e Teach

Division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages

Principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

Muscular exercises using different weights and movements to increase strength or endurance in certain body parts

Muscular exercises using different speeds and styles to increase neuromuscular efficiency

Muscular exercises using different levels of energy that are performed to increase endurance, strength, or power

The ability of the neuromuscular system to provide internal tension and exert force against external resistance

The ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods

The ability of the body to maintain postural equilibrium and support joints during movement

The ability of the body to produce low levels of force and maintain them for extended periods of time

Enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension
(increasing muscle size)

The maximum force an individual's muscle can produce in a single voluntary effort, regardless of the rate of force produce

The ability to exert maximal force in the shortest amount of time

Phase of training that:
Improve muscular endurance
Improve neuromuscular efficiency
Increase flexibility
Training is unstable, yet controllable envir
Low loads high repetitions

Phase of training that:
Improve stabilization endurance
Increase prime mover strength
Improve overall work capacity
Increase lean body mass
Utilize active flexibility
Moderate loads and reps
Superset a strength exercise with a stabilization exercise

Phase of training that:
Acheive optimum levels of muscular hypertrophy
Utilize active flexibility
High volume, High loads
Moderate or low repetitions

Phase of training that:
Increase Peak Force
Motor Unit recruitment
Frequency of motor unit recruitment
Utilize active flexibility
High Loads, low reps
Longer rest periods

Phase of training that:
Increase rate of force productions
Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
Enhance prime mover strength
Enhance speed strength
Utilize dynamic flexibility
Superset 1 strength & 1 power exercise
Perform power exercises as fast as can be controlled

Lower body exercise progression

Upper body exercise progression

A resistance training system that is a variation of curcuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the curcuit is called

A squat, curl, to two arm press exercise is an example of an exercise from which phase in the OPT model?

Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles within the same muscles; this phenomenon is called?
a. Reciprocal inhibition 
b. Override mechanism 
c. Autogenic inhibition 
d. Neural inhibition

What is the best example of a zone two cardiorespiratory workout?
a. Walking at a medium pace 
b. Taking a group exercise class 
c. Sprinting 
d. Jogging at a slow pace

What is the low-end percentage of maximum heart rate used in zone three?
a. 65%-75% 
b. 76%-79% 
c. 91%-94% 
d. 86%-90%

The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?

What is the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns?
a. Postural distortion patterns 
b. Relative flexibility 
c. Muscle imbalance 
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction

Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?
a. Core-Stabilization 
b. Core Strength 
c. Core-Power 
d. Core-Reactive

Which of the following is an example of a Core  Stabilization level exercise?
a. Ball crunch 
b. Back extensions 
c. Two-leg floor bridge 
d. Rotation chest pass

With the movement compensation of arms fall forward, for what area would a client use foam rolling and static stretching techniques?
a. Latissimus dorsi 
b. Rhomboids 
c. Lower trapezius 
d. Upper trapezius

During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, what muscles would most likely be underactive?

During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive? 
a. Gluteus medius 
b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO) 
c. TFL (Tensor Fascia Latae) 
d. Medial hamstrings

What describes the alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows our center of gravity to be maintained over our base of support?
a. Posture 
b. Structural efficiency 
c. Postural equilibrium 
d. Neuromuscular efficiency

Which of the following would be for best for measuring body fat percentages in an obese client?
a. Circumference measurements 
b. Body mass index 
c. Skin fold measurements 
d. Waist to hip ratio

When performing the overhead squat assessment from the anterior view, which areas should the fitness professional focus on?

Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
a. Davies test 
b. Overhead squat assessment 
c. Shark skill test 
d. Lower extremity strength assessment: squat

The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonist, and stabilizers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion.

