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Volume 2 (Self-Test)

  1. what assemblies make up the ESTS power supply system?
    AC power supply assembly, DC power supply assembly and high voltage DC power supply module
  2. which major assembly(s) does the AC power equipment assembly (A3) contain?
    AC power supply assembly (A3A3)
  3. what is the maximum current of the AC power supply assembly (A3A3)?
    7 amps
  4. what do the DC power supply assembly (A4A3) and the high voltage DC power supply module provide?
    programmable DC power to LRUs
  5. what is the maximum power of the DCPS6?
    200 watts
  6. what is the maximum output ripple of the DC power supply modules (A4A3A2 through A4A3A6)?
    89 mvolts P-P
  7. the RF VXI assembly contains the VXI bus extender module (A5A1) and what other instrument modules?
    RF generator no. 2, power meter, RF counter reference and rubidium reference
  8. in what range does the RF VXI A5 generate RF stimulus signals?
    0.01 and 18 GHz
  9. what is the programming resolution of the RF generator no. 2?
    1 Hz
  10. what is the frequency range of the power meter (A5A8)?
    10 MHz - 18 GHz
  11. what is the pulse period range of the RF counter (A5A9)?
    250 nsec - 1 sec
  12. in the RF VXI A5, what slot(s) does the rubidium reference (A5A12) mount in?
    slots 12 and 13
  13. what slot(s) does the digital and analog converter mount in within the STIM/RESP VXI assembly no. 1 (A6)?
    slot 2
  14. what is the maximum output current of the DAC?
    410 milliamps
  15. switch modules no. 1 and no. 2 (A6A3 and A6A4) route signals through various paths which include how many dedicated coaxial instrument ports?
    6
  16. the S/MUX (A6A5) can service up to 16 intsruments and how many UUT signal pairs?
    96
  17. what is the frequency range of the SRP (A6A6)?
    360Hz - 5 kHz
  18. what is the maximum VDC of the Form C Relays (A6A7)?
    48 VDC
  19. what is the VDC measurement accuracy of the DMM (A6A8)?
    100 mv - 200 v
  20. each arbitrary function generator (no. 1 and no. 2) consists of what three circuit boards?
    VXI interface board, arbitrary main board and arbitrary engine board
  21. what functions do the AFG no. 1 and no. 2 modules provide?
    arbitrary, sine, square, triangle and pulsed DC
  22. the counter-time instrument and the waveform digitizer instrument of the CDM (A6A11) provides how many input channel(s)?
    2 each
  23. to what is the operation of the VXI bus extender module (A7A1) identical?
    A5A1 and A6A1 VXI bus extender modules
  24. what two buses does the H009 interface module (A7A4) provide?
    clock and data
  25. the BSIM (A7A5) contains two communication channels. what kind are the communication channels?
    MIL-STD - 1553B
  26. list the AVS (A7A6) functional groups.
    • 1)FG1 - VXI interface
    • 2)FG2 - frequency synthesizer
    • 3)FG3 - composite video and raster generator
    • 4)FG4 - stroke generator
    • 5)FG5 - sync processor
    • 6)FG6 - image acquisition unit
    • 7)FG7 - input/output buffer
  27. DWG no. 1, no. 2, and no. 3 provide how many high-speed I/O pins?
    96
  28. DWG no. 4 and no. 5 provide 256 TTL I/O pins. what type are the 256 pins?
    high-density
  29. how is the 115 VAC connected to the ESTS?
    directly connected
  30. what type of input power filtering does the PCU provide?
    EMI filtering
  31. which PCU 60 amp circuit breaker controls power to the ESTS assemblies?
    MAIN POWER ON/OFF circuit breaker
  32. which A10 interconnect assembly connector connects to RF EQUIP A2 connector A2J2 and provides IEEE-488 bus, RF, and power distribution interconnections?
    P4 connector
  33. which A11 interconnect assembly connector connects to RF EQUIP A2 connector A2J1 and provides IEEE-488 bus, RF, and power distribution interconnections?
    P3 connector
  34. which A12 interconnect assembly connector connects to System Control A9 IEEE-488 (DST) connector and provides IEEE-488 bus interconnections?
    J1 connector
  35. the interconnecting box A15 (maintenance ITA) provides the interface required for what ESTS function(s)?
    self-test and calibration
  36. how many pin connectors are the two rear panel connectors (P1 and P2) on the maintenance ITA?
