RMA GENERAL

  1. The Suffix -osis means

    A- Blood Condition
    B- Destruction
    C- Condition of 
    D- Drooping
    E- Inflammation
    C- Condition of
  2. blood returning from the ody to the heart enters the

    A- Left Atrium
    B- Right Atrium
    C- Left Ventricle
    D- Right Ventricle
    E- Aorta
    B- right atrium
  3. "Let the master answer" describes the legal doctrine

    A- Res ipsa loquitur
    B- respondeat superior 
    C- informed consent
    D- res judicata
    E- non suis juris
    B- Respondeat superior
  4. the communication proscess includes all of the following elements except

    A- Source
    B- Message
    C- Channel
    D- Receiver
    E- Jargon
    E- Jargon
  5. Which of the following combining forms means "eyelid"

    A- Cost/o
    B- or/o
    C- ocul/o
    D- blephar/o
    E- nas/o
    D- blephar/o
  6. the 12th cranial nerve is the 

    A- acoustic
    B- TRIGEMINAL
    C- OLFACTORY
    D- HYPOGLOSSAL
    E- FACIAL
    D- HYPOGLOSSAL
  7. A CONSENT FORM IS NOT REQUIRED IF THE PATIENT IF

    A- A MINOR
    B- ELDERLY
    C- INCOMPETENT
    D- UNCONSCIOUS AND CRITICALLY INJURED
    E- AN ATTORNEY
    D- UNCONSCIOUS AND CRITICALLY INJURED
  8. IN ABRAHAM MASLOW'S HIERARCHY OF NEEDS, THE NEED TO BE RESPECTED DESCRIBES THE

    A- PHYSIOLOGICAL NEED
    B- SAFETY NEED
    C- SOCIAL NEED
    D- SELF ESTEEM NEED
    E- SELF ACTUALIZATION NEED
    D- SELF ESTEEM NEED
  9. THE MOST COMMON CONNECTING VOWEL FOUND IN COMBINING FORMS IS 

    A- A
    B- E
    C- I 
    D- O 
    E- U
    D- O
  10. THE STRUCTURE THAT PREVENTS MATERIAL FROM ENTERING THE WINDPIPE IS THE 

    A- TRACHEA
    B- EPIGLOTTIS
    C- BRONCHUS
    D- ALVEOLUS
    E- PHARYNX
    B- EPIGLOTTIS
  11. IF THE PATIENT REFUSES CONSENT TO TREATMENT, THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD

    A- COERCE THE PATIENT INTO CONSENTING

    B- EXPLAIN TO THE PATIENT THAT REFUSING TO CONSENT WILL RESULT IN TERMINATION OF CARE

    C- DELAY TREATMENT AND CONSULT THE PHYSICIAN

    D- FORCE TREATMENT ON THE PATIENT FOR HIS/HER OWN GOOD

    E- DISMISS THE PATIENT AND SCHEDULE ANOTHER APPOINTMENT
    C- DELAY THE TREATMENT AND CONSULT THE PHYSICIAN
  12. EXHIBITING IMMATURE BEHAVIOR AS A RESULT OF STRESS OR ANXIETY DECRIBES

    A- REGRESSION
    B- DENIAL
    C- SUBLIMATION
    D- REPRESSION
    E- NONE OF THE ABOVE
    A- REGRESSION
  13. THE TERM TACHYCARDIA IS SYNONYMOUS WITH 

    A- FAST HEART RATE
    B- SLOW HEART RATE
    C- NORMAL HEART RATE
    D- IRREGULAR HEART RATE
    E- SLUGGISH HEART RATE
    A- FAST HEART RATE 
  14. THE WRISTBONES ARE COLLECTIVELY KNOWN AS

    A- METATARSALS
    B- TARSALS
    C- MATACARPALS
    D- CARPALS
    E- DIGITALS
    D- CARPALS
  15. FAILING TO ACT WHEN ONE HAS THE DUTY TO ACT DESCRIBES THE TORT

    A- NONFEASANCE
    B- MISFEASANCE
    C- MALFEASANCE
    D- NEGLIGENCE
    E- MALPRACTICE
    A- NONFEASANCE
  16. AN UNCONSCIOUS DEFENSE MECHANISM CHARACTERIZED BY BEHAVIOR THAT IS THE OPPOSITE OF ONE'S TRUE FEELINGS DESCRIBES

    A- INTROJECTION
    B- DISSOCIATION
    C- RATIONALIZATION
    D- PROJECTION
    E- REACTION FORMATION (COMPENSATION)
    E- REACTION FORMATION (COMPENSATION)
  17. BALANITIS REFERS TO WHICH BODY SYSTEM

