C Cert.txt

  1. Assuming adequate entry speed, how much G is capable of being produced in a 60 degree banked turn?
  2. If a glider is not fitted with an elevator trim tab, how is trimming carried out?
    By an internal spring bias in the nose up or nose-down sense.
  3. What is "ground effect"?
    The partial cancellation of wing downwash caused by proximity to the ground. This results in a reduction in induced drag and an effectively flatter glide-angle.
  4. What is autorotation ?
    Autorotation is the tendency of an asymmetrically-stalled glider to rotate continuously in the rolling plane. Spinning is an autorotative manoeuvre with the nose pointing steeply down.
  5. What causes autorotation?
    Autorotation is caused in the first instance by the loss of lateral damping on a stalled wing.
  6. If you blow lightly into the total energy venturi of a variometer system, which way would you expect the vario needle to move?
  7. You are in a gentle turn with the bank slowly increasing and the stick coming steadily back at a constant nose attitude. What is likely to happen if the stick continues to come back?
    The glider will probably spin.
  8. What is meant by a balanced turn?
    A properly coordinated turn without slip or skid.
  9. What effect does aspect ratio have on induced drag?
    The higher the aspect ratio (ie the 'skinnier' the wing), the lower the induced drag.
  10. A glider is flying at 60 Kt into a 20kt headwind with a reading of 2kts down on the variometer. The airfield is 10NM away. What height will you have on arrival at the field if you set off home at 4,000ft?
    1,000 feet (ground spped 40kts. 10nm takes 15 mins. 2kts down = 200ft per minute = 3000 ft height loss).
  11. What is the optimal bank for minimum height loss in a turn at 1.5Vs?
    Theoretically 50 degrees, but for practical purposes, 45 to 50 degrees.
  12. Which is the best wing for the ground crew to hold onto during a crosswind takeoff?
    The downwind wing, because it is easier to help a pilot out of a groundloop situation.
  13. What is the effect of water ballast on stalling speed?
    It is increased.
  14. What is the effect of water ballast on climb performance?
    It is degraded.
  15. What is the effect of water ballast on glide angle?
    It remains the same but occurs at a higher airspeed.
  16. Why are there two rings fitted to the end of a launching rope or cable?
    To ensure that the pull exerted by the small ring on the hook is always straight and not at an angle.
  17. What is the dominant control in incipient spin recovery?
    The elevator.
  18. In a crosswind landing using the crab method of approach, are the controls crossed when the glider touches down?
    Yes, to counter the secondary effect of the rudder when drift is kicked off.
  19. What is meant by the "non-manoeuvring area"?
    The area of sky within which, if a launch failure occurred, the glider would be too high to land ahead within the remaining strip length and too low to manoeuvre to join a circuit.
  20. Which way does the aiming point move if the glider is overshooting?
    Downwards in the canopy.
  21. When is a glider permitted to fly in a Danger Area?
    Anytime with care.
  22. When is a glider permitted to fly in a Restricted Area?
    Only in compliance with specified conditions.
  23. When is a glider permitted to fly in a Prohibited Area?
  24. On which chart will Danger, Restricted and Prohibited Areas be found?
    These areas will be found on Visual Enroute Charts(VEC's) and Visual Terminal Charts(VTC's). There are also a few WAC charts available with these areas marked on them.
  25. What action must a pilot take if he loses sight of the tug during aerotow?
    Release immediately.
  26. At what height above the ground must selection of an outlanding area be made on a cross country flight?
    2000 feet AGL.
  27. What wind indicators are available to assist a pilot on an outlanding?
    Cloud shadows on ground, drift in circuit (Note that these two will give wind at height, which will be a useful guide, but not quite the same as the surface wind). Wind shadows on dams, dust behind cars on dirt roads, smoke etc.
  28. What is the most common circuit planning fault in early attempts at outlanding?
    Too steep an angle, cramping the circuit.