The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist

The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover

Cumulative injury cycle

States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress, creating alterations in normal tissue extenibility and causes relative flexibility

Flexibility continum

Stretching techniques that focuses on the fiberous tissue that surrounds and separates muscle tissue, by applying gentle force to adhesions (knots)

The state in which the body's metabolism is elevated after exercise; meaning the body is burning more calories after exercise than before the exercise was initiated

Programs consisting of a series of resistance training exercises that an individual performs, one after the other, with minimum rest.

The lumbo-pelvic-hip complex and the thoracic and cervical spine, where the body's center of gravity is located

How many muscles are attached to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle. The muscles need to sustain contractions for 6-20 seconds

The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all musclesto work together with proper activation and timing between them; primarily geared toward movement of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex.

Muscles of the core

The __________ system consists of:
Transverse abdominis
Internal obliques
Pelvic floor musculature
Diaphragm
Transversospinalis
Multifidus
Slow twitch type I muscle fibers

The _______system consists of:
Rectus abdominis
Erector spinae
External obliques
Latissimus dorsi
Adductors
Hamstrings
Iliopsoas

Exercises designed to improve functional capacity (and examples)

Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movements of the spine throughout a full range of motion
(and examples)

Exercises designed to improve rate of force production (and examples)

Fitness assessment
Subjective information

Fitness assessment
Objective information

PAR-Q

PAR-Q Sample Questions

Client occupation sample questions:

Client lifestyle sample questions

Client medical history sample questions

A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
a. Leg-power 
b. Leg-stabilization 
c. Balance-stabilization 
d. Balance-power

A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?
a. Overworking 
b. Alarm reaction 
c. Exhaustion 
d. Resistance development

A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?
a. Stabilization 
b. Strength 
c. Power 
d. Reactive

Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?
a. The top number in the blood pressure reading 
b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts 
c. The larger of the two numbers 
d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood

During the pushing assessment, you notice your client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?
a. Chin tuck 
b. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise 
c. Ball wall squats 
d. Ball cobra

For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?
a. Treadmills 
b. Bicycles 
c. Elliptical trainers 
d. Group exercise classes

If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?
a. Soleus 
b. Biceps femoris (short head) 
c. Medial gastrocnemius 
d. TFL

Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system?
a. Multiple set 
b. Pyramid 
c. Circuit training 
d. Vertical loading

The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements?
a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation 
b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation 
c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation 
d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?
a. Shark skill 
b. Upper extremity strength 
c. Davies 
d. Overhead squat

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client’s blood pressure?

What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?

What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?
a. 1%-2% 
b. 5%-10% 
c. 10%-15% 
d. 15%-20%

What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as?

When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, what kinetic chain checkpoints are observed

When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscles?

When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?
a. Romanian deadlift 
b. Squat Jump 
c. Seated row 
d. Single-leg cable row

When performing theoverhead squat assessment, your client’s arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?
a. Rhomboids 
b. Supraspinatus 
c. Teres major 
d. Teres minor 

When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
a. Single-leg, alternating arm 
b. Single-leg, single-arm 
c. Two legs 
d. Seated 

When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
a. Balance-power 
b. Balance-strength 
c. Balance-stabilization 
d. Balance-plyometric 

When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?

Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
a. Seated cable row 
b. Standing cable row 
c. Medicine ball pull over throw 
d. Seated lat pull down 

Which of the following exercises is the best example of a stabilization level exercise?
a. Lunge to two-arm press 
b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press 
c. Barbell squat 
d. Squat jumps to stabilization 

Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?
a. Tuck jump 
b. One-ins 
c. Ice skaters 
d. Power step-ups 

Which of the following is considered a core power exercise?
a. Cable rotation 
b. Back extension 
c. Rotation chest pass 
d. Marching 

Which of the following muscles is considered part of the global stabilization system?
a. Internal oblique 
b. External oblique 
c. Diaphragm 
d. Hip flexors 

You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?
a. Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching 
b. Self-myofascial release only 
c. Self-myofascial release and static stretching 
d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching 

You observe that your client’s knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment; what muscle would you foam roll and static stretch?
a. TFL 
b. Glute medius 
c. VMO 
d. Medial hamstring

What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?
a. Zone 1 
b. Zone 2 
c. Zone 3 
d. Zone 4

A client with goal of improving general performance should specifically be cycled through which phases

How long does it take for the body to replenish 100% of its ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) supplies?

Performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest

Which phase(s) of training uses superset techniques?

Acute variables determine which of the following?
a. What type of workout is being done 
b. Progression of the exercise 
c. Proper kinetic chain alignment 
d. The amount of stress placed on the body 

During a Phase 3: Hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?

During the stabilization phase, which tempo would be most appropriate for resistance training exercises?
a. 3/2/1 
b. 2/0/2 
c. 4/2/1 
d. 1/1/1 

In Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise should be completed?

In Phase 3: Hypertrophy training, what is the appropriate tempo to use for a core exercise?
a. Slow 
b. Medium 
c. Fast 
d. Explosive 

In the power phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate?
a. Step-up followed by tuck jump 
b. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump 
c. Step-up followed by barbell squat 
d. Barbell squat followed by step-up 

In the strength endurance phase, which exercise superset would be most appropriate?
a. Bench press followed by a push-up 
b. Push-up followed by bench press 
c. Push-up followed by a seated cable row 
d. Bench press followed by a soccer throw

The adaptation ofmuscular endurance is achieved by which of the following?
a. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM 
b. 2-4 sets, 12-25 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM 
c. 2-4 sets, 12-25 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM 
d. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM 

When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
a. 20 reps 
b. 10 reps 
c. 60 reps 
d. 30 reps 

When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per exercise should be performed?
a. 6-10 
b. 1-5 
c. 8-12 
d. 4-8

Mechanoreceptor that:
Senses tension and rate of tension developed and cause relaxation

Mechanoreceptor that:
Senses pressure, acceleration, and deceleration at a joint

Mechanoreceptor that:
Senses length and rate of length change, causing contraction

What kind of muscle fibers are "fast twitch"?

All movement is directly dictated by the nervous system.
True
False

The 3 components of the cardiovascular system

Sagittal plane exercises:

Frontal plane exercises

Transverse plane exercises

Abduction and adduction occur in which plane of motion

Arterioles branch out into vessels know as:
a. Venules 
b. Capillaries 
c. Bloodvessels 
d. Veins

What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?
a. Cardiac output 
b. Heart rate 
c. Stroke volume 
d. Blood pressure 

Where does reoxygenated blood leave the heart and go to the entire body?
a. Right ventricle 
b. Left ventricle 
c. Right atrium 
d. Left atrium

Which of the following are the two most important functions of the skeletal system?
a. Transference of energy and support 
b. Transference of energy and movement assistance 
c. Leverage and movement assistance 
d. Leverage and support 

Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds?
a. ATP-CP 
b. Glycolysis 
c. Oxidative 
d. Krebs cycle 

Which of the following is an example of a force-couple
relationship?
a. Posterior deltoid and pectoralis major during a bench press 
b. Gluteus maximus and psoas during a lunge 
c. Internal and external oblique during a medicine ball side throw 
d. Deltoid and latissimus dorsi during a shoulder press 

Responsible for movement of bones around a joint?

The primary function of the muscular system

Which of the following muscles aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints?
a. Pectoralis minor 
b. Lower trapezius 
c. Serratus anterior 
d. Rhomboids

A cellular structure that supplies energy for many biochemical cellular processes by undergoing enzymatic hydrolysis is known as:
a. adenenosine triphosphate. 
b. blood. 
c. neurotransmitters. 
d. mitochondria. 

After completing the three-minute step test, the client falls into the category of fair. What training zone would ideally fit this client's current cardiorespiratory capabilities?

All of the following items are potential responses in the system when a stressor is too much to handle EXCEPT:
a. Stress fracture 
b. Muscle strain 
c. Emotional fatigue 
d. Muscle spasm 

Amino acids that are manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen and fragments of carbohydrate and fat are termed what?

