RMA Sample Test

  1. An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the 

    B. hip
  2. The kidneys are located behind the 

    D. peritoneum
  3. During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the 

    A. epiglottis
  4. The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is 

    D. keratin
  5. A doughnut-shaped gland that encircles the urethra is the 

    C. prostate gland 
  6. The right lung is divided into how many sections?

    B. 3
  7. The three sections of the small intestine are the 

    D. duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
  8. The urinary bladder is located in the 

    B. pelvic cavity
  9. Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?

    A. protection from light 
  10. Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at

    B. puberty
  11. Where do peristaltic waves occur?

    D. esophagus
  12. A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by 

    C. a neurotransmitter 
  13. The duodenum is part of the 

    D. small intestine 
  14. Where are the sublingual glands located?

    A. beneath mucous membrane
  15. When a muscle contracts, it becomes 

    B. shorter and thicker
  16. What is the medical term for "baby" teeth?

    D. deciduous 
  17. The function of insulin is to 

    D. assist glucose into the cells 
  18. The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is 

    A. scoliosis
  19. What organ is located int he lymphatic system?

    A. spleen
  20. Prostatic hypertrophy is 

    D. enlarged prostate 
  21. Functional units of the lungs that are air sacs are called 

    D. alveoli
  22. The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the 

    B. nasopharynx
  23. The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is 

    C. pepsin 
  24. Permanent adult dentition consists of __ teeth

    B. 32
  25. The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the 

    C. renal pelvis
  26. Night blindnes may be caused by a deficiency of 

    C. vitamin A
  27. The internal folds of the stomach are known as 

    B. rugae
  28. The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

    A. aorta 
  29. Digestion DOES NOT involve which organs?

    A. spleen
  30. Which one of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes?

    D. anemia
  31. The combining form "hist/o" means 

    D. tissue 
  32. Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?

    D. presbyopia 
  33. The medical term for inflammation of the liver is 

    A. hepatitis 
  34. The abbreviation for "prescription" is 

    D. Rx
  35. Which of the following means a physician who specializes in the study of the anus and the rectum?

    B. proctologist 
  36. Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as:

    B. sialadenitis 
  37. Which term is best described as "destruction by burning"?

    D. electro cauterization
  38. "Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges", defines the term

    A. aneurysm 
  39. The prefix "ad" means 

    D. to add to 
  40. The study of the stomach and the intestines is 

    D. gastroenterology 
  41. The edical term for a toothache is 

    A. dentalagia 
  42. In a patient's progress note you see that the physician has used the term "necrosis" regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to 

    C. dead tissue 
  43. Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population?

    C. gerontologist
  44. Low blood pressure is 

    D. hypotension
  45. What is the first portion of the small intestinal?

    A. duodenum
  46. "Ostomy" is a 

    D. suffix 
  47. The inflammation of the pancreas is 

    B. pancreatitis 
  48. Choose the abbreviation that means four times a day

    D. QID 
  49. The medical term for indigestion is 

    D. dyspepsia 
  50. Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

    A. C
  51. Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?

    C. tonsillitis 
  52. The combining form that means "red" is 

    C. erythro
  53. Which of the following means pertaining to after meals?

    A. postprandial 
  54. A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is 

    D. bolus 
  55. The term "myotomy" means incision into 

    C. a muscle 
  56. A hermia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called 

    B. rectocele
  57. The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

    D. suspected child abuse
  58. The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from 

    B. civial and criminal liability 
  59. The committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association(AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of neglience?

    C. defamation
  60. A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patients legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patients condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decie whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent?

    B. informed consent 
  61. A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

    B. blood test 
  62. Translated as "the thing speaks for itself", which of the following is evidence showing that neglience by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plantiff?

    B. res ipsa loquitur
  63. Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness toproduce records for a trial?

    A. subpoena duces tecum 
  64. Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure?

    B. ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file 
  65. Which of the following cases would best exemplify the concept of res ipsa loquitur?

    B. a surgeon leaves a sponge in a patients abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery 
  66. Under the doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment

    D. respondeat superior 
  67. Medical practice Acts are laws enacted to

    A. define what is included in the practice of medicine 
  68. In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16- year old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?

