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1. To avoid vena cava hypotension in pregnant patients, the sonographer should place the patient in the ___ position:
-D: modified Fowler's
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2. What is the difference between a TEE and a TEE cardiac study?
-C: Patient is intubated
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3. QA testing of sonographic equipment tests all of the following items EXCEPT.
-A: transducer frequency
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4. A sonographer's preliminary report should NOT include:
-B: tissue diagnosis
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5. Which of the following conditions is NOT a blood disorder?
-A: mononucleosis
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6. The use of a transvaginal transducer is contraindicated in all o the following EXCEPT:
-E: embryonic demise
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7. The use of dobutamine is indicated in patients with:
-E: All of the above OR musculoskeletal diseases, pulmonary disease, neurologic disorders, peripheral vascular disease
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8. Which of the following procedures are NOT used in interventional biopsy/aspiration techniques?
-C: leading edge
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9. TVS is indicated in obtaining all but one of the following objectives:
-D: to visualize the ovaries in obese patients
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10. Which of the following conditions make it more difficult to obtain satisfactory images of the abdominal and pelvic organs?
-C: barium contrast material
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11. Which of the following laboratory tests is NOT associated with digestive tract?
-D: BUN
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12. Which of the following drugs is used to treat menopausal symptoms?
-C: combined estrogen and progestin
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13. which of the following tasks is NOT associated with QA testing?
-B: cross-beam harmonics
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14. The main lobar fissure is located in the :
-B: gallbladder
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15. The preferred method of documenting the placenta cord insertion site is:
-E: A & C OR color doppler and Power Doppler
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16. The sonographic modalities most often used in echocardiography are:
-E: all of the the above OR doppler flow studies, tissue doppler, m-mode tracing s and 2-D imaging
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17. Which of the following instructions is NOT useful in a third trimester exam to determine cervical length?
-D: select the shortest cervical measurement
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18. During TEE and TTE studies, an index mark should be placed on:
-C: every 2D transducer
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19. Flank pain is most commonly associated with:
-B: renal calculi
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20. During a third trimester follow-up exam, all of the following measurement should be taken EXCEPT:
-A: CVS
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21. Stress echocardiography is performed with the patient in the:
-B: left lateral decubitus position
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22. For the patients with severe abdominal acites, the treatment may be:
-C: paracentesis
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23. Contract echocardiography is employed to evaluate:
-A: mitral regurgitation
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24. The brief physical examination of some echocardiography patients should include:
-A: blood pressure reading from both arms
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1. A patient in a persistent vegetative state is really in a coma:
-False: all higher brain function is lost
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2. A patient in a minimally conscious state has no higher brain function.
-False: a patient in a minimally conscious state has severely altered consciousness that is minimal but definite.
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3. Patients in a persistent vegetative state and those in a minimally conscious state should be treated the same:
-False: prognosis and treatment choices may be different.
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4. A DNI (do no intubate) order is different from a DNA (do not resuscitate) order:
-True: when a patient is having trouble breathing but is not in cardiac or respiratory arrest, intubating the patient may avert a cardiac or respiratory arrest. The DNA order states that the patient does not want this to happen.
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5. Imaging professionals do not need to concern themselves with DNR or DNI orders because they will never be involved:
-False: situations commonly arise in which the imaging professional finds a patient in distress and may not be able to find a nurse in time to decide whether or not to call a code. In this situation the imaging professional should know, or know how to find, the information regarding the patient's resuscitation and intubation wishes.
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1. Quality-of-life issues for imaging patients do not involve:
-D: rights of the imaging professional
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2. A patient is motivated to enter the health care environment when:
-C: the patient's capabilities and potentialities are affected.
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3. What attribute of life may be judged by the decisions a person makes regarding actions and responses to others and the environment?
-B: the goodness of life
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4. A person who may seem to be awake but has no awareness of self or the environment because the brainstem continues to function is a(n):
-A: persistent vegetative state
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5. The act of knowingly ending one's own life is:
-D: a & c OR passive suicide and active suicide
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6. Proponents of patient-chosen euthanasia consider it an act of:
-A: self-determination.
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7. Only after going through what phases would a patient be considered ready to make the decision regarding he commission of euthanasia of himself or herself?
-B: stages of death
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8. Active euthanasia currently is generally performed by:
-D: a family member
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9. Factors influencing quality of life may include:
-D: all of the above or capability of performing normal biologic functions, stability of intellect and creativity, emotional contact with others.
