1. Are further diagnostic signs other than history and clinical signs usually needed to diagnose Canine Infectious tracheobronchitis?
    No, usually self-limiting resolves within 7-14 days
  2. In what animals is collapsing trachea most common?
    Middle-aged small dogs
  3. What type of treatment for collapsing trachea is adequate for most animals?
    Medical therapy (weight loss, avoid collars, cough suppressants, corticosteroids...)
  4. In feline bronchitis, if bronchi lumen decrease by 50% how much does air flow decrease?
    16X decreased
  5. What is the key feature of canine chronic bronchitis?
    Chronic cough (months to years)
  6. What physical conditions predispose animals to Canine Atopic dermatitis?
    • Impaired skin barrier function
    • Th1/Th2 imbalance that favors development of IgE
  7. What is the age of onset of canine atopic dermatitis?
    B/t one and two years of age
  8. Where does canine atopic dermatitis typically manifest on the dog? 3
    • Facial
    • Ventral
    • Pedal
  9. How can you demonstrate allergen-specific IgE (only supports diagnosis) in canine atopic dermatitis? 2
    • Intradermal skin test
    • Serological test (ELISA)
  10. If hyposensitization works in canine atopic dermatitis, what is expected to happen?
    gradual improvement over the first 9 months
  11. What medical therapy can be used against the inflammation response in canine atopic dermatitis? 7
    • Corticosteroids
    • Antihistamines
    • Essential fatty acids
    • Misoprostol
    • Cyclosporine
    • Interferon
    • Janus kinase inhibitor
  12. What are the most important essential fatty acids for the skin? 4
    • Linoleic acid
    • Linolenic acid
    • Gamma-linolenic acid
    • Eicosapenanoic acid
  13. How long must you continue essential fatty acid therapy to accurately assess the response?
    30-60 days
  14. What is the cornerstone of therapy for canine atopic dermatitis?
  15. What immunological processes are relevant with canine food allergy?
    • IgE
    • IgG
    • Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
  16. What breeds of dogs are predisposed to canine food allergy? 3
    • German shepherds
    • Pugs
    • Rhodesian ridgebacks
  17. What is usually seen alongside canine food allergy? 4
    • Pruritus
    • Papules
    • Secondary generalized staphylococcal infection
    • Recurrent otitis externa (80% of cases)
  18. What is the only way to confirm the diagnosis of an adverse food reaction?
    Hypoallergenic diet trial followed by provocation
  19. What test has a negative predictive value of >99% in canine food allergy?
    Patch testing
  20. What type of immunological response is involved in canine contact dermatitis?
    Cell-mediated (Type 4) hypersensitivity
  21. What part of the body is affected by allergic contact dermatitis (dogs, sometimes horses)?
    Restricted to hairless parts of the body
  22. What is the recommended therapy for allergic contact dermatitis? 2
    • Remove allergen from environment
    • Remove animal from environment
  23. What is the primary lesion in feline miliary dermatitis?
    Erythematous papule that readily becomes encrusted
  24. If a feline has head and neck pruritus, what is the most likely etiology?
    Food allergy
  25. What is suspected is you see well-demarcated, raised, oozing and ulcerated plaques on the abdomen and medial thighs of a feline?
    Eosinophilic granuloma complex (eosinophilic plaque)
  26. What are the three forms of linear granulomas seen in cats?
    • Linear lesions (posterior aspect of one or both limbs)
    • Nodular lesions (mouth)
    • Swelling of the chin
  27. What ulcerated lesion of the upper lip in cats is associated with allergy?
    Eosinophilic ulcer (rodent ulcer)
  28. What type of hair loss in the cat is usually symmetrical involving the flank and ventrum, with "shorn-off" hairshaft tips?
    Self induced hair loss (Barbed alopecia)
  29. What is the most effective antihistamine for cats?
  30. What type of allergy is almost never seen in the cat?
    Contact allergy
  31. What virus is the cause of inflamed plaques in the vicinity of the nares that may ulcerate in cats?
    Feline herpesvirus-type1
  32. What virus causes "paw and mouth disease" with oral lesions accompanied by ulcerated lesions of the carpal region in cats?
    Feline calicivirus infection
  33. What is the major pathogen in canine staphylococcal pyoderma?
    Staph pseudintermedius (not a true inhabitant of normal skin)
  34. What is the most useful classification of pyodermas?
    Depth within the skin
  35. What are the three main types of surface pyodermas?
    • Bacterial overgrowth (BOG)
    • Pyotraumatic dermatitis (itch and scratch cycle)
    • Fold pyodermas
  36. What are the two main predisposing factors to pyotraumatic dermatitis (surface pyoderma)?
    • Itch-scratch-itch cycle
    • Underlying perforating folliculitis
  37. Where is the infection in impetigo (superficial pyoderma)?
    just under the stratum corneum
  38. Where is impetigo (superficial pyoderma) most common?
    Commonest in hairless areas (young puppies)
  39. In what breed of dog is mucocutaneous pyoderma (superficial pyoderma) most common?
    German Shepherds
  40. What type of superficial pyoderma originates in the hair follicle, producing papules?
    Folliculitis (favors trunk and ventral abdomen)
  41. What is the most common form of bacterial skin infection?
    Folliculitis (superficial pyoderma)
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