1. A WARNING is an:
    Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
  2. A CAUTION is an:
    Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
  3. A NOTE is an:
    Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize.
  4. Maximum airspeed if encountering severe turbulence is:
    181 KIAS
  5. Maximum landing gear and landing light extended speeds are:
    168 KIAS, 250 KIAS
  6. What is the maximum airspeed for 50% flaps?
    183 KIAS
  7. Maximum airspeed with inoperative windshield anti-ice protection below 10,000 ft MSL is:
    187 KIAS
  8. Turning with the brakes locked on the inside of the turn is prohibited. While turning the airplane, avoid braking to a stop since damage may result. If use of the above is required during a turn:
    Record it in the appropriate maintenance forms.
  9. The maximum tire speed (knots ground speed) for the nose wheel is :
  10. Which of the following must be operational prior to entering RVSM airspace?
    Both A and B are correct (IFF, including Mode C and Both HUDs)
  11. Static propeller feathering is limited to _______ cycles (feather to reverse and back to feather). Feathering is limited to ________ commands (fire handle pulled or prop control to feather). If this is exceeded the propeller gearbox must be drained before the engine can be started.
    2, 4
  12. If aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees and the crosswind component is greater than 15 knots but less than 35 knots:
    Do not exceed 2,500 HP until airplane speed is greater than 35 knots.
  13. The APU start light should extinguish _________________________.
    At approximately 50% RPM
  14. What is the APU starter duty cycle?
    1 minute on and 4 minutes off
  15. What are the limits for fuel unbalance between wings (excluding AUX tank fuel)?
    1,500 lbs
  16. What are the limits for fuel unbalance between a symmetrical pair of tanks (main or external)?
    1,000 lbs
  17. APU maximum continuous EGT is ________ degrees C.
  18. APU bleed air can be used during flight.
  19. The APU must be on speed and warmed up a minimum of _______ before applying a bleed air load.
    1 minute
  20. If APU EGT exceeds _____ degrees C for longer than _____ seconds, the APU OVERTEMP ACAWS alerts the crew to reduce APU loading.
    710, 3
  21. Do not operate with the autopilot engaged:
    All the above [During ILS coupled approaches below 200 feet (CAT 1), 100 feet (CAT 2) AGL or when flying over the localizer transmitter; At or below 500ft AGL for non-approach operations; In RVSM airspace unless the autopilot, in altitude hold mode, is able to maintain altitude within +/- 65 feet of ATC assigned flight level]
  22. What color denotes an extreme range on engine instrument indications?
  23. What color(s) on engine instrument indicators indicates the Normal Operating Range
    Green or White
  24. During ground operations, limit horsepower to ________ with oil temperature between 0 and 45 degrees C.
    1,000 HP
  25. The engine starter duty cycle is:
    70 seconds on, 60 seconds off, for 5 cycles, then a 20 minute cooling time is required
  26. The minimum batteries voltage allowed for takeoff is ____VDC. Replace battery if voltage is less than ____ VDC.
  27. Operating the aircraft in severe icing conditions or in freezing rain/drizzle is not recommended and should be avoided.
  28. For a circling approach, maintain approach speed until established on final approach.
  29. Engine starter cutout occurs at approximately __________ and the starter light extinguishes. At this point continuous ignition also terminates.
    65% NG
  30. Normal hydraulic operating pressure should be indicated ___________.
    Within 30 seconds after NP is on speed
  31. The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and take-off when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of _________ degrees C or less
  32. Entry and exit through the paratroop doors with engines running is prohibited in which condition:
    Engines in HOTEL mode and flaps extended
  33. Descents below 5000' with the wing and empennage ice protection systems operating require a minimum power setting on 2 engines of _________ horsepower per engine.
  34. The wing/empennage ice protection system should not be operated in ________ mode except during approach and landing.
  35. Before shutdown, the engines are normally shifted to LSGI and operated for ______ before shutdown to more gradually cool engine components and prolong engine life.
    2 minutes
  36. The engines can be safely shutdown from normal ground idle, if required.
  37. For all engine shutdowns in flight, pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP, except for crew actions concerning UTIL SYS PRESS HI and BSTR SYS PRESS HI ACAWS.
  38. For approaches when icing conditions have been encountered within 6 minutes of landing, increase approach and threshold speeds with 100% flaps by ______ knots, approach and threshold speeds with 50% flaps by _______ knots and approach and threshold speeds with 0% flaps by ________knots.