    A. being an emancipated minor 
  69. An example of a medical assistant illegally precticing medicine is 

    B. giving advice on a patient condition 
  70. The controlled substances act is a united statess law that regulates controlled drugs. The law is administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration. All of the following are responsibilites of medical assistants in the medical setting when dealing with controlled substance, EXCEPT

    B. prescribing controlled drugs 
  71. In the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a precription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physicians supply the performance of this totally wrongful and unlawful act is knwon as 

    D. malfeasance 
  72. Dr. martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O'Hara. Mrs O'hara has received anesthesia and is prepped for surgery. Dr. Martin is double-booked so he allows the Chief Resident, Dr. Thompson, to perform Mrs. O'hara's appendectomy. The practice of substituting another surgeon without the patients consent is the unethical situation known as 

    A. ghost surgery
  73. Mrs. Jones is diagnosed with a terminal illness. She has given permission for her husband, Mr Jones, to have access to her medical information. Dr. Smith informs Mr. Jones that his wife is terminally ill. Mr Jones does not want Dr. Smith to tell her patient that she is terminally ill. The physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform fer patient of the correct diagnosis?

    A. veracity 
  74. If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for referral of a patient, both are guilty of un unethical practice called 

    D. fee splitting 
  75. If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of 

    D. fee splitting 
  76. A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of 

    C. invasion of privacy 
  77. Positioning or sitting a desk communicated the message of 

    D. authority 
  78. The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called 

    B. restating 
  79. The justication of behavior with socially-acceptable reasons and the tendency to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior is a defense mechanism. An example is, I dieted strictly all day; therefore, its okay to eat a couple of candy 
    bars later in the evening after supper." This defense mechanism is known as bars later in this evening after supper." This defense mechanism is known as

    D. rationalization 
  80. Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the "Hierarchy of Needs". Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we canmove on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs." stating from the bottom to the top?

    B. physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, esteem and recognition, self actualization
  81. When exlaining drug use terminology to the patient, prophylactic is best explained as 

    D. preventing the occurrence of a condition (e.g. vaccines prevent the occurrence of specific infectious diseases)
  82. Patient education for preventinf Lyme disease includes all of the following except 

    B. remove a tick by squeezing or cruching the tick with tweezers 
  83. Instructing patients in the collection of a clean catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education?

    D. on the second motion, cleanse directly across the meastus back to front, using another antiseptic wipe 
  84. Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT

    A. eating a low calorie, low protein diet to promote healing 
  85. Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient?

    A. maintain plasma glucose level betwwen 120 and 200 mg/dl
  86. Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following except

    A. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum 
  87. A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called 

    C. coordination of benefits 
  88. The policy describing a period of non coverage for conditons diagnosed prior to the issurance of an insurance benfit plan is called 

    D. a pre existing conditions waiver 
  89. Medicare Part B covers 

    B. prescription medical equipment 
  90. Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim measns that the physician is compensated 

    A. 80% of the usual and customary fee
  91. This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependeant children of veterans who diead as a result of service related disabilities

  92. Workers compensation insurance provides benefits for 

    B. occupational injuries 
  93. An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is 

    D. J0540
  94. A written authorization by the patient giving the insurance company the right to pay the physician directly for billed services is known as the 

    A. assignment of benefits 
  95. A letter for statement from the insurance carrier escribing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patients co insurance, and the allowed amounts. 

    B. explanation of benefits (EOB)
  96. A range of usual fes in the same community is the 

    C. previaling fee 
  97. The notice sent to the patient showing the amount owed to the physician is called the 

    D. itemized statement 
  98. An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies 

    C. fiscal intermediary 
  99. Medical sole proproetorship, partnerships, groups and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured persons home, business, or car, without regards to the insured persons actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called 

    a. life insurance 
    b. special risk insurance 
    d. disability (loss of income) protection 
    d. liability insurance 
    d. liability insurance 
  100. A person who holds a health benefit plan is a 

    a. subscriber 
    d. rider
    c. dependent 
    d. medical indigent 
    a. subscriber 
  101. Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error?

    B. using "rule out" diagnosis 
  102. In 2006, drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is 

    B. Medicare Part D 
  103. The amount specified by an insurance plan that the patient must pay before the plan will pay is the 

    A. copayment 
  104. Medicare Part B says physicians on a fee scale consisting of three parts: 1. physicians work. 2. charge based professional liability expenses. 3. charge based overhead. This fee scale is known as 

    B. resource based relative value scale (RBRVS)
  105. Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physicians office should 

    B. refer all inquiries to the collection agency 
  106. The petty cash fund may be used 

    D. for small incidental items 
  107. Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column?

    a. insurance write offs 
    b. payments received 
    c. services rendered 
    d. credit balances
    a, insurance write offs 
  108. If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the toal expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a 

    D. net profit of $2,000
  109. The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the 

    B. payee
  110. Which one of the following represents the total of all patients outstanding balances owed to the practice?

    C. accounts receivable 
  111. Regulation Z of the truth in Lending Act is enforces by the Federal Trade Commission and is a part of the Consumer Credit Protection Act. When a physician agrees and accepts payment is installments, the physician must provide a disclosure statement about finance charges even if no finance charges are involved. What is the minimum number of installments in this Regulation?