    800 pins
  37. which maintenance ITA connector connects to PATEC adapter cable when using PATEC equipment as a calibration standard?
    J4 connector
  38. which Maintenance ITA connector connects to ESTS STIM/RESP VXI no. 2 A7 connectors A7J1 and A7J2?
    P2A/B connector
  39. through what does the system controller control all ESTS operations?
    IEEE-488 and MXI buses
  40. what makes up the operator interface?
    flat panel display, video graphics card, integral resistive technology touch screen, and 101-key keyboard
  41. regarding program/data storage, the RAM is expandable to how many Mb?
    128 Mb
  42. what is used to transfer classified software and/or data to/from the ESTS?
    3.5" floppy disk
  43. what device controls the 1.44 Mb floppy drive?
    floppy controller
  44. what does the system interfacing PAR connector provide?
    provides a parallel interface to an external printer
  45. what system interfacing connector provides a serial interface port to/from the system controller (A9)?
    SER1
  46. what system controller left side I/O panel connector provides an MXI bus interface between the system controller and the ESTS instruments?
    MXI bus controller
  47. what system controller left side I/O panel connector provides an SCSI bus interface between the system controller and CD-ROM?
    SCSI bus controller
  48. on the system controller right side I/O panel, when is the 3.5" disk drives indicator light visible?
    when the disk drive access door is open
  49. on the front panel indicators, when is the DC indicator light illuminated?
    when it's not used
  50. on the system controller keyboard, how many functions keys are there?
    10
  51. on the system controller keyboard, when is the green Caps Lock indicator on?
    when Caps Lock key is pressed
  52. on the system controller keyboard, which keys are operation keys?
    backspace, enter, shift, Caps Lock, space-bar, tab, CTRL, and alt
  53. on the CD-ROM, what increments the CD track selection?
    pressing the forward track button
  54. what selection choices are there on the ESTS main menu?
    TPS, TPS (debug mode), Maintenance Support, Resource Management, Systems Services, and Shutdown
  55. what box on the F15 TPS selection menu when touched allows the operator to scroll the list until the desired TPS appears?
    NEXT
  56. using the F15 TPS selection menu TPS list number option to select a TPS, what box do you touch if you are sure of the TPS selection number?
    EXECUTE
  57. how many characters are required to be input in order to use the F15 TPS selection menu LRU work unit code option when selecting the required TPS
    5
  58. after selecting a TPS, the TPS main menu comes up on the screen. list the TPS main menu options.
    E2E TESTING, INDIVIDUAL TESTING, LOAD OFP, READ/VERIFY OFP
  59. in what two ways may debug mode commands be entered?
    enter first word or entire command
  60. what does the operator need to be completely familiar with priopr to using the debug mode?
    TPS source code and operations it performs
  61. what does the option system services allow the operator to do on the TPS main menu?
    copy, inputt, display calibration data, and access UNIX operating system shell
  62. what is the operator asked after selecting the shutdown option from the ESTS main menu?
    "Do you really want to shutdown?"
  63. what is displayed on the screen after system shutdown?
    ESTS system shutdown message
  64. what is the input signal range that the signal analyzer can receive from a line replaceable unit?
    10 MHz - 18 GHz
  65. which signal analyzer control/indicator indicates if the internal signal analyzer temperature exceeds 75 degrees Celsius?
    VOLT/TEMP indicator
  66. what does the STATUS ACT indicator light indicate when it is ON?
    when AS is making a measurement, receiving programming information or sending measurement data
  67. what connector is not used during normal operation?
    CALIBRATION 300 MHz - 10 dBm connector
  68. what does the INSTRUMENT STATE SELF TEST indicator light indicate when it is ON?
    local oscillator section is performing a self-test and to show local oscillator section is in a pause state undergoing a diagnostic test
  69. what is the RFG no. 1 output frequency range?
    100 kHz - 2.56 GHz
  70. which INSTRUMENT STATE key when pressed enables RFG no. 1 to display the most recent uncleared error number and a short description of the error?
    MSG key
  71. which INSTRUMENT STATE key when pressed returns the RFG no. 1 parameters to a known set of preset conditions?
    PRESET key
  72. which key when pressed toggles the frequency modulation ON and OFF?