Ankle sprains have been shown to decrease neural control to which of the following muscles?
a. Gluteus medius 
b. Tensor fascia latae 
c. Lateral gastrocnemius 
d. Anterior tibialis 

Balance and neuromuscular efficiency are improved through repetitive exposure to a variety of which of the following kinds of conditions?
a. Multisensory conditions 
b. Unusual conditions 
c. Motor conditions 
d. Progressive conditions 

Skin-fold, bioelectrical impedance, and underwater weighing assess which of the following?

If a client demonstrates the movement compensation of an arching low back (anterior pelvic tilt) during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following choices would be implicated as being tight (overactive)?
a. Rectus abdominus 
b. Multifidi 
c. Erector spinae 
d. Adductor complex 

If a client demonstrates the movement compensation of feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak (underactive)?
a. Psoas 
b. Lateral gastrocnemius 
c. Soleus 
d. Medial gastrocnemius 

If a client's low back arches while pressing overhead, it could be indicative of which of the following?
a. Overactive intrinsic core stabilizers 
b. Overactive latissimus dorsi 
c. Underactive hip flexors 
d. Overactive biceps femoris 

If it is noticed that a client's arms fall forward during the descent part of the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak
(underactive)?
a. Latissimus dorsi 
b. Pectoralis minor 
c. Lower trapezius 
d. Teres major 

If protein intake exceeds the need for synthesis and energy needs are met, what then happens next?
a. It is excreted through the system 
b. It is used for muscle growth 
c. It is deaminated and stored as fat 
d. It reduces water retention 

In the integrated flexibility continuum, static stretching is considered what type of flexibility?
a. Corrective 
b. Active 
c. Functional 
d. Neuromuscular 

Knowing that a client wears dress shoes to work is helpful for the Health and Fitness Professional to know during an assessment because:

Alterations in length-tension relationships, force-couple
relationships, and arthrokinematics can decrease what

Amino acids that are manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen and fragments of carbohydrates and fats are termed what?

Prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle, resulting in:
a. reciprocal inhibition. 
b. excitation inhibition. 
c. facilitation inhibition. 
d. autogenic inhibition. 

If a client demonstrates the movement compensation of feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak (underactive)?
a. Psoas 
b. Lateral gastrocnemius 
c. Soleus 
d. Medial gastrocnemius 

What is the recommended rest interval between pairs when training in the Power Level of the Optimum Performance Training Model?

What is the term given to an anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body?
a. Contralateral 
b. Abduction 
c. Lateral 
d. Ipsilateral 

What motion is the rectus abdominus responsible for?
a. Concentrically accelerating spinal extension 
b. Eccentrically decelerating spinal flexion 
c. Eccentrically decelerating ipsilateral rotation only 
d. Concentrically accelerating spinal flexion 

Which of the following heart rate training zones increases endurance and trains the anaerobic threshold?
a. Zone 1 
b. Zone 2 
c. Zone 3 

The idea that there is a certain/optimum length at which a muscle can produce the greatest amount of force is termed what?
a. Force-Velocity curve 
b. Force-Couple relationship 
c. Muscular leverage 
d. Length-Tension relationship 

The single most functional unit of the nervous system is a neuron. What are its three major components?

Which of the following energy source(s) are used while training in the first Phase of the OPT Model, Stabilization Endurance Training?

The amino acid that is missing or present in the smallest amount is termed:
a. lacking factor. 
b. limiting factor. 
c. essential amino acid. 
d. incomplete protein. 

Metabolic specificity is best defined as:
a. the weights and movements placed on the body. 
b. the speed of contraction and exercise selection. 
c. the energy demand placed on the body. 
d. the number of calories taken to complete the exercise.

What four sites of the body are used to determine a sum for the Durnin-Womersley formula

When performing the Shark skill test, how much time do you add to the completion time for each fault