1. Why is it unlikely that genetically engineered strains of bacteria wouldpose a threat to the environment?
    Genetically engineered strains of bacteria are poor competitors of wild strains.
  2. Human genetics can be effectively studied using:
    population studies of large extended families.
  3. The normal human karyotype contains _______________ chromosomes.
  4. In genomic imprinting:
    the expression of a gene depends on which parent it is inherited from.
  5. The Human Genome Project:
    All of these.
  6. The human genome contains about _______________ genes.
  7. About what percentage of the human DNA codes for polypeptides?
  8. Polyploidy is:
    the presence of multiple sets of chromosomes.
  9. Aneuploidies describe:
    a condition in which an extra chromosome is present or one is absent.
  10. The sperm in the figure below were most likely produced by:
  11. Autosomal monosomy is not seen in live births because:
    its effects are so lethal as to cause spontaneous abortion early in pregnancy.
  12. Nearly half of the pregnancies that end in miscarriage have:
    major chromosomal abnormalities.
  13. Persons having an XO karyotype are sterile females. They have______________ syndrome.
  14. Down syndrome is an example of a _____________ condition.
  15. Persons having an XXY karyotype are nearly normal males but produce few or no sperm. They have _____________ syndrome.
  16. A karyotype reveals that an individual is XYY. Based on your knowledge of human genetics you correctly conclude that this individual is phenotypically _______ and ________.
    male; fertile
  17. Translocation occurs when:
    part of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a nonhomologous chromosome.
  18. In a chromosomal inversion a segment of a chromosome is:
  19. Individuals who are ____________ for sickle cell hemoglobin tend to be____________ resistant to falciparum malaria, but do not experience the effects ofsickled red blood cells.
    heterozygous; more
  20. Gene therapy is:
    replacing a mutant allele in certain body cells with a normal allele.
  21. The current status of gene therapy is:
    it is being evaluated to assess the risks associated with potential side effects.
  22. Cells become progressively committed to specific patterns of geneactivity and developmental fate through a process known as:
  23. Cells become progressively organized into recognizable structuresthrough a process known as:
  24. The concept of nuclear equivalence states that:
    all of the somatic cells in an adult organism have the same genes.
  25. Regulation of development takes place mostly at the level of:
  26. Totipotent nuclei are capable of:
    controlling the expression of other genes in the nucleus.
  27. Cloning mammals has proven to be:
    a process with a low success rate and a high incidence of genetic defects.
  28. Cells able to divide and form some types of cells in an organism are called:
    pleuripotent stem cells.
  29. Totipotent human stem cells can apparently be obtained only from:
  30. Embryonic stem cells cannot develop into ______ cells.
  31. The only known source of embryonic stem cells is:
    early human embryos.
  32. Evolution is genetic change in ____________ that occurs over time.
    a population
  33. Passing on traits or characteristics that were acquired during the
    • lifetime of an organism to its offspring is a concept that is attributed to:
    • Jean Baptiste de Lamarck.
  34. On the Galapagos Islands, Charles Darwin questioned why:
    the island species resembled those from South America.
  35. Who proposed that the Earth’s geological features formed slowly over time, creating long periods for evolution?
    Charles Lyell
  36. _________________ penned an essay stating that populations have thecapability to outgrow their food supply resulting in disease, famine, and competition.
    • Thomas Malthus
    • D. Lamarck
  37. Evolutionary modifications that improve the survival and reproductive
    • success of an organism are called:
    • adaptations.
  38. Differential reproductive success is equivalent to:
    natural selection.
  39. Darwin might have made greater advances in his theory if he had:
    understood the work of Gregor Mendel.
  40. During the 1920s to 1940s, biologists combined Mendelian genetics with Darwin’s theory to form a unified explanation of evolution that is referred to as:
    the modern synthesis.
  41. What process ultimately provides the genetic variability that naturalselection acts on during evolution?
  42. Perhaps the most direct evidence for evolution comes from:
    the fossil record.
  43. Which of the following would be least likely to form a fossil?
    an organism in the tropical rain forest
  44. Fossilized remains of humans and their immediate ancestors are found:
    only in relatively young rock.
  45. Paleontologists have pieced together from fossils the evolution of the whale from: four-legged, land dwelling mammals.
    C. sharks.
  46. Bird wings and insect wings are considered to be:
    homoplastic structures.
  47. The front limbs of birds and bats, both wings, are considered to be:
    homologous structures.
  48. When populations with separate ancestors adapt in similar ways tosimilar environmental constraints, it is referred to as:
    convergent evolution.
  49. If two species have homologous structures:
    the species are related by a common ancestry.
  50. The indigenous plants and animals of the Galapagos Islands and CapeVerde Islands:
    resemble the nearest mainland species, but have evolved into new species.
  51. Australia has distinctive organisms, such as egg-laying mammals andpouched mammals (marsupials), because they have:
    been separated and isolated from other land masses for a long period of time.
  52. All of the individuals of the same species that inhabit the same place atthe same time are known as:
    a population.
  53. The study of the genetic variability within a population and the forcesthat change allele frequencies is:
    population genetics.
  54. All of the alleles for all the loci present in a population is called the:
    gene pool.
  55. If a population of 1000 individuals has 160 aa genotypes, assuming simple dominance by the A allele, the phenotype frequency of the dominant phenotypeis:
  56. If a population of 1000 individuals has 250 aa genotypes, assuming only 2 types of alleles (A&a), the expected a allele frequency is:
  57. A population in which the allele and genotype frequencies do not change over time is said to be in:
    genetic equilibrium.
  58. What is the correct equation for the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
    p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
  59. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the term q2 refers to the frequency of:
    the homozygous recessive genotype at a given locus.
  60. The Hardy-Weinberg principle of genetic equilibrium tells us what toexpect when a sexually reproducing population is:
    at genetic equilibrium.
  61. Which of the following causes changes in allele frequencies?
    All of these.
  62. __________________________ is thought to be due to increased homozygosity.
    Inbreeding depression
  63. Positive assortative mating in a population will:
    ncrease homozygosity.
  64. The ultimate source of all new alleles is:
  65. Random evolutionary changes in a small breeding population is knownas:
    genetic drift.
  66. The process that decreases the number of organisms with phenotypesless fit to meet environmental challenges is:
    natural selection.
  67. In ____________ selection, individuals with a phenotype near the meanare favored over those at the phenotypic extremes.
  68. When phenotypes are favored at one extreme of a normal distribution,____________ selection occurs.
  69. The presence of two or more different alleles in a population for a givenlocus is termed:
    genetic polymorphism.
  70. Frequency-dependent selection acts to decrease the frequency of whichphenotype in a population?
    the most common phenotype
  71. Mutations that may confer no apparent selective advantage in aparticular environment are referred to as:
    neutral variations.
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