    FM ON/OFF (SENSITIVITY) key
  73. which key when pressed enables the operator to set the RFG no. 1 output frequency?
    FREQ (MULTIPLIER) key
  74. which indicator indicates that one or more of the RFG no. 1 frequency control circuits is not phase locked?
    UNLOCK indicator
  75. what is the input frequency range of the ASA?
    10 Hz - 18 GHz
  76. what keys select the basic measurement functions?
    function select keys
  77. which function select key holds the active function to its present value, blanks the soft keys and active function from the CRT display?
    HOLD key
  78. which INSTRUMENT STATE key copies the display contents onto a plotter or a printer?
    COPY key
  79. what does the CAL OUTPUT provide?
    300 MHz, -10 dBm frequency output
  80. when lit, which indicator indicates line input power is applied to the ASA?
    LINE indicator
  81. the GPITM is made up of what?
    GPIU and GPIU blower
  82. the GPIU is made up of what subsystems?
    internal bus system, switching subsystem, waveform stimulus subsystem, digital test subsystem, serial bus subsystem, test module adapters subsystem, and UUT power interface
  83. what GPIU subsystem distributes power and interface signals to plug-in circuit card assemblies?
    internal bus subsystem
  84. which GPIU subsystem provides general-purpose switching to set up the UUT interface test adapter and special-purpose switching to distribute the wafeform generator outputs to the test station RF modulation inputs?
    switching subsystem
  85. which GPIU subsystem can perform measurement multiplexing at each of the digital pins that make up the parallel digital circuits?
    digital test subsystem
  86. which GPIU subsystem regulates the transfer of Manchester data and serial data between the GPITM and UUT?
    serial bus subsystem
  87. the GPIU blower assembly uses what voltage level(s)?
    115 VAC, 60 Hz
  88. list the three major assemblies that make up the GPIU.
    1A3A2N2 (tier A), 1A3A2N1 (tier B) and 1A3A2N3 (tier C)
  89. the three tiers of the GPIU contain a total of how many plug-in circuit card assemblies?
    37
  90. tier A, the middle tier, contains a backplane CCA and how many plug-in CCAs?
    14
  91. of the CCAs in tier A, which one has five of the same CCAs?
    precision measurement CCA
  92. tier B, the upper tier contains what?
    backplane CCA and 17 plug-in CCAs
  93. how many arbitrary waveform generator CCAs are there in tier B?
    4
  94. How many high-speed driver/receiver CCAs are there in tier B?
    10
  95. tier C, the lower tier, contains what?
    backplane CCA and 6 plug-in CCAs
  96. what self-contained programs verify the operation of the GPITM without the use of external resources?
    built-in test
  97. how is power-on BIT performed?
    automatically when power is applied to the GPITM
  98. what are the two types of continuous BIT?
    continuous monitoring BIT and programmed continuous BIT
  99. when does the GPITM control the program initiate BIT of the GPIU?
    upon receipt of CNF or IST command from the test station computer
  100. the initiated BIT failures that are reported by a string of ASCII status indicators to the station computer monitor are output by what?
    TMA CCA
  101. each station RF source provides what?
    continuous wave or modulated RF signals between 10 MHz and 40 GHz
  102. what assembly is the output interface for the test station RF stimuli?
    stimulus assembly
  103. what does the stimulus assembly do?
    conditions RF source signals and routes them to front panel connectos for distribution to UUT or test station RF measurement resources
  104. what does the modulation assembly provide?
    modulation of the RF carrier, including pulse modulation, phase modulation and biphase modulation
  105. what corrects power amplifying variations across the frequency band?
    and automatic leveling control circuit
  106. what does the stimulus distribution assembly do?
    combines RF signals from different sources, provides the required termination for the output signal and routes the output signal to the stimulus assembly front panel connectors
  107. what is the input interface for RF signals from the UUT?
    measurement assembly
  108. what are the two clock signals from the crystal clock assembly derived from?
    10 MHz reference signal generated by a crystal oscillator
  109. what converts IF signals supplied by the test station to lower IF frequencies?