    6, 10, 20
  39. Fuel tank quantity indicators are reliable even in conditions other than level flight.
  40. When performing cross-ship manifold priming, ensure FUEL PRESS indicator reads _________ PSI when the No 1 MAIN transfer switch is placed to FROM and the X SHIP switch is opened. Check FUEL PRESS indicator decreases approximately _________ PSI when the No 4 MAIN transfer switch is placed to TO.
    28 to 40, 20
  41. What temperature would you use cold weather procedures?
    32 degrees F/0 degrees C and below
  42. The recommended fuel management for approach and full stop landings is:
    Tank-to-engine operation
  43. During the power up checklist, if battery voltage is between _____ and _____ VDC, recharge or replace the battery and rerun the battery test.
    22, 24
  44. The APU may be operating during application of de-icing fluid.
  45. Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at destination with less than _________ lbs of fuel.
  46. When the airplane will land with less than _____ pounds of fuel, inform ATC that a FUEL EMERGENCY exists.
  47. The APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message. If this occurs:
    Maintenance is required before a restart may be attempted.
  48. When utilizing cold weather procedures, operate the engine in HOTEL mode until engine oil temperature is above ________ degrees C and rising.
  49. What is the minimum amount of fuel in the No. 2 main tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without setting the No. 2 engine start switch to RUN?
    2,000 lbs
  50. It is permitted to select AUTONAV when only one of the CNI-MUs show the correct present position.
  51. Above what temperature would you use Hot Weather procedures?
    95 degrees F/35 degrees C
  52. After any full anti-skid braking operation at gross weights above __________ lbs, approximate ground cooling time is ___________ minutes.
    130,000, 65
  53. If hot brakes are suspected, the area on both sides of the wheel will be cleared of personnel and equipment for at least _________ ft. If conditions require personnel to be close to any overheated wheel, approach should be from __________.
    300, fore or aft
  54. Peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly from approximately __________ minutes and in the wheel and tire assembly from approximately _________ minutes after a maximum braking operation.
    1 to 5, 20 to 30
  55. When using a ground check point to check VOR/TACAN accuracy, the bearing pointer/CDI error cannot exceed +/- ________ degrees and the TACAN distance must be within __________ NM or ________ percent of the distance to the facility.
    4, 1/2, 3
  56. Do not illuminate the landing lights for more than _______ seconds unless sufficient air flow exists from engine operation or taxi.
  57. Turn off the NESA system if :
    All the above [Electrical arcing is observed in any of the panels; The panels are excessively hot to the touch; Any of the panels containing thermistors are not heating]
  58. Do not commence an engine start if MGT is above _________ degrees C. Motor the engine, if necessary.
  59. Before attempting a ground engine restart, wait _______ seconds after NG reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the NG independent over-speed protection circuit.
  60. During a ground engine start, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, motor the engine for at least _________.
    30 seconds
  61. During a normal ground engine start, if an automatic shutdown occurs:
    Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.
  62. Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining an engine start is _________ PSI. A momentary drop below this is acceptable when the starter valve opens.
  63. Which of the following is not an ACAWS condition requiring the FIRE handle to be pulled and the ENGINE START switch to be placed to STOP during an engine start.
    ENG 1 (2, 3, 4) FLAMEOUT caution
  64. During ground starts, the FADEC automatically shuts down the engine start sequence for:
    Both A and C are correct [Flameout; RPM stagnation]
  65. Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if no NG is present ______ seconds after placing the ENGINE START switch to START.
  66. The ENGINE START switch must be placed to STOP if no indication of engine oil pressure is indicated by ENG 1(2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message.
  67. The fire handle must be pulled if no indication of propeller gearbox oil pressure is indicated by GBOX 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO OIL PRESS (C) ACAWS message.
  68. During ground engine starts, pull the fire handle and place the ENGINE START switch to STOP if MGT rapidly approaches or exceeds________.
    807 degrees C
  69. If torching (visible fire in the tailpipe for more than a few seconds), sparks in the exhaust or excessive smoke occurs during engine start::
    Place the ENGINE START switch to STOP
  70. If OAT is above ___degrees F and the wing/empennage and vertical tail boot ice protection test must be repeated, wait at least ___ minutes to prevent overheating the vertical tail.
    70, 10
  71. If the stick pusher test is attempted ________ consecutive times, allow a minimum of ________ minutes of cooling time before attempting another test.
