C. the temperature at which a microorganism grows best
All of the following make a person less resistant to a pathogen except:
a. poor nutrition
b. immunizations
c. poor hygiene
d. stress
b. immunization
What is the purpose of the Needlestick Saftey and Prevention Act?
A. to redure needlestick injuries among health care workers
How often does the Occupationsl Safety and health Administration require employers to revew and update their Exposure Control Plan?
A. once a year
What is the immunization schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine?
C. 0, 1 month, 6 months
Patients with chronic hepatitis B face an increased risk for developing:
C. liver cancer
What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?
A. sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
Which od the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?
E. all of the above
According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included on the label of a hazardous chemical?
E. all of the above
The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is:
A. 250 F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
Sterilization strips should be positioned:
A. in the center of the wrapped pack
Which of the folloqing is the best means of determining the effectiveness of the sterilization process?
D. biologic indicators
Which of the following would be best to use to wrap a large minor office surgery tray setup?
D. muslin
The recommended exposure time and temperature for a dry heat oven is
B. 320 F for 1 to 2 hours
What is the name given to the heat regulating center of the body?
A. hypothalamus
The transfer of heat from one object to another is known as:
D. conduction
Which of the following represents the average normal body temperture?
B. 98.6 F
A temperature of 100 F is classified as
B. low grade fever
What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature fluctuations occur, all of which are above normal?
A. remittent
A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness and fatigue that often marks the onset of a disease is known as:
A. malaise
If an axillary temperature of 100 F was taken orally, it would register as:
C. 101 F
After measurement of rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, the probe cover should be ejected into:
D. the regular trash
If a rectal temperature of 99 F was taken orally, it would register as:
D. 98 F
How does a temporal artery temperature reading compare with an oral body temperature reading?
B. approximatelt 1 higher than an oral reading
Chemical thermometers must be stored in:
C. a cool area
the purpose of measuring pulse includes all of the following except:
A. to determine if the patient is developing hypertension
What is the normal range for the resting pulse rate of an adult?
D. 60 to 100 beats per minute
You are meausring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should you record this?
C. regular and strong
Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia?
D. a trained athlete
The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from:
B. 12 to 20 respirations
Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate?
D. adult
What is the term used to describe temporary cessation of breathing?
D. apnea
The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is
C. SpO2
What term designates a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood
D. hypoxemia
All of the following may cause a decrease int he SpO2 reading except
a. pneumonia
b. asthma
c. emphysema
d. gastritis
d. gastritis
The systolic blood pressure represents the:
A. pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract
Which of the following has an effect on blood pressure
E. all of the above
Over which artery is the stethoscope places when taking blood pressure
A. brachial
When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents
D. the systolic pressure
When measureing blood pressure, the korotkoff phase in which the sounds disappear is
A. phase V
Which of the following may require a physical examination
E. al of the above
What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease
C. prognosis
The process of determining which of two diseases that have similar symptoms is causing a patients illness is known as:
C. differential diagnosis
Which of the following is an example of a chronic illness?
B. arthritis
A risk factor means that:
C. the chances are increased of a patient developing a certain disease
Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic procedure
C. antibiotic injection
What is the name of the instrument used to examine the interior of the eye
C. ophthalmoscope
What is the name of the instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane
A. otoscope
How should a patient be identified?
C. by name and date of birth
The process of measuring the patient is known as
C. mensuration
All of the following should be removed before weighing a patient except
B. jewelry
The lower calibration bar of the blance beam scale is diveded into
D. 50-lb increments
An adult patients weight should be measures to the nearest
B. quater pound
The patients height hsould be measured to the nearest
B. 1/4 inch
The height of an adult patient is udually measured only
C. during the first office visit
Visual acuity refers to:
A. sharpness of vision
The Snellen Big E chart is used with:
C. preschoolers
What is the most common color vision defect?