    5th IF CCA
  110. what function(s) does the timing processor CCA perform?
    specialized timing and counting functions necessary to measure electronic warfare type signals generated by the UUT
  111. what are the four basic measurements that are performed by the timing processor CCA?
    pulsed frequency demodulation, phase demodulation, CW frequency and pulse delay
  112. what assembly receives ATE commands from the IEEE-488 bus and routes corresponding control signals to the stimulus assembly and the measurement assembly?
    control/power assembly
  113. what device provides a 16-slot card cage and backplane motherboard for the control/power assembly plug-in CCAs?
    card cage assembly
  114. how many of the 16 slots of the card cage are used?
    9
  115. what device provides address decoding and buffering, data bus buffering, and interrupt handling capacity for the timing processor CCA?
    timing processor control CCA
  116. what does the RF sync CCA provide?
    signal routing of transistor-transistor logic level sychronization signals between the RITM assemblies and between the RITM and the test station instruments used in RF tests
  117. in addition to distributing the signal necessary for RF testing of the UUT, what else does the stimulus assembly provide?
    selection of RF source signals supplied by the host station, modulation of the source signal, generation of RF noise, signal amplification/attenuation, automatic level control, selection and routing of stimulus to the UUT or the measurement device
  118. what device generates bandwidth-limited RF noise at selected frequencies?
    noise assembly
  119. what device attenuates and/or modulates the RF signal?
    modulation assembly
  120. in addition to amplifying the RF signals supplied by the station RF sources, what else do the power amplifiers amplify?
    output of the noise assembly
  121. what does the remoted detector buffer contain that is used to monitor the ambient temperature of the leveling loop detectors?
    temperature compensation circuit
  122. how many connectors does the stimulus distribution assembly include for distribution of signals to the UUT or to a measurement device?
    20
  123. which front panel stimulus distribution assembly connectors are used to input RF signals from the station RF sources?
    J1 and J2
  124. which assembly inputs RF signals from the UTT?
    measurement assembly
  125. in addition to inputting the RF signals from the UUT, what else does the measurement assembly provide?
    switching and routing, input preamplification and/or attenuation, input demodulation and down conversion, measurement of frequency, delay and phase relation for fast pulsed and cw signals, common time base for station RF resources through a reference clock signal
  126. what device supplies a stable time base signal to the station RF resources?
    crystal clock assembly
  127. what clock channel feeds the crystal oscillator signal to a frequency multiplexer (x10), a band pass filter, and a buffer?
    100 MHz clock channel
  128. referring to the demodulator assembly, the demodulation signal is output on one of three channels depending on the measurement being executed. what are the three channels?
    channel A, channel B and timing processor CCA
  129. what assembly consists of an LO selector circuit, down converter assembly, a dual channel mixer assembly, and a phase CCA?
    RF assembly
  130. referring to the RF assembly, what three types of LO signals can be selected by the LO selector circuit?
    variable LO, swept LO, BIT LO
  131. which LO signal is the amplified RF source signal supplied by the stimulus assembly?
    variable LO
  132. what assembly converts the high-band RF (18 to 40 GHZ RF range) from RF CH A and RF CH B inputs to a lower frequency that can be used directly by the phase CCA?
    downconverter assembly
  133. what assembly converts the low-band RF (2 to 18.5 GHz RF range) from RF CH A and RF CH B inputs to one of the two intermediate frequencies that can be used directly by the phase CCA?
    dual channel mixer assembly
  134. the measurement assemblies timing processor CCA connector J7 is used for what purposes?
    50-pin input/output connector used only for testing purposes
  135. what does the control/power assemblies; power circuit supply?
    supplies DC power to the control circuit and to the stimulus and measurement assemblies
  136. referring to the control/power assembly, what controls and monitors the application of power to the fans in each RITM drawer?
    circuit breaker panel
  137. which circuit breaker applies 208 VAC to the power indicator DS1 and to the power supplies PS1 and PS3 through PS6?
    CB1
  138. which RITM DC power supply supplies +5 VDC, +12 VDC, and -12 VDC to the VME bus backplane in the card cage assembly?
    PS3
  139. which RITM DC power supply supplies +15 VDC to the measurement assembly via connector J114?
    PS6
  140. hwo are the VME bus backplane lines grouped?
    into 4 sub buses
  141. which VME sub bus groups all lines that are active during data transfers?
    data transfer bus
  142. the CIIL code that is transmitted by the station computer over the IEEE-488 bus is in what form?
    discrete signals and seven-bit ASCII characters
  143. what five CCAs make up the CDU computer?
    processor, SCSI, RS-232 SI, MXI, CTSI
  144. what component does the SCSI CCA interface the processor with?