    5, 5
  72. The last autopilot engaged determines the flight director source.
  73. The propeller overspeed governor test may be attempted with oil temperature greater than or equal to _____ degrees C. If the test fails, retest when oil temperature is greater than or equal to _____ degrees C.
    45, 60
  74. The propeller overspeed governor test may fail up to _______ consecutive time(s) before maintenance action is required.
  75. Turning the ____________ switches on with 3 or more power levers at FLT IDLE or greater can result in the stick pusher automatically turning off.
    Pitot heat
  76. The maximum crosswind component for takeoff is _________ at weights above 105,000 lbs. At lower weights the limit varies linearly down to 23 knots at 80,000 lbs.
  77. Vobs + 25 but not less than _____ KIAS is a conservative speed which approximates FUSS.
  78. Maximum recommended airspeed (Vh) must not be exceeded in greater than ____________ turbulence or structural damage may occur.
  79. If required, wing/empennage anti-icing in anti-ice mode should be turned on at least ________ minutes before lowering the gear to prevent the X-WIND LIMITED ACAWS message being displayed if icing is detected.
  80. The normal flap setting for landing is __________%
  81. At the first indication of directional control difficulties during 4 engine reverse thrust, immediately return all power levers to the ________ position until the affected engine can be identified.
    Ground idle
  82. If one BETA indication does not illuminate after the power levers are brought to ground idle and no other associated ACAWS occurs, there is a remote possibility that directional control difficulties will occur as airspeed slows. If necessary for directional control:
    The engine fire handle for the engine without BETA should be pulled.
  83. During landing, do not bring the power levers below FLT IDLE at speeds between __________ KTAS. This can result in prop overspeed, damage to components, and tripping of AC generators.
  84. During a crosswind landing if continuous BANK ANGLE or SIDE SLIP alerts occur or LEFT or RIGHT RUDDER alert occurs, crosswinds may be too high to land safely.
  85. To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over ________ degrees during landings.
  86. For a WINDSHEAR alert during takeoff or approach, or GCAS PULL UP alert:
    Both A and C should be performed [Set TAKEOFF power and level the wings; Pitch immediately to 15 degrees nose up, then adjust pitch to maintain approximately 10 knots above the stall warning caret]
  87. To prevent an abnormal shutdown of the EGI, delay turning off AC power for approximately _________seconds or until ECB 499 indicates open.
  88. If planning an airstart, a feathered propeller may windmill with no oil supplied (fire handle pulled) at less then 3% NP for a total of ______ or greater than 3% for a total of ______ .
    6 hours, 2 hours
  89. If planning to attempt an airstart do not allow the propeller to windmill with oil supplied (FIRE handle in) at greater than _____ for more than _______.
    3%, 5 minutes
  90. During takeoff, if engine failure occurs after reaching refusal speed set __________.
    2-5 degrees of bank into the operating engines
  91. During two-engine operation, the FLAPS lever must be placed to at least _____ when below _____.
    20%, 210 KIAS
  92. On a two-engine inoperative go-around, do not raise the FLAPS lever above _________ because low boost will be set and there may be insufficient rudder control available for full two engine power.
  93. If both tires of the right main landing gear are flat:
    Land on the left side of the runway
  94. When fuel must be dumped in a controlled environment:
    All the above are true [Do not dump fuel less than 5,000 ft above the terrain;Do not dump in a circular pattern; Ensure the crossfeed valves are closed to prevent emptying the main tanks completely]
  95. During manual flap extension, is there protection against asymmetrical flaps operation?
  96. When either the CREW DOOR OPEN or RAMP OPEN PRESSURIZED ACAWS message is displayed, the pilot or copilot will immediately notify what?
    Crew and passengers to fasten seat belts
  97. An asterisk (*) at the end of an ACAWS message indicates:
    Other associated components may have been affected by the failure
  98. During an airstart, the FADEC will not allow the starter to engage or the start sequence to begin if NG is ________%
    Greater than 29
  99. During the airstart procedure, allow up to ________ after core (NG) comes on speed for onset of propeller (NP) rotation.
    2 minutes
  100. Select the correct statement concerning AC Bus power sources:
    If only engine driven generators #1, #2, and #4 are on line, #1 will power the LH AC bus, #2 will power the essential AC bus, and #4 will power the main and RH AC buses.