B. congenital color vision defects
Which of the following represents an error in the eye instillation technique
A. instilling drops onto the center of the cornea
The range of frequencies for normal speech is
B. 300 to 4000 hz
Which of the followning can result in conductive hearing loss
B. serous otitis media
Impacted cerumen can be softened by
C. instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear
An ear instillation may be performed to
D. treat an ear infection
Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as
C. dysfunctional uterine bleeding
A complete gynecologic examination consists of a
C. breast and pelvic examination
In what position is the patient places for a breast examination
A. supine
Which of the following positions is used to perform a pelvic examination
B. dorsal recumbent
If a pap test is being performed using the liquid-based method, the vaginal speculum should be
B. lubricated with a water based lubricant
What is the purpose of a pap test?
A. early detection of cancer of the cervix
The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to
C. determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries
The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a
B. motile protozoan
What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under he microscope a. The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline
b. a culture medium is inoculated with the vaginal discharge
c. the swab containing the discharge is placed in a tranport medium
d. the vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of potassium hydroxide
a. the vaginal discharge is palced on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline
Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidasis?
D. a patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy
If left untreated, a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in
D. infertility
Symptoms of gonorrhea in a man include
E. all of the above
Chlamydia and gonorrhea are usually diagnosed using
C. a DNA probe test
All of the following are warning signs of pregnancy except
A. heartburn
Which of the following urine tests is performed at each retuen prenatal visit
A. glucose and protein
When is a pregnant woman tested for group B streptococcus
A. 35 to 37 weeks
Obstetric ultrasound scanning is used to
E. all of the above
Amniocentesis can be used to
E. all of the above
The first pediatric well child iit is usually scheduled at
B. 1 month
Measuring pediatric blood pressure helps to identify children at risk for developing
A. hypertension
The resistance of the body to pathogenicc microorganisms or their toxins is knwon as
B. immunity
Which of the following is required by the national childhood vaccine injury act before an immunization is administered?
C. a vaccine information statemtn must be given to the childs parent to read
All of the following are included in a vaccine information sheet (VIS) except
C. lot number of the vaccine
Polyuria may be caused by
E. all of the above
Which of the following does not result in oliguria
C. edema
When collecting a clean catch midstream urine specimen, a front to back motion is used to cleanse the urinary meatus to
D. avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed
If a urine specimen is a light yellow color, this means that
D. the urine specimen does not contain many dissolves substances
Which of the following is an example of a quantiative test result
E. 500 mg/dL
Which of the following substances is normally present in urine
B. urea
How should urine reagent strips be stored
E. all of the above
Why is a first voided morning specimen preferred for performing a microscopic examination of urine
C. it contains more dissolved substances
What effect does concentrated urine have a red blood cells
B. it causes them to shrink and become crenated
Which of the following represents an error in technique when performing a urine pregrancy test
E. none of the above
All of the following are correct techniques for applying a tourniquet except
D. leaving the tourniquet on for at least 2 minutes before drawing the specimen
On palpation, a scarred vein feels
A. stiff and hard
Your physician has requested an electrolyte profile on a patient. The laboratory directory indicated this test requires 4 ml of serum. Which of the following tubes should be used to collect the specimen
E. a 10 ml red stoppered tube
If a fibrin clot forned in the serum layer of a blood specimen, it would
C. interfere with adequate serum collection
Which of the following is typically not found in the medical chart?
B. patient ledger card
According to the food pyramid, which of the following nutrients should be consumed least?
B. oils
Cardiac cells in a resting, negatively charged state are known as
A. polarization
Which of the following is considered a dissecting instrument
C. surgical scissors
A drug that is used to prevnt disease is
E. prophylactic
Which of the following should be assessed first when rendering first aid?
B. pulse
Which of the following is a subdivision of the microbiology department?
A. parasitology
All of the following are signs of decomposing urine EXCEPT
C. pH becomes acidic
The study f blood and blood forming tissues is known as
B. hematology
Which of the following is the smallest pathogen?
A. epstein barr virus
Which of the following documents is usually found only in the problem oriented medical record?