    4.3 Gb hard drive, CD-ROM, and zip drive
  145. which CDU CCA can communicate with components having cable lengths of up to 50 feet?
    RS-232 SI
  146. what does the CTSI CCA use to perform data transfers to and from the test station?
    test bus
  147. what video signals does the video display monitor receive?
    X, Y and Z-axis drive and composite video
  148. what is the maximum resolution of the flat panel display?
    1280 x 1024
  149. what is the purpose of the HHT?
    provides alternate method of entering GO, NOGO and CONTINUE
  150. what's the only value that can be specified for the VOLTAGE modifier in the discrete syntax?
    28 volts
  151. how many ATLAS syntax statements can be used to control the PSU?
    4
  152. why does the blower and refrigeration units' syntax provide you with the ability to select whether or not to activate the blower and refrigeration units?
    blower and refrigeration units aren't used with all UUTs
  153. which CCAs provide for dedicated signal connections from the IU backplane to the ITA for signal routing to and from the UUT?
    stimulus feedthru (1A1 and 1A2)
  154. how many programmable discrete outputs can each IDO CCA provide to the UUT?
    60
  155. what's the purpose of the two self-test MUXs on the IDO CCA?
    verify all relays are operating properly
  156. on GPS CCAs 1A17 and 1A18, how is the method of controlling relays K1 through K25 different from controlling K26 through K30?
    • K1-K5 are controlled only by the test station computer
    • K26-K30 are controlled by signals from UUT or test station computer
  157. how many low- and high-resolution DAC channels can each improved DAC CCA provide as a source of stimuli to the UUT?
    • 8 12-bit, low-resolution channels
    • 5 16-bit, high-resolution channels
  158. briefly describe the functional characteristics of the three switching networks in each EMM CCA.
    2 LV channels connect any 1 of 40 analog signals to any 1 of 7 outputs; the single HV channel connects either of 2 HV differential signals to 1 HV differential output
  159. what's the function of the MLPRF CCA?
    generates timing and control signals for the MLPRF UUT and provides various UUT clocks to affect data timing
  160. which CCA provides biphase stimulus to the UUT, and then evaluates the biphase response from the UUT?
    SI (1A5)
  161. what do ABE CCAs emulate?
    serial and parallel buses used to interface a UUT
  162. what monitoring capabilities are built into the IFC CCA?
    power supply self-test and ITA interlock
  163. what's the basic function of ILF measurement CCAs 1A23 and 1A24?
    amplify or attenuate analog signals from the UUT and then send the resulting conditioned signal to the measurement subsystem
  164. what's the bandwidth of an ILF measurement CCA?
    1 MHz
  165. what's the FREQ range of the HF measurement CCA?
    DC to 10 MHz
  166. which IUA CCAs drive the analog AFG CCAs to generate arbitrary waveforms?
    digital AFG (3A1 and 3A3)
  167. what's the primary function of the analog AFG CCAs?
    generate arbitrary analog waveforms for the test station and UUT stimulus
  168. briefly describe the characteristics of the LF pulses provided by the dual stimulus buffer CCAs.
    LF pulses are below 5 KHz, with amplitude limits up to +-30 VDC
  169. why are the input signals to the input buffer CCA attenuated?
    to prevent output to analog channels A and B CCAs from exceeding +-2 VDC
  170. what are the output voltage ranges for the DC reference and resistance CCA?
    +-2 VDC, +-10 VDC, and +-100 VDC
  171. the analog channel A and B CCAs conditioin the analog signals before what action takes place?