  101. A main tank boost pump is turned on by:
    Rotating the appropriate ENGINE START switch to the RUN position.
  102. Fuel transfer pumps are turned on by placing the transfer switch to:
  103. What is the primary measure of engine power?
  104. The takeoff performance rating at temperatures up to 39.4 degrees Celsius (103 degrees Fahrenheit) at sea level with no bleed air is approximately______ horsepower.
  105. Below 15,500 feet with the other engines running normally, when the FADEC detects autofeather criteria for an inboard engine it will:
    Autofeather after a two-second delay
  106. Above 15,500 feet, if the FADEC detects autofeather criteria it will:
    Both A and B [Autofeather an outboard propeller without delay; Windmill an inboard propeller at 100% RPM]
  107. If the oil cooler flaps switches fail, how can you operate the system?
    Through the CNI-MU oil cooler flaps soft panel
  108. The fire and overheat detection system (F/ODS) monitors for indications of __________.
    Fire, overheat, and smoke
  109. How many smoke detectors are there on the airplane and where are they?
    4, 3 in the cargo compartment and 1 in the underdeck avionics compartment
  110. The engine FIRE handle when pulled:
    Both A and B are correct [Closes the firewall fuel shutoff valve; Signals the FADECs to feather the propeller and shutdown the engine]
  111. Manifold bleed air pressure can be read on the:
    Bleed Air Control Panel
  112. Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the _______ fuel tank.
    Number 2 main
  113. When the APU fire handle is pulled the following occurs:.
    All of the above
  114. The Booster hydraulic system supplies hydraulic power to:
    A portion of the flight control boost system
  115. Identify the system powered by the Utility hydraulic system:
  116. Identify the system powered by the AUX hydraulic system:
    Emergency brakes
  117. The engine driven hydraulic pumps are provided with internal control mechanisms to vary output volume with system demand, and to control pressure to maintain approximately ______ PSI.
  118. When the flaps are extended more than approximately ___ percent and the landing gear is not down and locked, the landing gear warning audio will sound. It cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flaps are repositioned to less than ___ percent.
    70, 70
  119. Which of the following conditions automatically shut off both the air conditioning units?
    Both A and B are correct
  120. How is the underfloor heat turned on?
    By placing the underfloor switch to the HEAT/FAN position.
  121. In automatic mode, the aircraft should not begin to pressurize until:
    The power levers are advanced above flight idle
  122. Which of the following Ice Protection systems are not triggered by the ice detectors?
    Pitot heat
  123. In the anti-icing mode, the zone control valves operate the same as the deice mode except the vertical tail zone control valves remain open continuously.
  124. What method of ice protection is used on the propellers?
    Electric heat
  125. The oxygen system uses diluter-demand automatic pressure regulators and operates at an indicated pressure of __________ in a static system under a no-flow condition. Under a continuous breathing condition the pressure should indicate __________.
    270-455 PSI, 270-340 PSI
  126. On a C-130J model the oxygen system uses _________ oxygen and the manual shutoff valve is located on the ________ side of the cargo compartment forward bulkhead.
    Liquid, Right
  127. The C-130J has ____ portable oxygen bottles.
  128. The pilot is manually flying the aircraft level at 10,000 ft MSL. The HUD and PFD altitude reference displays read 5,000 ft. Select the correct statement below.
    If the pilot presses the ALT SEL knob, the reference barometric altitude on the PFDs and HUDs will synchronize to the current 10,000 ft altitude
  129. The altimeter setting reads "29.98 in HG" on the pilot's PFD. The pilot is advised by Approach Control that the altimeter setting is 1013 MB. Select the correct statement below.
    The pilot uses the AMU PFD page to select millibars. Next he presses the BARO SET knob to set the altimeter to 1013 MB, or he can rotate the BARO SET knob to achieve the correct setting.
  130. The pilot presses the A/T ON (Autothrottle) button. Select the correct statement:
    Autothrottles will engage and the IAS will be automatically set to the aircraft's current indicated airspeed
  131. What will happen if both mission computers fail?
    BIU back-up mode
  132. If one Mission Computer (MC) is lost, what is the reduction in capability?
  133. Select the correct statement.
    A new ACAWS message appears in inverse video for ten seconds.
  134. What are the alert levels for ACAWS?
    Special Alerts, Warnings, Cautions, and Advisories
  135. Which interphone transmit setting ensures that transmissions are heard by all crewmembers regardless of the audio source selection on their ICS control panel?