E. problem list
An instrument used to test hearing is a(n)
E. tuning fork
A diet of plant foods supplemented with dairy products and eggs is called
A. lacto-ovo vegetarian
All of the following are included in the cardiac electical conduction system EXCEPT
B. sinoatrial septum
An instrument used to grasp or clamp down objects is a(n)
D. forceps
A drug's generic name is best illustrated by which one of the following?
E. salicylic acid
When rendering first aid to a choking infant, all of the following may be performed EXCEPT
D. finger sweep
Which of the following health personnel are trained to perform the majority of laboratoru procedures?
B. medical technologist
The physician examination of urine includes
E. all of the above
Equal concentration of solute inside and outside a cell is known as
B. isotonic
All of the following are included in a Gram stain EXCEPT
A. new methylene blue
Which of the following materials does not require the use of universal precautions?
D. faces
Examination of the back may be performed when the patient is in al of the following positions EXCEPT
B. trendelenburg
The constructive process of building up new substances is called
B. anabolism
Atrial depoloarization is represented by the
D. P wave
Which of the following suture sizes is the largest?
A. OO
All of the following are liquid preparations EXCEPT
D. troche
When performing CPR on an adult, chest compressions should be
D. 1 and one half to 2 inches
The most common bloodbourne pathogen
D. HBV
The unit of measure for urine specific gravity is
E. none of the above
The first step when performing a capillary puncture is to
A. identify the patient
All of the following are Gram-positive cocci EXCEPT
E. neisseria meningitidis
Which of the following may affect body temperature?
E. all of the above
All of the following materials are associated with an ophthalmologist exam EXCEPT
D. otoscope
A unit of heat energy is
B. calorie
Ventricular depolarization is represented by the
C. QRS complex
Which of the following surgical procedures is used to remove abscesses?
A. incision and drainage
Common signs and symptoms of drug abuse include
C. A and B only
The compression to ventilation ratio for adult, one-rescuer CPR is
E. 15:1
Treating all body fluids as it they are infectious regardless of their true pathogenicity is called
D. universal precautions
Microscopic structures found in the urine that are composed of precipitated protein are called
E. casts
RBCs that are pale in color indicate
E. hypochromia
A bacillus that stains red with Gram stain is
D. GNR
All fo the following are characteristics of the pulse EXCEPT
A. depth
Diagnostic imaging is best associated with which of the following specialties?
E. orthopedics
Nutritional elements containing the most calories per gram are
D. fats
Process of cleaning or freeing materials from dirt is called
B. sanitization
Most drugs are metabolized by the
E. liver
Burns that require immediate activation of local EMS include
D. burns that casue breathing difficulties
Details regarding the health status of the patients partents and siblings are known as the
C. family history
An examination method that requires the use os a stethoscope is
C. auscultation
The best siurce of vitamin D is
E. cheese
A bipolar limd lead
D. I
All of the following are methods of disinfection EXCEPT
C. antiseptics
All of the following may be consulted for drug information EXCEPT
C. medical dictionary
All of the following are common causes of breathing emergencies EXCEPT
A. strains
Which of the following illustrates an engineering control?
A. sharps container
The normal transparency of freshly voided urine is
A. clear
Neisseria gonorrheae is morphologically described as
B. GNC
The following identifies the action to be taken to solve a medical problem such as treatment, medication, surgery, referral, etc.
C. plan
All of the following insturments are commonly used during a routine physical examination EXCEPT
B. thumb forceps
Replacing nutritional elements lost during the processing of food is known as
C. enrichment
Placement at the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
D. V2
A grooved instrument used to guide the direction and depth of a surgical incision is a(n)
B. director
An example of a Schedule IV drug is
E. valium
Shock caused by sudden blood or body fluid loss
D. hypovolemic
A form prepared by the manufacturer that describes a substance's physical and chemical characteristics is
A. MSDS
Allof the following are included int he chemical examination of urine EXCEPT
D. specific gravity
The abnormal hemoglobin molecule responsible for sickle cell anemia is
C. hemoglobin S
The bacteria that commonly causes food poisoning is
E. Salmonella typhi
The patients name, date of birth, marital status, education, occupation, etc., is known as the
B. demographics
Initial examination of the breats is usually performed when the patient is in which of the following positions?
