1103 Pharmacology Study Guide

  1. Histamine, a chemical produced by the body:



    A.
  2. Antihistamines act to competitively block the action of:



    D.
  3. Seasonal allergic rhinitis refers to:



    D.
  4. The adverse reaction most commonly associated with antihistamines is:



    C.
  5. The concurrent use of central nervous system (CNS) depressants with antihistamines would produce:



    C.
  6. Evaluation of a patient with seasonal allergic rhinitis might reveal:



    B.
  7. Antihistamines should be used in young children:



    A.
  8. A 48-year-old patient at the clinic asks you if she should be taking an antihistamine for her allergies because she also needs to be on aspirin for her arthritis. Your best response would be:



    A.
  9. You understand the following about the rebound effect that may come up during patient teaching sessions.



    D.
  10. Antitussive agents are used to:



    C.
  11. Narcotic antitussives act by:



    B.
  12. Antitussive agents are used primarily in:



    C.
  13. The most common adverse reactions to antitussives include:



    B.
  14. A 72-year-old patient is being seen at the clinic for a chronic nonproductive cough. She has been given a narcotic antitussive to use. What precautions will you instruct her about?



    B.
  15. A 65-year-old male patient being seen at the clinic for a chronic cough is also taking albuterol for asthma and ibuprofen for headaches. He asks you if it would be okay to take Cordyceps, because he heard it will help his asthma. What would be your best response?



    B.
  16. Which of the following orders has the correct antitussive dose range for adults?



    A.
  17. One of the most important points to teach a patient taking an antitussive medication would be:



    C.
  18. What is the physiologic result of bronchospasm?



    C.
  19. The two major types of bronchodilators are:



    A.
  20. The major difference between asthma and COPD is:



    B.
  21. Sympathomimetics cause a response throughout the body which produces vasoconstriction in the blood vessels of the bronchial mucosa, which results in:



    A.
  22. A 37-year-old female patient with a history of moderately severe asthma is complaining of not being hungry, feeling restless, and not able to sleep at night. You attribute her symptoms to:



    A.
  23. You have a patient who has wheezing and is complaining of shortness of breath. You would expect the physician to order which medication that will be effective in relieving bronchospasms?



    A.
  24. When sympathomimetic bronchodilators appear to be ineffective, the patient might:



    B.
  25. Refractoriness is:


    B.
  26. The main action of sympathomimetic bronchodilators is to:



    B.
  27. Mr. Allen complains that the bronchodilators keep him from falling asleep at night. You might suggest:



    C.
  28. The major differences in action between sympathomimetics and xanthine derivatives is that:



    C.
  29. Aminophylline is an important agent to use to determine if the patient has bronchospasms or pulmonary edema. This agent is in the drug family of:



    D.
  30. Chris is a 9-year-old boy who takes Theo-Dur regularly to control asthma symptoms. He has been playing in a soccer game today and came into the clinic because of constant coughing. You find that his pulse is irregular. You determine that:



    B.
  31. The half-life of xanthine bronchodilators is influence by which of the following specific factors?



    A.
  32. Monitoring the correct dosage of xanthine products is best accomplished by:



    C.
  33. A 48-year-old female patient comes to the clinic complaining that she needs to urinate frequently after taking her asthma medication and is worried that she is getting diabetes. What can you tell her?



    B.
  34. Leukotriene receptor inhibitors are drugs that:



    C.
  35. Your patient has had asthma for years and takes several different medications for management. The treatment regimen has been changes to include corticosteroids and your patient is anxious about the change. What will you say to reassure him?



    D.
  36. Cromolyn sodium is a medication used for:



    B.
  37. Leukotriene receptor inhibitors are used primarily to:



    C.
  38. Systemic corticosteroids are used primarily for the purpose of:



    B.
  39. Use of inhaled corticosteroids in asthma is for:



    D.
  40. Rebound vasodilation refers to:




    stimulation.
    D.
  41. When topical decongestants are used, which of the following can occur?