    A- NERVOUS SYSTEM
    B- REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
    C- DISGESTIVE SYSTEM
    D- CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
    E- RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
    B- REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
  18. THE TUBE EXTENDING FROM THE KIDNEY TO THE BLADDER IS THE 

    A- URETER
    B- URETHRA 
    C- EPIDIDYMIS
    D- SEMINAL VESICLE
    E- VAS DEFERENS
    A- URETER
  19. DEFAMATION OF CHARACTER EMPLOYING THE WRITTEN WORD DESCRIBES

    A- INVASION OF PRIVACY
    B- LIBEL
    C- SLANDER
    D- EMBEZZLEMENT
    E- FRAUD
    B- LIBEL
  20. ELISABETH KUBLER-ROSS IS CREDITED WITH ESTABLISHING THE 

    A- ELEMENTS OF THE COMMUNICATIONS PROCESS

    B- STEPS IN DEALING WITH THE EMOTIONALLY DISTRESSED PATIENT

    C- FIVE STAGES OF DYING

    D- PHILOSOPHICAL PRINCIPLES OF NURSING PRACTICES AND PATIENT CARE

    E- DEVELOPMENT OF THE UNCONSCIOUS DEFENSE MECHANISMS 
    C- FIVE STAGES OF DYING
  21. HEMATOPOIESIS MEANS

    A- BLOOD CONDITION
    B- HEMORRHAGE
    C- BLOOD FORMATION
    D- BLOODY DISCHARGE
    E- CANCER OF THE BLOOD
    C- BLOOD FORMATION
  22. THE AQUEOUS HUMOR IS SITUATED ____ TO THE LENS

    A- LATERAL
    B- DISTAL
    C- MEDIAL
    D- ANTERIOR
    E- POSTERIOR
    D- ANTERIOR
  23. NEGLIGENCE REQUIRES THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS EXCEPT 

    A- INCONVENIENCE
    B- DUTY
    C- CAUSATION
    D- DAMAGE
    E- BREACH OF DUTY
    A- INCONVENIENCE
  24. A PATIENT EXPRESSES FEAR ABOUT DYING; THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD

    A- ASK THE PATIENT TO DISCUSS SOMETHING MORE CHEERFUL

    B- INDICATE THAT FEARING DEATH IS FUTILE

    C- DESCRIBE IN DETAIL THE STAGES OF DYING

    D- ATTEMPT TO BE ATTENTIVE AND UNDERSTANDING

    E- CONSULT THE PHYSICIAN IMMEDIATELY FOR FOLLOW-UP
    D- ATTEMPT TO BE ATTENTIVE AND UNDERSTANDING
  25. ANOREXIA IS SYNONYMOUS WITH

    A- LACK OF APPETITE
    B- LACK OF NUTRITION
    C- CONDITION OF THE ANUS
    D- CONDITION OF THE RECTUM
    E- NONE OF THE ABOVE
    A- LACK OF APPETITE
  26. THE OUTERMOST LAYER OF THE SKIN IS THE 

    A- DERMIS
    B- EPIDERMIS
    C- SUBCUTANEOUS
    D- CUTANEOUS
    E- INTRADERMAL
    B- EPIDERMIS
  27. DEFENSES AGAINST NEGLIGENCE INCLUDE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

    A- TOLLING OF THE STATUTE OF LIMITATIONS
    B- CONTRIBUTORY NEGLIGENCE
    C- COMPARATIVE NEGLIGENCE
    D- ASSUMPTION OF THE RISK
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
  28. IN SCHEDULING APPOINTMENTS

    A- ELDERLY PATIENTS TAKE PRIORITY

    B- CHILDREN SHOULD BE SCHEDULED FOR THE SAME TIME FRAME EACH DAY

    C- EMERGENCIES TAKE PRIORITY

    D- NO APPOINTMENT SHOULD EXCEED 45MIN

    E- OVERBOOKING IS THE PREFERRED MANNER OF INCREASING CLINIC REVENUE
    C- EMERGENCIES TAKE PRIORITY
  29. THE PLURAL FORM OF IRIS IS

    A- IRISAE
    B- IRIS'S
    C- IRIDES
    D- IRISA
    E- IRISUS
    C- IRIDES
  30. THE OPPOSITE OF DISTAL IS 

    A- CAUDAL
    B- PROXIMAL
    C- LATERAL
    D- MEDIAL
    E- DORSAL
    B- PROXIMAL
  31. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE TORTS EXCEPT