    A/D conversion by the fast A/D converter CCA
  172. which IUA CCA provides a time base for providing four fixed FREQs, a square wave, and time-base outputs?
    time-base/AC reference
  173. what is the purpose of the RDT pulse generated by the rate-delay generator CCA?
    acts as a strobe for transferring instantaneous voltage levels from analog channel A CCA into fast A/D converter CCA
  174. how are FREQ adjustments made to 10-MHz standard 3A21?
    adjusting an on-board trim pot
  175. which IUB CCAs are capable of generating and measuring 16 channels of discrete analog voltages from -32 VDC to +32 VDC?
    discrete I/O (4A1 and 4A2)
  176. what programmable attributes are available for the output signal from the PGO CCA?
    amplitude, offset, and transition time
  177. what type of output can be accomplished by connecting TG CCAs 4A7, 4A8, and 4A9 in series?
    pulse burst
  178. where do the signals come from that are used to determine the deflection voltage during display testing of the advanced display controller CCA?
    from the photometric assembly and UUT
  179. what is the primary function of the threat simulator CCA?
    to simulate up to 4 radar video signals that can be interpreted as threats
  180. from what CCA does the raster video generator "C" CCA receive the TTL-level video and synchronization signals it uses to generate MAVERICK video?
    raster video generator "A"
  181. what types of RF output signals are available from the MSU? what's the overall output FREQ range of the MSU?
    CW, AM, PM and side-lobe suppression signals; 21.4 MHz - 18.5 GHz
  182. which two components provide leveling control for the pin diode attenuator in HF leveler/amplifier SRU 5A2?
    feedback amplifier and 12-bit DAC
  183. which MSU SRU is capable of switching incoming RF signals to the main output or precision port?
    HF output (5A4)
  184. what is the output FREQ range of the FREQ synthesizer SRU? where does the 10-MHz reference signal come from that is used to help produce these FREQs?
    2.4-12.4 GHz; LF receiver SRU of the MMU
  185. describe what happens to the output of the pulse modulator in the LF leveler/amplifier SRU.
    it's amplified by the LF switch amplifier, selectively filtered by harmonic filters, then fed to the LF output SRU
  186. coupler DC1 in the LF output SRU sends one of its outputs to the MSU's main output port (by the HF output SRU). what's the other output from DC1 used for?
    it's sent to the LF leveler/amplifier SRU's leveling loop circuitry
  187. what's the basic function of the MMU?
    measures all signals ranging from 30 MHz - 18.5 GHz
  188. besides its internal circuitry, what other dual power meter component ultimately determines the maximum measurable FREQ for any given test?
    the power head being used
  189. what are the four possible RF sources for input to the RF input and downconverter SRU?
    LRU1, LRU2, LRU3 and MSU
  190. what are the two possible functions of the IF log/lin receiver SRU?
    provides a compressed IF for 100-dB dynamic range and acts as a linear amplifier for linear applications
  191. what filtering bandwidths in the LF receiver SRU are available for the 21.4-MHz signal coming from the IF log/lin receiver SRU?
    1 MHz and 6 MHz
  192. what are the primary functional components that make up the MMU's control section?
    2 TG/counter-timer CCAs, a self-test CCA, a dual AFG CCA and an ATCP CCA
  193. what TG/counter-timer CCA circuit provides pulses used by the MSU for RF and IF signal generation?
    TG
  194. which MMU CCA provides gate signals to the TG/counter-timer CCA for FREQ measurements?
    self-test (6A5)
  195. which MMU CCA provides the modulating signal that, when combined with an RF carrier signal in the MSU's LF leveler/amplifier CCA, is used to generate AM signals?
    Dual AFG (6A4)
  196. what's the main purpose of the bench base assembly?
    provides a balanced precision support for test of WAC HUD DU and DO HUD DU and calibration of the BAT
  197. what allows access to the WAC HUD DU adjustment potentiometers, purge valves, and AGE connectors?
    HUD holding fixture
  198. how is the 4-inch mirror properly aligned?
    by using the calibration fixture assembly as the positioning reference and the digital theodolite assembly as the transfer reference
  199. what does the selector switch on the photometric assembly provide?
    provides +12 VDC operating power from the surface mount connector on the digital theodolite assembly or from the RS-232 data cable interface connector
  200. which assembly is used to measure the angular position of targets?
    digital theodolite
  201. which assembly provides the stimulus to the HUD ambient light sensors?
    light source
  202. what does the calibration fixture provide the OTB system?
    precise optical reference to establish the optical boresight of the OTB system
  203. how are the storage units used?
    to transport and store the OTB system components and accessories and provide a work surface when stacked
  204. what are the three input power ranges?