    A.
  42. An unpleasant side effect from nasal decongestants is:



    B.
  43. You are reviewing an order from the physician for a patient who has allergic rhinitis. Which of the following orders should be questioned?



    C.
  44. Your patient asks you which would be better - to take the topical decongestant or the oral one. Your response would include:



    A.
  45. It is through that expectorants work in which way?



    A.
  46. One of the major reason expectorants are used is to relieve symptoms of:



    B.
  47. You understand that common adverse reactions may occur with use of expectorants. What will you instruct your patient with regard to side effects?



    A.
  48. It is recommended that patients who are also taking anticoagulants not take which expectorant?



    A.
  49. Which expectorant must not be used continuously because it may lead to hypothyroidism?



    A.
  50. You are reviewing an order from the physician for a patient who has thick, tenacious secretions. Which of the following orders should be questioned?



    B.
  51. Expectorants work best when patients who take them also do which of the following?



    C.
  52. The main action of intranasal steroids is:



    B.
  53. Your patient has just been started on intranasal steroids and she asks you if there are any possible drug interactions. You reply:



    B.
  54. You are reviewing an order from the physician for a patient who has an intranasal steroid ordered. Which of the following orders should be questioned?



    A.
  55. Steroids pose a risk in their use because the drug may increase the risk for:



    C.
  56. Common signs of infection include:



    B.
  57. The term of an anti-infective that is effective for a large number of organisms is:



    A.
  58. Your 48-year-old patient has just been diagnosed with neuropathy from taking penicillin for treatment of bacterial endocarditis. He asks you what neuropathy means. Your best response would be:



    C.
  59. You are reviewing an order for penicillin for an adult patient. Which order would you need to ask for clarification?



    B.
  60. You are caring for a 63-year-old female patient who is being treated with sulfonamides for conjunctivitis. She asks if it is still okay to take Dyazide for her high blood pressure. Your response would include:



    C.
  61. What special instructions should you include in your teaching for patients taking sulfonamides?



    C.
  62. The following order for sulfadiazine has been written for your patient who weighs 50 kg. Which order needs to be questioned or verified?



    D.
  63. Your patient asks you want is meant by the term stomatitis. Your response would be:



    C.
  64. Tinnitus refers to:



    C.
  65. The development of proteinuria, hematuria, and crystalluria can be avoided by giving which of the following instructions to patients taking sulfonamides?



    D.
  66. Prophylactic use of antibiotics means the use of antibiotics to prevent:



    A.
  67. Broad-spectrum antibiotics commonly have which two mechanisms of action?



    D.
  68. Bacteriostatic refers to the ability of the anti-infective to:



    B.
  69. The term mixed infection refers to:



    D.
  70. Your patient asks what the doctor meant when she told him that he has a gram-negative infection. Your response would be:



    B.
  71. Broad-spectrum anti-infectives are used for which types of infections?



    D.
  72. The three types of major adverse reactions seen with antibiotic therapy include:



    B.
  73. Superinfections are commonly caused by:



    D.
  74. Your patient who has a history of many drug allergies is asking you about the possibilities of developing an allergy to the antibiotic that has been ordered for him for his urinary tract infection. Your response would be:



    A.
  75. Anaphylaxis is the most serious form of hypersensitivity and is characterized by:



    D.
  76. If a patient is allergic to penicillin, the drug of choice is often:



    D.
  77. The anti-infective ceflacor (Ceclor) is considered a:



    B.
  78. Symptoms of bone marrow depression caused by the use of anti-infectives include:



    D.
  79. The difference between oral and parenteral antibiotics is oral antibiotics are:



    C.
  80. The effect of gastrointestinal upset can be managed if the oral antibiotics are:



    C.
  81. Which order for mezlocillin should be questioned or clarified?



    C.
  82. Your patient asks you about the cephalosporin Maxipine and wants to know what third-generation cephalosporin means. Your response is:



    A.
  83. Drug resistance is related to the:



    D.
  84. Tuberculosis is a disease that requires new guidelines every year from which organization?



    C.
  85. The drugs used in treating tuberculosis that do not kill the bacterium but prevent its spread through the patient or to other individuals are known as:



    D.
  86. Drug resistance is likely to develop when what occurs?



    B.
  87. The term anti-tubercular chemoprophylaxis refers to:



    B.
  88. Many of the medications used to treat tuberculosis are associated with severe tissue damage to the:



    D.
  89. The difference between primary and secondary agents used for treatment of tuberculosis is that primary agents are:



    A.
  90. Which of the following orders as written does not have to be verified?



    C.
  91. You are taking care of a 68-year-old male patient who asks you what he should do if he misses a dose of his TB  drugs. Your response should include:



    B.
  92. Most anti-tubercular medications cause gastric irritation and should be taken with food. Identify he one medication that is better absorbed on an empty stomach.



    D.
  93. If a patient has been treated for tuberculosis previously and becomes symptomatic again, what should be suspected?



    A.
  94. Use of ethambutol may lead to the development of:



    A.
  95. What parasite causes amebiasis?



    C.
  96. What is meant by an extraintestinal infection?



    C.
  97. What are two of the major drugs used for the treatment of amebiasis?



    C.
  98. Identify the one amebicide known to cause poor coordination.



    A.
  99. What happens when a mosquito infected with malaria bites a person?



    B.
  100. Which protozoan causes malaria?



    D.
  101. Anti-malarial preparations are used for:



    D.
  102. Cinchonism is another name for:



    C.
  103. The use of any anti-malarial drugs can cause which of the following symptoms?



    C.
  104. The difference between acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is:



    B.
  105. Retroviruses are:



    A.
  106. The two types of antiretroviral medications include:



    A.
  107. AIDS-related opportunistic infections develop because the:



    A.
  108. Crix belly refers to the development of:



    A.
  109. A  mycotic infection  refers to an infection that is caused by:



    A.
  110. Fungi are found in which two major forms in the body?



    A.
  111. Four commonly used anti-fungals include:



    A.
  112. What is the name of the organism that causes fungal vaginal infections in women and that is now seen so commonly in AIDS patients?



    A.
  113. Adverse drug reactions produced by anti-fungals are:



    B.
  114. Superinfections may result with prolonged use of anti-fungals concurrently with:



    A.
  115. Your patient is suffering from allergic conjunctivitis and has nedocromil ordered, and he asks what it will do for him. Your response may be:



    D.
  116. When Melissa was born, the nurse put silver nitrate in her eyes. This is done to:



    D.
  117. Amanda Moore has been wearing contact lenses for 4 years. She has been studying late at night, and her eyes are very dry. The doctor may decide she needs to use:



    A.
  118. Topical skin preparations can be used to treat which condition?



    D.
  119. Products used for the eye must be labeled:



    C.
  120. Richard Egan has noted reduced hearing for the last few months. The doctor tells him his ear is filled with wax. The doctor will probably order:



    D.
  121. Antiseborrheic shampoo is used to treat which condition?



    A.
  122. You are advising your patient on what he needs to use for acne. Which products would you tell him about?



    A.
  123. You are instructing your patient on how to instill eardrops from the removal of wax using the medication Cerumenex. You will be sure to include in your teaching which of the following?



    B.
  124. When instructing your patient on how to instill eye ointment, you will review the technique and observe the administration of the medication by the patient and watch for application of the medication:



    A.
  125. You are caring for a child who is being seen for head lice. You expect that the classification of medications used for this problem will be:



    B.
  126. Cauterizing agents are used in the treatment of:



    B.
Author
MarieRN
ID
175622
Card Set
1103 Pharmacology Study Guide
Description
Chapters 11-13, 23
Updated