication?



    C.
  91. Difficulty swallowing



    A.
  92. Indigestion



    A.
  93. Inflammation of the oral mucosa



    C.
  94. Tooth decay



    A.
  95. What is an inflammation of the esophagus caused by acidic gastric fluids?



    C.
  96. What is a procedure used to assess bowel sounds?



    A.
  97. Hiatal hernia is thought to be caused by weakness in the:



    A.
  98. The opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes is the esophageal:



    D.
  99. What is direct examination of the esophagus with an endoscope?



    C.
  100. The procedure used to detect the presence of air, fluid, or masses in tissues is known as:



    C.
  101. What is a protrusion of the lower esophagus and stomach upward through the diaphragm into the chest?



    B.
  102. What is a surgical procedure that strengthens the lower esophageal sphincter by suturing the fundus of the stomach around the esophagus and anchoring it below the diaphragm?



    B.
  103. A common symptom of malabsorption is the presence of excessive fat in the stool.



    A.
  104. A condition in which the large intestine loses the ability to contract effectively enough to propel the fecal mass toward the rectum.



    B.
  105. The passage of loose, liquid stools which increased frequency.



    B.
  106. Increased pressure in the chest and abdominal cavities caused by straining to have a bowel movement.



    D.
  107. A term used to describe a condition in which one or more nutrients are not digested or absorbed.



    A.
  108. A condition in which a person has hard, dry, infrequent stools that are passed with difficulty.



    D.
  109. The retention of a large mass of stool in the rectum that the patient is unable to pass.



    A.
  110. The repair of the muscle defect in abdominal hernia by suturing.



    B.
  111. A pad placed over the hernia to provide support for weak muscles, for patients who cannot tolerate the stress of surgical hernia repair.



    D.
  112. The bulging portion of the large intestine pushing through the abdominal wall.



    A.
  113. Weak location where hernias occur, in addition to the lower inguinal areas of the abdomen.



    D.
  114. Treats ulcerative colitis and H. pylori.



    D.
  115. Neutralize gastric acid



    A.
  116. Cling to the surface of the ulcer and protect it so that healing can take place



    A.
  117. Treat yeast infections in the mouth



    B.
  118. Decrease hydrochloric acid production by competing at receptor sites



    D.
  119. Prevent and treat nausea



    A.
  120. Decrease intestinal motility so liquid portion of feces is reabsorbed



    A.
  121. Reduce gastrointestinal motility and secretions; block acetylcholine



    C.
  122. Prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy



    C.
  123. Inhibit gastric acid secretion and are used in peptic ulcer disease and GERD



    A.
  124. A break in the wall of the stomach or the duodenum that permits digestive fluids to leak into the peritoneal cavity.



    A.
  125. A common complication of peptic ulcers



    A.
  126. In addition to bloody diarrhea, the other most common symptom of inflammatory bowel disease



    D.
  127. A complication of diverticulitis in which and abnormal opening develops between the colon and the bladder



    C.
  128. The type of acid-base imbalance that results from prolonged vomiting is:



    B.
  129. Normal bowel sounds include:



    C.
  130. Which herb is effective in calming an upset stomach, reducing flatulence, and preventing motion sickness?



    A.
  131. After insertion of a gastric tube, feedings are not started until:



    C.
  132. Severe or prolonged vomiting puts the patients at risk for:



    D.
  133. Sudden, sharp pain starting in the midepigastric region and spreading across the entire abdomen in patients with peptic ulcer may indicate:



    A.
  134. If the patient's abdomen becomes rigid and tender and he or she draws the knees up to the chest, this may indicate:



    D.
  135. The most prominent symptom of pyloric obstruction is persistent:



    D.
  136. A major complication of appendicitis is:



    B.
  137. The classic symptom of appendicitis is pain at:



    C.
  138. When appendicitis is suspected, the patient is allowed:



    B.
  139. In addition to deficient fluid volume, patients with peritonitis may go into shock because of:



    D.
  140. Following abdominoperineal resection, a procedure that cleans, soothes, and increases circulation to the perineum is:



    C.
  141. What is the cause of most peptic ulcers?
    a.       Helicobacter pylori
    b.      E. coli
    c.       Stress
    d.      Infection
    a
  142. Ephedra sinica (Ma Huang) should not be used as an over-the-counter weight loss product by a person with:



    B.
  143. Which natural substance can help control diarrhea?



    C.
  144. Which type of laxative may not be effective for several days?



    C.
  145. The major nutritional goal of therapy for diarrhea is to replace:



    B.
  146. Which is a sign of intestinal rupture in a patient with intestinal obstruction?



    A.
  147. The Roux-en-Y gastric bypass and the vertical-banded gastroplasty are restrictive procedures used to treat:



    D.
  148. What is the most serious complication of gastric endoscopy?



    C.
  149. What is the most serious complication of gastric ulcers?



    B.
  150. Why is the head of the bed elevated during tube feedings to patients?



    A.
  151. A patient has just been admitted to the hospital with appendicitis. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this patient?



    A.
  152. Which patient has the greatest risk for injury related to wound dehiscence?



    C.
  153. Which patient is most likely to experience decreased cardiac output related to hypovolemia secondary to dumping syndrome?



    B.
  154. What is the diet recommended for acute diarrhea?



    C.
  155. A male patient has had an abdominal hernia repair. What is a common complication of this procedure?



    C.
  156. The vomiting patient who is also unconscious or who has impaired swallowing is at risk for aspiration and should be placed in which position?



    D.
  157. To prevent nighttime reflux, the sleeping position for patients with hiatal hernia should be:



    C.
  158. Pain is severe for several postoperative days following abdominoperineal resection. At first, the patient will probably be most comfortable in which  position?



    C.
  159. Which type of diet is prescribed for moderate inflammatory bowel disease?



    C.
  160. Which side effect of opiates (such as morphine) result in opiates not being given to patients with diverticulosis?



    C.
  161. What is a complication that occurs following gastric surgery or when tube feedings of concentrated formula are given rapidly?



    A.
  162. Chronic, progressive liver disease



    D.
  163. Accumulation of exess fluid in the peritoneal cavity



    D.
  164. Removal of ascitic fluid from the peritoneal cavity



    C.
  165. Enlargement of the liver



    C.
  166. Removal of the gallbladder



    C.
  167. Presence of gallstones in the gallbladder



    C.
  168. Obstruction in common bile duct



    B.
  169. Excess fat in stools



    B.
  170. Jaundice



    B.
  171. Enlargement of breast tissue in males



    D.
  172. Patients with liver disease are at increased risk for drug:



    A.
  173. Clay-colored stools are characteristic of:



    D.
  174. Patients with hepatitis may have imapired skin integrity due to:



    D.
  175. Which drugs may be ordered for pruritus in patients with hepatitis?



    D.
  176. Health care workers who work with hospitalized patients whould receive:



    C.
  177. The medical management of ascites aims to promote reabsorption and elimination of the fluid by means of salt restriction and:



    D.
  178. Potential complications of peritoneal-venous shunts used to allow ascitic fluid to drain from the abdomen and return to the blood stream are tubing obstruction and:



    A.
  179. The patient with cirrhosis is at great risk for injury or hemorrhage due to impatied:



    C.
  180. What may happen when there is upward movement of the esophageal balloon in the patient with cirrhosis?



    B.
  181. When the patient's bile duct responds to obstruction from gallstones with spasms in an effort to move the stone, the intense spasmodic pain would be documented as:



    B.
  182. A common symptom of cholecystitis is right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the:



    B.
  183. When the cholecystectomy patient first returns from surgery, the drainage from the T-tube may be bloody, but it should soon become:



    B.
  184. Patients with obstructed bile flow may have a deficiency of vitamin:



    D.
  185. A patient had an endoscopic sphincterotomy and developed pancreatitis as a complication, caused by accidental entry of the endoscope into the pancreatic duct. Early signs of pancreatitis in this patient would be:



    C.
  186. A gland that has both endocrine and exocrine functions is the:



    B.
  187. Vitamin K is needed for the production of:



    D.
  188. Specific blood studies used to asses pancreatic function include serum:



    C.
  189. The most prominent symptom of pancreatitis is:



    A.
  190. Which of the following is recommended for patients witha cute pancreatitis to remove the stimulus for secretion of pancreatic fluid?



