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  2. Coulter employs what type of methodology?
    Electrical impedance
  3. The height of each pulse is proportional to what? What is this called?
    • The volume/size of each cell in fL
    • Coulter principle
  4. This preserves cell shape in the coulter counter.
    Isotonic conductive solution
  5. The number of pulses corresponds to what?
    Number of cells
  6. This produces a coincidence error that is automatically corrected.
    Two or more cells passing thru the aperture simultaneously
  7. This excludes pulses below or above the adjustable height of the counters.
    Threshold setting or pulse discriminator
  8. What are the two counting chambers and what do they count?
    • RBC bath (RBCs and Plt)
    • WBC bath (WBC and Hgb)
  9. This is measured colorimetrically at 540nm.
  10. How many apertures are used for counting?
  11. If all three results disagree, none are accepted what is this called?
    Vote out (---)
  12. What are the components of a three part differential?
    • Lymphocytes
    • Mononuclears
    • Granulocytes
  13. Which differential uses VCS technology?
    Five part WBC differential
  14. What does VCS stand for?
    • Volume
    • Conductivity
    • Light Scatter
  15. This part of VCS is based on electronic impedance and provides information on size of cells.
  16. This part of VCS uses high-frequency electromagnetic probe that provides information on internal constituents.
  17. This part of VCS helps differentiate between cells of like sizes.
  18. This part of VCS uses monochromatic light scatter at a forward angle.
    S-light scatter
  19. This part of VCS helps determine cell surface characteristics like morphology and granulation.
    Light scatter
  20. What are the components of a five part differential?
    • Neutrophils
    • Basophils
    • Eosinophils
    • Monocytes
    • Lymphocytes
  21. How are abnormalities identified?
    Flagging system
  22. What are the three types of system messages in the flagging system?
    • Suspect
    • Definitive
    • Condition
  23. These flags are generated by the instrument and identify abnormal cell population or distributions.
  24. Dimorphic RBCs, immature cells, and blasts are examples of what type of message?
  25. These messages are set by the individual laboratory and define the limit of normal values.
    Definitive messages
  26. Leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, or small/large platelets are examples of what message?
    Definitive message
  27. This message indicates whether the WBC, RBC and platelet populations are normal or abnormal.
  28. This code indicates that values exceed printable ranges.
    Pluses (++++)
  29. This code indicates that a total vote out has occurred.
    Dashes (---)
  30. What should be done if a vote out occurs?
    • Check for clots
    • Rerun sample
  31. This code indicates incomplete computation, the sample should be rerun.
    Dots (…)
  32. If a WBC value is highlighted a smear should be made and checked for what three things?
    • Platelet clumps
    • Giant platelets
    • NRBC
  33. NRBC, platelet clumping and unlysed RBC’s can cause falsely ______ WBC.
  34. Clotting, smudge cells, and damaged WBC can cause falsely _____ WBC.
  35. Giant platelets and a WBC count over 50 can cause falsely _____ RBC.
  36. Clotting, in vitro hemolysis, and microcytosis can cause a falsely _______ RBC.
  37. In vitro hemolysis, WBC counts over 50, hyperbilirubinemia and lipemia can cause falsely ______ hgb.
  38. Clotting can cause a falsely ______ hgb.
  39. This is a diagram or graphic representation of frequency distribution.
  40. Histograms are based on ___________.
    Cell volume
  41. On a histogram lymphocytes are in what cell population.
  42. On a histogram mononuclears are in what cell population.
  43. On a histogram granulocytes are in what cell population.
  44. Particles with cell volume >36 but =/< 360fl are identified as what?
  45. A tail on an RBC histogram may indicate what three conditions?
    • Clumped platelets
    • Electrical interference
    • Doublets and triplets
  46. Particles between 2-20fl are counted as _____.
  47. To have a valid platelet count, what must be obtained?
    Fitted curve
  48. In no fitted curve is obtained for platelet how is the count obtained?
    Manual count
  49. This visual aid helps identify possible immature cells.
  50. Which slide stainer can be operated manually?
  51. How many slides is the hemastainer capable of holding?
  52. What are the six stations for the hemastainer and how long is each station?
    • Methanol- 15 sec
    • Wright stain- 2 min
    • Wright stain/ phosphate buffer- 5 min
    • DI water- 20 sec
    • Phosphate buffer- 1 min
    • Air dry
  53. How long does the entire hemastainer process take including drying?
    12 min
  54. In which stainer are slides carried through the staining procedure face down on a platform?
    Hema-tek 100 stainer
  55. What is the rate of staining in a hema-tek 100?
    One slide per minute
  56. What are the four stations on the hema-tek 100?
    • Wright stain
    • Buffer
    • Rinse solution
    • Air dry
  57. How often should phosphate buffer and solutions be replaced in a stainer?
Card Set
automation in hematology for MLT