    A. more than four installments 
  112. A compilation or average of physician fees over given perios is know as 

    A. fee profile 
  113. Expenses that will most likely be included in the capital for a medical facility are

    c. office supplies 
    C. medical equipment 
  114. "For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement?

    D. restrictive 
  115. To properly void a check write "VOID" across the front and 

    C. retain it with canceled checks, in numeric order 
  116. Things that are owed or debts are called 

    B. liabilities 
  117. Nonsufficient funds or NSF refers to the situation in which the bank

    A. returns a deposited check from an account that does not have enough funds to cover the amount of the check 
  118. The person who signs his or her name on the back of a check for the purpose of transferring title to another person is the 

    B. endorser 
  119. Which one of the following represents a successful "trial balance"?

    D. all transactions balance with the end of the day journal
  120. A medical assistant, made an incorrect entry into her patients medical record. Shes understand that corrections in the medical record are made by 

    C. drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it 
  121. It is recommened that a multipurpose ABC fire extinguisher be readily available and prominently mounted in a visible, convenient place int he medical office. All employees must be trained in the use of the fire extinguisher. The proper way to operate a fire extinguisher is to 

    D. pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle 
  122. What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?

    A. days and hours that physician performs hospital rounds 
  123. When a patient cancels his or her appointment or merely does not show up, the correct course of action is to 

    B. call the aptient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database
  124. Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter?

    A. July 27, 2011
  125. When making travel arrangements for thr physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called 

    A. an itinerary 
  126. Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area?

    B. invite the patient into a room out of the reception area 
  127. When patients arrive at the physicians office, medical records should not be found lying on the reception desk in view of patients signing in or approaching the desk. Avoiding this situation prevents violation of regulations established by the 

    C. health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)
  128. The method used to accommodate appointmments for minor emergencies in the physicians office is to 

    B. leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule 
  129. To prevent back pain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended?

    D. keep feet together 
  130. A method of priritizing patients so that the most urgent receive care first is called 

    B. triage 
  131. An approach of sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients beginsfrom the initial contact with the medical receptionist to the conclusion of the patients treatment. This approach is known as 

    B. empathy 
  132. Which of the following type of magazines or journals should not be in the reception area?

    B. physician professional journals 
  133. Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)?

    D. the physician or medical facility which initiaited and developed the record 
  134. Medical reocrds in thish medical office are filed alphabetically. Arrange the following names in alphabetical order to prepare them for filing. Select the sequence of the numbers correctly that alphabetizes the names. 
    (1) Smith, James 
    (2) Smithson, Jane 
    (3) Smithy, J
    (4) sMITHE, John

    B. (1),(4),(2),(3)
  135. Whean an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the 

    D. packing slip 
  136. When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should 

    D. document the failed appointment in the patients chart 
  137. Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used especially to identify markets?

    B. demographic 
  138. According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with 

    B. blood 
  139. Sterile fiels rules include all of the following EXCEPT 

    B. sterile team members do not need to face each other 
  140. When performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned 

    C. below the elbows 
  141. The cleansing process used to remove debris such as blood, tissue, and other body fluids from medical instruments or equipment is called 

    B. sanitation 
  142. The destruction of all microorganizams is essential for surgical asepsis. The methos often used in the medical office that completely destrops microorganisms is 

    C. sterilization 
  143. Monica is responsible for sterilizing instruments. she places a biological sterilization indicator into the autoclave to test the effectivenes of the sterilization process. What information is provided by thr biological sterilization indicator?

    C. the presence of spores in the autoclave 
  144. Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of 

    C. chemicals 
  145. Which one of the following is the primary methos for sterilizing instruments and equipment?

    D. autoclave 
  146. Which of the following are applied to the outside of the material used to wrap insturments or supplies for the autoclave that lets you know when an item or items have been sterilized?

    B. sterilization indicators 
  147. The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to 

    B. allow the items to dry 
  148. A stainless steel instrument with a handle at one end and two prongs at the other end used to test hearing is a 

    B. tuning fork
  149. Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis?

    D. hemostat clamp 
  150. Instruments used to take blood pressure are the 

    A. sphygmomanometer and stethoscope 
  151. What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

    B. retractos 
  152. What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate?

    D. EKG
  153. When obtaining a patients blood pressure, the patients arm should she 

    B. at the level of the heart
  154. The instrument used to view the urinary bladder is 

    D. a cystscope 
  155. Forceps are used to 

    A. hold tissue 
  156. A marked drop in blood pressure is found with 

    D. shock 
  157. The signs and symptoms of IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) do not include 

    A. weight loss 
  158. To obtain the most accourate rate, respirations should be counted for 

    C. 60 seconds 
  159. Which of the following is not associated with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?