    B.
  191. Which drugs do patients with chronic pancreatitis need to take in order to digest food?



    D.
  192. An early sign of shock that may occur in patients with pancreatitis include:



    D.
  193. Which herb can harm the liver?



    A.
  194. The bile channels in the liver are compressed in patients with hepatitis, resulting in elevated:



    C.
  195. Which cultural group has the highest rate of death from cirrhosis of the liver?



    B.
  196. The medical treatment of hepatic encephalopathy is directed toward:



    C.
  197. In patients with hepatitis and/or cirrhosis, most of the calories should come from:



    B.
  198. Which is a common lab finding consistent with hepatitis?



    D.
  199. Which group of drugs is now being used in the treatment of patients with hepatitis (HBV and HBC)?



    D.
  200. Which is a symptom common in cirrhosis that is characterized by tingling or numbness in the extremities thought to be caused by vitamin B deficiencies?



    A.
  201. The nurse should explain to patients with hepatitis that rest is necessary to allow the liver to heal by:



    D.
  202. The nurse should be alert for signs of fluid retention in patients with hepatitis, which include increasing abdominal girth, rising blood pressure, and:



    D.
  203. The patient with hepatitis may be self-conscious about his or her appearance because of:



    C.
  204. The best position for patients with ascites to help them breathe more easily is:



    A.
  205. What type of diet is recommended for aptient with cholecystitis to decrease attacks of biliary colic?



    A.
  206. When patients with pancreatitis are on TPN in order to restrict oral intake and reduce pancreatic fluid secretion, the nurse must monitor for:



    C.
  207. Instrument used to measure joint range of motion



    B.
  208. Within the joint



    A.
  209. Elevated level of uric acid in the blood



    B.
  210. Deposit of sodium urate crystals under the skin



    A.
  211. Protrusions of the distal interphalangeal finger joints; associated with osteoarthritis



    B.
  212. Enlarged proximal interphalangeal joints of the fingers



    C.
  213. Granulations of tissue surrounding cores of fibrous debris



    B.
  214. Plastic repair of a joint



    D.
  215. Inflammation of blood vessels



    C.
  216. Cracking sound or sensation



    B.
  217. Joint immobility



    D.
  218. Important changes in the connective tissue of the body that occur with aging include loss of bone strength and bone:



    A.
  219. Age-related joint changes are related primarily to changes in:



    B.
  220. When assessing patients for joint pain and range of motion, the nurse watches for signs of pain and listens for the cracking sound called:



    A.
  221. Which blood test results would the nurse expect to see increase in patients with RA and decrease in patients with OA?



    D.
  222. Following joint replacement surgery, a continuous passive motion (COM) machine may be used to prevent formation of scar tissue and promote:



    D.
  223. Often the pain in OA can be controlled with:



    B.
  224. Which is a nursing diagnosis that patients with OA often may have related to pain and limited range of motion?



    A.
  225. A patient who has had hip surgery is showing signs of cerebral blood vessel occlusion, headache, confusion, and loss of consciousness. The nurse will monitor this patient for:



    C.
  226. How should the nurse document the manifestation of pressure caused by edema or constrictive dressings following joint replacement surgery that is causing nerve damage?



    C.
  227. Which drugs are administered to patients with joint replacements who are at risk for infection?



    A.
  228. A nursing intervention related to the patients high risk for infection is that the nurse will:



    A.
  229. A measure to control morning pain and stiffness in patients with RA is to:



    A.
  230. An important teaching point for patients taking antigout medications is to:



    D.
  231. Which food should be avoided in patients with acute gout?



    A.
Author
MarieRN
ID
180481
Card Set
1114 Test 5
Description
Chapters 17, 26, 38, 39 & 41
Updated