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10. Problem solving for quality-of-life issues can be aided by the use of these points:
-C: A & D OR what is normal for the patient and what deficits the patient may experience
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11. Judicial decisions in any jurisdiction:
-D: all of the above: are binding in that jurisdiction, maybe be considered by courts in that jurisdiction, are not binding in other jurisdictions
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12. Liability with regard to cardiopulmonary resuscitation can exist if:
-B: the patient's wishes are not followed.
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13. Durable power of attorney for health care decisions:
-C: appoints a particular decision maker for health care decisions
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14. Living wills:
-A generally apply only in cases of terminal illness
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15. Durable powers of attorney for health care decisions:
-D: all of the above—do not require patients to anticipate what treatments will be required in the event of incapacitation, appoint a particular decision maker instead of a particular decision, can require the decision maker to consult with others before making any decisions
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1. Lack of eye contact is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
-B: self-actualization
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2. Sonographer reports should contain all of the following EXCEPT:
-D: tissue diagnoses
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3. Patients who are hearing impaired may:
-E: avoid social situations,, control conversations, become suspicious, interrupt others while speaking
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4. Which basic human need is the most essential?
-A: physical
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5. To effectively communicate, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
-C: use terms that have more than one meaning
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6. When patients have a speech problem, you should:
-B: ask the sonographer to repeat or rephrase
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7. Which of the following descriptions of body language is (are) incorrect?
-C: maintaining silence
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8. Which statement will encourage communication?
-B: Why are you crying?
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9. To communicate with a depressed patient, you should:
-B: remain silent when the patient is quiet.
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10. To facilitate communication, it may be helpful to employ (a):
-C: communication triad
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11. The highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs pyramid is called:
-C: self-actualization
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12. What is the proper way to communicate with non-English speaking patients?
-E: a & b OR through an interpreter and through an English-speaking family member
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13. Which of the following stages of dying describes the realization that there will NOT be enough time to do everything that had been planned?
-B: acceptance
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14. All of the following are examples of non-verbal communication EXCEPT:
-D: inquiring when they last ate solid food
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15. Why is it important to make eye contact with patients when they are describing their pain?
-B: to make the patient feel that what he or she is saying is important
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16. The primary means of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient is through:
-E: writing
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17. It is important to treat geriatric patients as mature adults because it:
-E: a & b OR preserves their self-image and increases their cooperation
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18. What is the proper way for a sonographer to interact with a patient who is in denial about his or her serious health problem?
-B: explain the procedure to avoid patient fear or suspicion
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19. Which of the following patient-sonographer interactions is UNTRUE?
-D: Reassurance and encouragement are extremely helpful to patients suffering from depression
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20. Checking a patient's statements or any patient cues you have observed is called:
-A: clarifying
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21. A communication triad is contraindicated in employer/employee situation if:
-D: A & B OR it would breach confidentiality and employee anxiety level is too high
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22. Which of the following statements about the stage of acceptance is UNTRUE?
-A: it can be a joyful stage
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23. Which of the following statements concerning the non-diagnostic use of ultrasound is INCORRECT?
-C: the Federal Drug Administration is not empowered to confiscate ultrasound equipment
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24. Depending on department policies and procedures, a sonographer's report should be:
-B: limited to measurements and observations on the ultrasonic reflection characteristics of the patient's body
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25. the use of reality orientation is a technique indicated in dealing with:
-C: confused patients
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26. Telling patients they should not feel angry or afraid is an example of:
-D:judgmental response
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27. According to Maslow, the highest of the secondary needs is:
-A:self-actualization
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28. Communicating professionally and effectively with coworkers requires all of the following EXCEPT:
-C: keeping a low profile at departmental meetings
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29. Mrs. Penelope Bailey is your 89-year-old patient, rescheduled for a pelvic ultrasound exam. She appears to be a little confused. To get her to respond appropriately to you, you should address her as:
-B: Mrs. Bailey
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30. You are presented with a stressful situation in which two coworkers are arguing in front of a patient. You decide that the most professional way to handle things is to:
-E: all of the above OR lower you voice and speak to them slowly and clearly, be nonjudgemental both verbally and nonverbal, assure yourself that they understand you by asking a question and requesting an answer, not allow these individuals' anger to goad you into similar behavior.