A. sitting
Nutritional elements that helps replace and repair worn out tissue are
E. proteins
Each large block of five small squares represents how many seconds on ECG paper?
B. .2 seconds
All of the following are endoscoped EXCEPT the
B. stethoscope
A medication given to a patient for a fee is
C. dispensed
All of the following are common signs or symptoms of shock EXCEPT
B. polyphagia
The administrative agency that protects employee health and safety is the
A. OSHA
The specific gravity testing method requiring the least amount of urine is by
A. reagant strip
All of the following are examples of anisochromia in RBCs EXCEPT
A. normochromia
A common liquid culture media is
C. TSB
Questions regarding each of the major body systems and parts are known as
B. ROS
The Ishihara test is associated with which of the following examinations?
C. ophthalmological
Nutritional elements that are concentrated sources of energy that add satiety value to foods are
A. fats
The framelike apparatus situated under the X-ray table that holds the grid above the film is the
C. potty-bucky diaphragm
All of the following are steps for proper instrument care EXCEPT
E. keep ratcheted instruments in a closed position
Schedule II inventories must be made every
E. 2 years
The first aid priority for an injured victim is to
B. create a patent airway
A glass tube used to measure small quantities of liquid is a
C. pipette
The urine chemistry test that measures percent hydrogen ion concentration is
B. pH
RBCs thats are normal is shape are called
B. discocytes
The culture specimen that commonly uses a calibrated loop is
B. urine
A common abbreviation for biopsy is
E. bx
The Romberg test is associated with which of the following examinations?
a cardiological
b. gastroenterological
c. ophthalmological
d. oncological
e. otorhinolaryngoological
e. otorhinolaryngoological
Nutritional elements that serve as catalysts for efficient metabolism are
a. carbohydrates
b. minerals
d. fats
d. vitamins
e. proteins
d. vitamins
All of the following are radiation hazards EXCEPT
B. physical deformity
The most common temperature setting for the autoclave is
A. 250 to 270F
Drug inventory records must include the following information EXCEPT
C. signature of patients who accepted drugs
An instrument that uses a spinning force to separate solids of differing mass is a(n)
B. centrifuge
When centrifuging urine for microscopic analysis, the MA should use
C. 10 to 12 ml
The normal adult hemoglobin is approximately
C. 14 to 16 g/dl
Enterobius vermicularis is commonly known as
D. pinworm
The process of measuring range of motion of a joint is
B. goniometry
All of the following are fat soluble vitamins EXCEPT
C. B
Which of the following body parts requires use of Potter-Bucky diaphragm for X-ray?
A. thigh
All of the following are proper aseptic techniques EXCEPT
E. lids are placed down on the table
The form completed when damaged or contaminated controlled substances are destroyed is
D. DEA-41
The most common cause of convulsions is
C. epilepsy
A condition commonly caused by hyperbilirubinema is
A. icterus
Which of the following is the by-product of incomplete fat metabolism?
E. ketones
Another name for percent packed RBCs is
C. hematocrit
The study of fungus is
B. mycology
Which of the following acronyms refers to physical examination of the eye?
C. PERRLA
An occult blood test is best associated with what body system?
A. gastrointestinal
The societal factor aving the most negative impact on adolescent nutrition is
C. emphasis on slimness
Two views of the wrist is best done using which of the following size films?
A. 8 x 10 inch
A surgical wound that becomes infected and must be reopened is a
E. third intention wound
The Rx symbol is classified as the
A. superscription
According to the Rule of Nines, the amount of body surface represented by the head and neck is
E. 18 percent
The blood collection tube containing EDTA
C. purple
The urine chemisry finding highly correlated with the presence of casts is
E. protein
An RBC index that measures everage RBC volume is
B. MCV
Ringworm os the groin or "jock itch" is classified as
B. tinea cruris
Which of the following is not performed int he handwashing procedure?