  29. What are the five "S 's" for choosing an outlanding paddock?
    Size slope, surface, stock and surroundings. The latter check should pay particular attention to Single Wire Earth Return (SWER) lines.
  30. What are the minimum paddock standards for an aerotow retrieve from an outlanding?
    Authorised Landing Area (ALA) standard, but in any case a minimum length of 600 metres.
  31. What precautions are necessary when flying cross country on days of total fire ban?
    Non-sparking skids must be fitted to gliders. No aerotow retrieve because of fire danger from tug exhausts. Retrieve cars confined to roads and not permitted in paddock, unless it is ploughed and then only with the farmer's clearance.
  32. What are the implications of landing out and failing to contact crew by radio or telephone by last light?
    The crew will be compelled to initiate Search And Rescue (SAR) action.
  33. Name three basic precautions to take when giving an introductory flight to a relative or friend.
    No aerobatics or steep turns, gentle thermal turns. Keep flights short on rough or very hot days.
  34. What extra equipment must a glider carry for operations in a Designated Remote Area?
    An Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT). Equipment for a water-still.
  35. What qualifications does a glider pilot need to communicate with Air Traffic Services?
    Logbook endorsement as a GFA radio operator.
  36. What are the horizontal and vertical extents of an MBZ?
    15NM radius, up to 5,000ft.
  37. What does MBZ stand for?
    Mandatory Broadcast Zone.
  38. Is it mandatory for a glider to carry and use a radio in a CTAF?
    No, but if it is carried in the glider, it is advisable to monitor the CTAF frequency and broadcast if necessary.
  39. What does CTAF stand for?
    CTAF stands for Common Traffic Advisory Frequency.
  40. At what rate (in degrees Celsius per 1,000ft) does a thermal cool as it rises in clear air? What is the name given to this rate?
    3 degrees per 1,000ft: The Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate.
  41. What is meant by "atmospheric stability"?
    A temperature structure in the atmosphere whereby a rising thermal will tend to reach temperature equilibrium with its surrounds and therefore stop rising
  42. What is "water vapour"?
    The invisible moisture present in the atmosphere to some extent at all times.
  43. What is the "Dew point?"
    The temperature at which water vapour condenses into visible water droplets into the atmosphere.
  44. If a thermal is capped by a cloud, what does the cloud consist of?
    Visible water droplets (not water vapour).
  45. What happens to a thermal inside a convection cloud?
    It increases its rate of ascent due to the release of latent heat when water vapour changes its state to visible water droplets at the dew point.
  46. What is the "Coriolis force"?
    The effect of the Earth's rotation on wind.
  47. What is the effect of "Coriolis force"? on a wind blowing from a high pressure to low pressure area?
    It causes an otherwise straight flow of wind to turn into spiral patterns around areas of high and low pressures.
  48. In which direction does the wind blow around an anticyclone (high pressure)?
    Anti clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
  49. A cyclone is an extreme form of what?
  50. What is the effect of an increase in height on air temperature, air pressure, and air density?
    They all decrease with height.
  51. Which is likely to generate the most hazardous weather for gliding, a warm front or a cold front?
    A cold front (blustery winds, rain, possible thunderstorms).
  52. In what kind of pressure pattern is subsidence likely?
    An anticyclone (high pressure).
  53. What is the effect of subsidence on thermal development?
    It tends to inhibit thermal development.
  54. What is a "downburst" or "microburst"?
    An extremely string down draft, causing locally strong surface winds which are often hazardous.
  55. Where is a "downburst" or "microburst" likely to be found?
    They are found on the edges of thunderstorms, often at a considerable distance from the storm itself.
  56. What does a glider pilot do about a "downburst" or "microburst"?
    Glider pilots must avoid them at all costs, although the downburst itself may be invisible. They are sometimes marked by areas of rising dust where they reach the ground.
  57. Are the conditions following the passage of a cold front likely to be good or bad for soaring?
    Good (unstable air with enough moisture to form cumulus clouds).
Card Set
C Cert.txt
Gliding C Certificate