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1. Choose the statement that is true:
C: Infection results from invasion and growth of microbes in the body
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2. When arteries lose their elasticity and become narrow, the following change can result:
B: Poor Circulation
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3. The Heimlich maneuver requires:
B: the hands be positioned just below the sternum
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4. When a patient has an indwelling catheter, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
C: Drainage bags should be kept above the level of the bladder
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5. The first sign of an airway obstruction is:
E: Person clutches throat
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6. Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?
D: a gait belt is a lifting or transfer device
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7. You notice that the patient's IV is running too fast. You should:
D: inform the charge nurse
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8. Which of the following statements correctly describes systolic blood pressure?
A: The point at which the first sound is heard
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9. The average heart rate for children is:
B: 100-120 bpm
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10. Which of the following statements about urinary catheters or catheterization is UNTRUE?
D: Catheterization is the preferred method of filling the bladder for pelvic ultrasound studies.
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11. When working with patients connected to mechanical suction machines, sonographers should never:
E: All of the above OR raise or open the drainage bottles, disconnect the tubing, pull the NG tube out, give the patient food or water
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12. A blood pressure cuff should be:
B: deflated slowly and steadily
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13. Which of the following statements about oxygen therapy is/are UNTRUE?
C: Portable oxygen cylinders can be placed next to the patient during stretcher transfers.
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14. Performing the Heimlich maneuver on obese patients requires:
C: performing chest thrusts
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15. Sensory changes that occur with age can lead to:
E: all of the above OR inability to respond to the environment, lack of perception of danger signals, eventual confusion, eventual withdrawal
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16. When transferring patients with IVs, sonographers should:
B: never lower the IV bag below the level of the heart
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17. The most convenient site for taking the pulse is the:
D: radial artery
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18. Which of the following statements about respiration is/are UNTRUE?
D: Respiration should be counted for 2 minutes if irregularities are observed
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19. A high-flow oxygen mask that provides the most reliable and consistent oxygen enrichment is the:
B: Venturi Mask
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20. Continuous Chest Compression CPR is an improvement over traditional CPR because:
E:a,b,c OR it is easier to learn, it emphasizes chest compressions, it eliminates the need for mouth-to-mouth breathing
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21. Cleansing of the ultrasound equipment and use of sterile transducer covers and sterile scanning media are required when performing exams on:
A:patients in reverse isolation
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22. Which of the following statements about scanning patients with colostomies or ileostomies is UNTRUE?
A: Sterile technique is used whenever removing or changing dressings or bags
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23. When using barrier devices to perform CPR:
C: the barrier device is placed over the victim's mouth and nose.
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1. The number of households where English is not spoken well is increasing:
-True
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2. English is the official language in the United States:
-False
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3. Although it would be nice to understand linguistic and cultural issues, no mandates require this:
-False
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4. If you feel you have been discriminated against, you just file a lawsuit:
-False
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5. In a quid pro quo sexual harassment suit, only the supervisor doing the harassment is liable:
-False
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1. An inclusive process of appreciating how different individuals with different backgrounds bring unique contributions to an organization is:
-B: diversity
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2. Interactions involving a tendency to judge others according to their match or lack of fit with a standard that is considered ideal or presumed to be “normal” are:
-A: interaction patterns
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3. Including issues of diversity in the curriculum is important for:
-D: all of the above OR students, patients, and instructors.
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4. The more students know about diversity, the easier it will be for them to:
-D: all of the above OR solve problems, think critically, relate to patients
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5. Moving beyond the Western tradition and opening minds to new streams of though is:
-C: multiculturalism
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6. Imagining students would do well to remember that patients are:
-C: unique
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7. Universal values include orientation toward:
-D: all of the above OR nature, time, and activity
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8. Issues in diversity may be divided into:
-A: primary and secondary dimensions
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9. Ethical challenges are affected by:
-D: all of the above OR age, mental ability, and informed consent process.
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10. A foundation for empathy and truly ethical problem solving includes:
-B: understanding patients' values and world views
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11. Disparate treatment employment discrimination occurs:
-B: when an employee is treated differently from other similarly situated employees
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12. Disparate impact employment discrimination occurs when:
-A: an employment policy has a negative impact on a protected group
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13. Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when:
-C: continued or advancement of employment depends on the provision of sexual favors.
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14. Hostile work environment sexual harassment:
-B: occurs when sexually related conduct unreasonably interferes with the employee's work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment.
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15. Imaging professionals must provide care to HIV-positive patients and those with AIDS unless:
-C: providing series presents a direct threat to the health and safety of others that cannot be eliminated by modifications.
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