  136. What radios may be operated from the Get Home Control panel?
    UHF 1 and VHF 1
  137. Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the CAT 2 sub-mode of the HUD:
    All the above are correct
  138. GCAS alerts are given higher priority than TCAS alerts.
  139. TCAS is designed never to issue resolution advisories that would put the airplane outside the performance envelope.
  140. Which statements regarding TCAS are correct?
    The limits of TCAS detection are 40 NM off the nose, 15 NM off the sides, and 12 NM on the tail
  141. TCAS resolution advisories are displayed____________.
    Both B and C are correct [As a �fly to� box on the HUD with corner tics; Using a tape type VVI in color with the fly-to area in green on the PFD]
  142. The target symbol for a traffic advisory (TA) is a __________.
    Yellow-filled circle
  143. In the weather mode of the radar, turbulence information is not available:
    For range scales greater than 80 NM
  144. Excessive precipitation, the most severe rate, is depicted as _______ on the color weather radar.
  145. Turbulence is depicted as __________ in the weather radar mode.
  146. Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to ______ NM of range coverage.
  147. Select the correct statement concerning the common cursor.
    Provides capability to do all the above simultaneously.
  148. The common cursor modes available via the cursor control panel include all the following except:
  149. Pulling the computer cursor switch to its first detent and releasing causes the cursor mode to change to:
    Computer cursor
  150. Normal bleed includes all but:
    Wing and empennage ice protection
  151. Closing the nacelle shutoff valves will not provide bleed off torque schedules. For bleed off engine performance:
    Do all of the above [Turn both air conditioners off; Set the UNDERFLOOR switch to FAN; Set the WING/EMP ice protection switch to OFF]
  152. In preparation for takeoff, the tower reports the wind with a 6 knot gust increment. You should add:
    6 knots to rotation speed.
  153. Increase the rotation speed due to crosswind only when evaluating maximum effort takeoff procedures.
  154. A WET runway condition (ICAO Medium) corresponds to a RCR of __________.
  155. An ICY runway condition (ICAO Poor) corresponds to a RCR of _________.
  156. Apply _________% of headwind component to brake limits and takeoff and landing distances and __________% of headwind component for climb out flight path calculations.
    50 / 0
  157. Apply _______% of tailwind component to brake limits, takeoff and landing distances, and climb out flight path obstacle distances.
  158. Always increase rotation speed, obstacle clearance speed, approach speed, threshold speed, and touchdown speed by the full gust increment not to exceed 10 knots.
  159. For a safe takeoff, the runway available must be __________ than the critical field length.
    A or B [Equal to; Greater than]
  160. __________ is based on runway available and is defined as the maximum speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two-engines (symmetrical power) in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one propeller feathered, and maximum anti-skid braking.
    Refusal Speed
  161. The Automatic Thrust Control System (ATCS) decreases which of the following:
    B & C [One-Engine-Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA); Ground Minimum Control Speed (VMCG)]
  162. Ground Minimum Control Speed is based on the following conditions and restrictions except:
    Nosewheel steering
  163. Adjusted maximum effort rotation speed is scheduled to ensure that liftoff speed is greater than:
    Both A and B [One-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed; Three engine minimum liftoff speed]
  164. All the following conditions determine one-engine-inoperative air minimum control speed except:
    A bank angle greater or equal to 5 degrees towards the failed engine.
  165. Ground minimum control speed is not considered for both the maximum effort and adjusted maximum effort speed schedules.
  166. For normal operations, planning a takeoff and climb-out over an obstacle should be done on the basis of _________ performance.
  167. Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm.
  168. Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm.
  169. Basic assumptions for the landing distance charts include a 1-second allowance for distance traveled during transition from touchdown to taxi attitude and maximum anti-skid braking and power selection achieved upon reaching taxi attitude.
  170. Even short term deviations outside of +/- _________ feet of the active flight plan entered cruise altitude will cause misleading time navigation indications. Either returning the airplane to within programmed flight path parameters or changing the entered cruise altitude to reflect actual flight conditions will restore accurate time navigation predictions.
  171. There is a limit of ___ waypoint spaces allotted for the flight plan and the alternate flight plan including the primary and alternate destinations.
  172. Which of the following occurs when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initially selected?
    VHF and UHF radios are turned on.