    A. type II
  160. The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of 

    D. 60-80 beats per minute 
  161. Normal bacteris that are found in the intestinal tract and are the common cause of lower tract urinary infections (due to improper hygiene after bowel movements), are

    A. E. coli 
  162. A sudden attack, such as that observed in epilepsy is known as 

    B. a seizure 
  163. The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is

    B. radial 
  164. The knee chest position is used for examination of the 

    C. rectum 
  165. A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?

    B. fowlers 
  166. Cheyne Stokes describes a 

    B. type of respiration 
  167. Which statement is considered to be closed-ended?

    A. Do you have a headache?
  168. Cardinal signs are also known as 

    D. blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations 
  169. You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to be faint. into what position do you quickly place your patient in?

    D. Trendelenburg
  170. What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope?

    B. apical 
  171. Two tablespoon of medication are equal to 

    B. 30 ml
  172. Samantha is adminstering an infants first dose of the Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis vaccine. What is the safest site for an intramuscular injection on the infant?

    B. vastus lateralis 
  173. Sarah has been given the following physician order: give keflex 1 gram orally now. the drug that is available is the Kefles 250mg per capsule. How many capsules should the aptient receive 

    D. 4
  174. Tim is newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes Mellitus. Tim si recieving insulin. His medical assistant knows that Tim needs to be taught to be cautious about which of the following adverse effects?

    C. hypogylcemic reaction 
  175. Which of the following type of intramuscular injections is recommended for the irritating or staining medications?

    B. z track
  176. While administering an intramussular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

    D. withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over
  177. Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records?

    B. subpoena duces tecum 
  178. Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages?

    B. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance 
  179. Muscles are attached to bones by 

    B. tendons
  180. A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is 

    a. an open fracture 
    b. a compund fracture 
    c. a comminuted fracture 
    d. a greenstick fracture 
    ac. a comminuted fracture 
  181. The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the 

    D. fibrous pericardium 
  182. A patient diagnosed with epistaxis has 

    A. bloody nose 
  183. The thoracic cavity is lined by the

    A. pleural membrane
  184. When gastric contents leaks into the abdominal cavity from perforation of the stomach it is called:

    C. peritonitis 
  185. The largest glandular organ in the body is the 

    B. liver 
  186. The urinary system consists of 

    B. two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra 
  187. With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is incorrect?

    B. iron- nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks
  188. A genetic disorder characterized by the inability of the blood to clot properly is 

    A. hemophilia
  189. The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the insurrance of an insurance benefit plan is called 

    B. a pre existing conditions waiver
  190. The hormone responsible for ovulation is 

    B. LH
  191. Medicare Part B covers 

    C. prescription medical equipment 
  192. Encephalopathy is defined as 

    C. any dysfunction of the brain
  193. The medical term for indigestion is 

    D. dyspepsia 
  194. A range of usual fees in the same community is the 

    C. prevailing fee
  195. This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities. 

  196. The surgical incision into the abdomen is 

    B. laparotomy
  197. This type of check has a detachable form.  The detachable portion is used to itemize or specify the purpose for which the check is drawn and shows discounts and various itemizations.  The detachable portion is removed before the check is presented for payment.

    B. voucher check 
  198. When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the 

    D. packing slip 
  199. Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the follwoing medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest.  Select the correct terminal digit order sequence.
    (1) 06 14 06
    (2) 06 06 06
    (3) 06 05 06
    (4) 05 01 06

    C. 4, 3, 2, 1
  200. The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physicians schedule in order to 

    D. block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients 
  201. What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?

    C. days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds 
  202. Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must

    a. leave the disinfection solution in an open container to allow evaporation.
     b. leave the solution on the exam tables for 15 minutes in order to kill spores and viruses. 
    c. dilute the bleach solution with boiling water. 
    d. prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container to avoid evaporation, change the after the recommended period of expiration
    c. dilute the bleach solution with boiling water. 
  203. The third level of infection control is 

    A. sterilization
  204. Sterilization is the 

    A. destrucion of all microbial life 
  205. You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in?

    A. trendelenburg 
  206. Electrosurgery is used for 

    A. removal of benign skin lesions 
  207. When  preparing a pamphlet for the gastroenterologist’s office regarding IBS you would want to include information regarding the treatment of

    C. chronic constipation and diarrhea 
  208. Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will case 

    A. dilution of the sample with tissue fluid 
Card Set
RMA Sample Test
Practice test