C. rinse so that the water flows from fingertips to the wrist
Lumbar puncture is best associated with the
B. nervous system
The metabolic disorder characterized by the lack of the enzyme needed to metabolizr phenylalanine is known as
B. PKU
A form of heat energy that uses an electrical field is
D. diathermy
The sterile cover placed over a wound to prevent contamination is the
A. dressing
The acronym p.c means
D. after meals
Dry, hot, red skin is characteristic of
E. heat stroke
All of the following are extravascular fluids EXCEPT
A. plasma
A positive nitrite on urine chemistry may be indicative of
E. WBCs
All of the following are considered normal WBCs EXCEPT
E. blast
The most common cause of yeast infection is
B. candida albicans
An agent that mechanically removes contaminants from objects is a(n)
E. detergent
Bringing an infant to the sitting position causes the childs eyes to open is called the
C. china doll reflex
A common signs of diabetes mellitis is
C. polyuria
The initial treatment of choice for edema is
A. cryotherapy
All of the following would be needed for a laceration repair EXCEPT
D. penrose drain
The generic name for Lopressor is
C. metoprolol
When in doubt about whether a conscious victim is suffering from diabetic coma or insulin shock, first
C. administer sugar
Closeness of a test to the truth best describes
E. accuracy
Urine crystals that appear like squares with refractive "x"s in them best describe
B. calcium oxalates
A coagulation test commonly used to monitor coumadin therapy is
E. PT
In the Gram stain procedure, the last stain applied is
A. methylene blue
The acronym PERRLA is typically recorded in what part of the Review of Systems?
B. head and neck
The position of choice for orthopnea
A. fowlers
A nutrient that yeilds 4 kilocalories per gram
D. carbohydrates
The three point gait describes the use of which device?
C. crutches
Instruments designed to grasp objects are
E. forceps
Tylenol is an example of a(n)
A. trade name
Which of the following are cardiac enzymes?
C. CPK
The presence of hemoglobin in the urine is most likely indicative of
D. urinary hemorrhage
Normally, the hematocrit is approximatyle
A. three times the hemoglobin
The media of choice for cultuering Neisseria gonorrheae is
D. Thayer-Martin agar
The 'S' of SOAP notes comprises
C. data provided by the patient describing signs, symptoms, and feelings
Attempting to assess a patients condition by ruling out certain possibilitiies describes
C. definitive diagnosis
All fo the following are nutritional elements EXCEPT
D. ethanol
The right lateral position best describes which of the following?
C. x-rays enter the left side and exit the right side of the body
Which of the following is a gynecological instrument?
E. tenaculum
A subcutaneous injection typically employs a
C. 5/8 inch needle
In adult CPR, the depth of chest compressions is
B. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
A metabolic profile typically includes all of the following assays EXCEPT
E. ketones
All of the following urinary constituents are reported EXCEPT
B. artifact
All of the following are granulocytes EXCEPT
C. lymphocytes
Streptococci are typically described as
B. gram-positive
Which of the following represents hypotension?
E. 90/58
All of the following describes examination methods EXCEPT
D. recitation
Proteins consist of the following EXCEPT
D. potassium
An IVP describes a radipgraphic study of the
D. urinary system
Which fo the following is a physical disinfection agent?
A. boiling water
OS means
E. left eye
When happening on an unconscious person, the medical assistant should first
C. assess the victims responsiveness
All of the followinf are electrolytes EXCEPT
D. nitrogen
Cats are reported as the
B. number per low power field
A "shift to the left" describes
E. an increase in band neutrophils
Neisseria gonorrheae is morphologically described as
B. gram-negative
All of the following are minerals EXCEPT
C. hydrogen
The physician orders 600 mg Augmentin. Augmentin, 200 mg per 0.5 ml, is available. The medical assistant should administer
C. 1.5 ml
A patient suffering from diabetic coma will require
E. a dose of insulin
Which of the following assays are used to manage diabetic patients?
B. hemoglobin a1c (glycated hemoglobin)
All of the following are considered normal urinary crystals EXCEPT