    • single-phase 230 (+-14%) VRMS at 47-53 Hz
    • 208 (+-10%) VRMS at 54-66 Hz
    • 200 (+-10%) VRMS at 360-440 Hz
  205. what is the range of the output power?
    single-phase, 115 (+-5%) VRMS at 54-633 Hz, 1000 W
  206. what is the purpose of the variable DC power supply?
    supplies manually programmable DC power to the light source assembly
  207. what is the output range of the variable DC power supply assembly (A6)?
    0 to + 18V at 1.6A
  208. what are the input voltage and FREQ tolerances for line power monitor 7A4A1?
    voltage is 177-268 VAC phase-to-phase, or 107-156 VAC phase-to-neutral; FREQ is 46-67 Hz or 356-444 Hz
  209. what PCU component is responsible for converting facility input power (if necessary) to 115 VAC, 60 Hz? to what units is this voltage supplied?
    AC-AC power supply (7A4PS4); all test station unit cooling blowers, isolated power supply (3PS1) and station power
  210. what function is performed by the power factor correction circuitry in the power conversion assembly (7A4PS4)?
    ensures the input current is in phase with the input voltage
  211. which PCU CCA provides interlock and DFI fault monitoring capability?
    fault monitor (7A4A2)
  212. which PCU assemblies provide 125 amps of circuit protection when facility power becomes unstable?
    RF filter (7A4FL1-7A4FL4)
  213. what PSU components keep HF and LF noise to a minimum, and prevent those noises from passing back to the power source?
    EMI (8A12) and filter (8A14)
  214. what PSU assembly filters the 80 KHz ripple from the sine shaper's output signal?
    capacitor (8A11)
  215. what four protective circuits are built into the main bias supply (8A13)?
    low-bias shutdown, start-delay, OV shutdown and current limit
  216. what component in the power module assembly (8A3) receives and translates digital commands via the GPIB interface assembly?
    the digital control assembly
  217. how is the PSU configured for interface with the station computer?
    by means of 2 8-position DIP switches located on the GPIB interface CCA
  218. what type of output signals is available from the FCU?
    single- and 3-phase 400 Hz, or single phase 800 Hz
  219. which FCU assembly minimizes HF switching noise from being injected back into the AC supply line?
    common-mode EMI filter (14A1)
  220. from where does the AC-DC module (14A3) get its input? what is this output and where does it go?
    from diferential EMI filter assembly (14A2); +400 VDC to the +400 VDC capacitor bank (14A4)
  221. what happens if the +400 VDC capacitor bank's charge exceeds +450 VDC or drops below +200 VDC?
    the DC-DC module's OV/UV circuitry sends a DFI signal to the module status CCA to disable the FCU output
  222. from where does the 800 Hz module assembly get its operating power?
    AUX bias supply (14A7)
  223. which FCU assembly receives and processes incoming data strings, and then uses that data to set the appropriate output relays?
    US&M CCA (14A16)
  224. at what temperature does the refrigeration unit begin conditioning the UUT cooling air coming from the blower unit?
    when air from the blower unit exceeds 62.6 degrees F
  225. what refrigeration unit component prevents ising during low-load operating conditions?
    a hot-gas bypass valve
  226. what two combined factors cause the system refrigerant to condense to a liquid state?
    temperature and pressure
  227. how does the thermal expansion valve prevent liquid refrigerant from entering the compressor suction path?
    by maintaining the temperature of the refrigerant leaving the evaporator at approximately 9 degrees F above the saturation (boiling) temperature of the refrigerant
  228. what component is mounted in the air outlet duct to detect air overtemperature conditions? what components act to protect the refrigeration unit from overtemperature conditions?
    the air temperature probe; case temperature switches (12S1 and 12S2)
  229. what is the basic difference between blower unit operation under GPIB control and manual-mode operation?
    manual mode sets the system to max speed only and overrides GPIB mode
  230. which blower unit CCA controls the blower relay (13K1)?
    control and signal conditioning (13A4)
  231. what does the manual override switch have on the GPIB interface assembly's ability to provide command and control signals to the refrigeration unit?
    none
  232. which assembly, when used in conjunction with the GPIB interface assembly, and the control and signal conditioning CCA, is part of a feedback loop that regulates blower speed?
    FREQ-to-volt converter CCA (13A5)
  233. which case temperature switch, if any, is energized if the blower unit is operating at 157.2 degrees F?
    13S2 only
Author
sisney
ID
17817
Card Set
Volume 2 (Self-Test)
Description
volume 2 self-test
Updated

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