  173. A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of �C� defines:
    A or B [Fixed Start of Climb (SOC); Fixed Bottom of Descent (BOD)]
  174. The FROM/TO page allows for entry of two reference points and a selected groundspeed, and computes the bearing, distance, and time between the two points. To find bearing distance from your present position to the DIK VORTAC, enter _________.
    B or C [/DIK; PPOS/DIK]
  175. The Pilot in Command (PIC):
    All the above are correct [May be non-mission ready (NMR), provided events causing NMR status aren�t performed during the flight; Is the final authority for requesting and accepting aircrew or mission waivers; Is the final mission authority and will make decisions not assigned to higher authority]
  176. Basic crew flight duty period (FDP) is limited to _______ hours; ________ hours when both autopilots are inoperative or neither autopilot can be coupled to the Flight Director.
    16, 12
  177. The minimum enroute crew rest period is ___ hours before legal for alert or scheduled report time when self-alerting.
  178. A PIC who accepts an aircraft with failed or degraded equipment/systems is not committed to subsequent operations with the same failures/degradations.
  179. The ____ will operate the landing gear and the ____ will operate the flaps.
    Right seat pilot, PM
  180. Any crewmember seeing a deviation of heading (+/- ____ degrees), airspeed (+/- ____ knots), or altitude (+/- ____ feet), and no attempt being made to correct the deviation will immediately notify the PF.
    10, 10, 100
  181. All of the following are mandatory advisory calls for the pilot monitoring (PM) except:
    All of the above are mandatory advisory calls for the pilot monitoring (PM)
  182. If all stabilized non-tactical approach criteria are not met by 1000 feet AGL (IMC), the PM will _______. If all stabilized non-tactical approach criteria are not met by 500 feet AGL (IMC/VMC), the PM will _________.
    Announce the deviation, announce �unstable, go around�
  183. Limit operations on snow, slush, and water covered runways to an RSC of 10.
  184. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding maximum effort operations:
    For peace-time, do not use runways less than 3,500 feet long unless waived by the MAJCOM/DO
  185. Without wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______ ft.
  186. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______ ft.
  187. During reverse taxi operations, stop no less than ____ feet from an obstruction even if using a wing walker.
  188. If no RVR readout is available for the departure runway, visibility must be reported to be ____. When weather is below approach and landing minimums (ceiling or visibility) ________.
    � mile, a takeoff alternate is required
  189. File two alternates when:
    All the above [The forecast visibility (intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for the available DOD or NOAA precision approach; The forecast ceiling OR visibility ( intermittent or prevailing) is less than published for all other approaches; The forecast surface winds (intermittent or prevailing) exceed limits corrected for RCR]
  190. Flights into areas of forecast or reported ______ turbulence are prohibited. Do not fly into an area of known or forecast ________ mountain wave turbulence.
    Severe, moderate or greater
  191. Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain or freezing drizzle. Flight into areas of forecast or reported severe icing is prohibited.
  192. At FL 230 and above, avoid thunderstorms by at least _______. Below FL 230, avoid thunderstorms by at least _____. For tactical low-level operations, avoid thunderstorms by at least __________.
    20 nm, 10 nm, 5 nm
  193. When an aircrew assumes a preflighted spare or quick turn, a _________ will be performed.
    Thorough visual inspection
  194. When configuring for CAT I operations, both pilots will verify that the INAV position alert 1 is set to 4 miles and the INAV position alert 2 is set to 8 miles in the PROGRESS page.
  195. When operating under CAT I navigation procedures, the non-controlling INAV solution must be placed to INS before losing NAVAID reception.
  196. The C-130J is certified for RNP-10 and BRNAV/RNP-5 airspace, but with operational time restrictions.
  197. Minimum runway length for 50% flap flight idle touch-and-go landings is ______ feet. Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is _______ feet.
    5,000 , 6,000
  198. What is the minimum amount of oxygen required to be on board?
    5.0 liters
  199. Plan a _____ fuel reserve at destination or alternate ( when an alternate is required ). Calculate an additional ______ of contingency fuel. Reserve and contingency fuel will be computed using consumption rates providing maximum endurance at ______ feet MSL.
    45 minute, 30 minutes, 10,000
  200. For oceanic crossings, routes will be planned at 300 KTAS or 290 KTAS, optimized for gross weight.
    1. OXYGEN ON, 100% ALL
    1. OXYGEN ON, 100% ALL
Card Set