    A- ASSAULT
    B- BREACH OF CONTRACT
    C- ABANDONMENT
    D- INVASION OF PRIVACY
    E- DEFAMATION OF CHARACTER
    B- BREACH OF CONTRACT
  32. THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT NOTICES A BLIND PATIENT ATTEMPTING TO LOCATE THE EXIT, HE SHOULD

    A- ASK, "MAY I BE OF ASSISTANCE"

    B- TAKE THE PATIENT BY THE ARM AND DIRECT HER TO THE EXIT

    C- YELL OUT CORRECTIVE DIRECTIONS AS SHE PROCEEDS TO THE EXIT

    D- IGNORE HER, SHE'LL MANAGE

    E- ASK A WAITING PATIENT TO ASSIST THE BLIND PATIENT
    A- ASK, "MAY I BE OF ASSISTANCE"
  33. OOPHORECTOMY IS RELATED TO WHAT BODY SYSTEM

    A- FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
    B- FEMALE URINARY SYSTEM
    C- MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
    D- MALE URINARY SYSTEM
    E- HEMOPOIETIC SYSTEM
    A- FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
  34. THE PANCREAS IS PART OF WHICH BODY SYSTEM

    A- CIRCULATORY 
    B- INTEGUMENTARY
    C- DISGESTIVE
    D- REPRODUCTIVE
    E- NERVOUS
    C- DISGESTIVE
  35. AN ENFORCEABLE CONTRACT CONTAINS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS?

    A- OFFER
    B- ACCEPTANCE
    C- CONSIDERATION
    D- CONTRACTUAL CAPACITY
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
  36. A CALL IS RINGING OF ANOTHER LINE, THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD

    A- YELL TO THE BACK OFFICE FOR SOMEONE TO ANSWER THE PHONE

    B- PUT THE FIRST CALLER ON HOLD, ANSWER THE RINGING LINE AND SAY, "PLEASE HOLD", THEN RETURN TO THE FIRST CALLER

    C- ALLOW THE LINE TO RING UNTIL THE FIRST CALL IS COMPLETED

    D- ASK THE FIRST CALLER IS SHE CAN HOLD. IF YES, ANSWER THE SECOND LINE, ASK HIM IF HE CAN HOLD. IF YES, RETURN TO THE FIRST CALLER.

    E- ASK THE FIRST CALLER TO CALL BACK, THEN ANSWER THE SECOND CALLER
    D- ASK THE FIRST CALLER IS SHE CAN HOLD. IF YES, ANSWER THE SECOND LINE, ASK HIM IF HE CAN HOLD. IF YES, RETURN TO THE FIRST CALLER.
  37. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS SPELLED CORRECTLY?

    A- OPTHALMOLOGY
    B- OPHTHAMOLOGY
    C- OPTHAMOLOGY
    D- OPHTHALMOLOGY
    E- NONE OF THE ABOVE
    D- OPHTHALMOLOGY
  38. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANELLES DIRECTS CELL ACTIVITY?

    A- NUCLEUS
    B- RIBOSOME
    C- MITOCHONDRIA 
    D- ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM
    E- GOLGI BODY
    A- NUCLEUS
  39. A STATE ACCEPTING A MEDICAL LICENSE GRANTED BY ANOTHER STATE DESCRIBES LICENSURE BY

    A- RECIPROCITY
    B- ENDORSEMENT
    C- EXAMINATION
    D- EXCERCISE OF GRANDFATHER CLAUSE
    E- NONE OF THE ABOVE
    A- RECIPROCITY
  40. IN GREETING A PATIENT, THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD SAY.

    A- HELLO, PLEASE HAVE A SEAT
    B- GOOD MORNING, HOW MANY I HELP YOU
    C- DO YOU HAVE AN APPOINTMENT
    D- YOUR NAME PLEASE
    E- ARE YOU THE 10AM APPOINTMENT
    B- GOOD MORNING, HOW MAY I HELP YOU
  41. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PREFIXES MEANS YELLOW ?

    A- CHLOR
    B- ICTER
    C- MELAN
    D- XANTH
    ICTER & XANTH
  42. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN ACCESSORY ORGAN OF THE DISGESTIVE SYSTEM

    A- GALLBLADDER
    B- ESOPHAGUS
    C- LIVER
    D- STOMACH
    GALLBLADDER & LIVER
  43. THE PHYSICIAN IS LEGALLY OBLIGATED TO REPORT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES

    A- BIRTHS
    B- DEATHS
    C- COMMUNICABLE DISEASES
    D- TUBERCULOSIS
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  44. ADOPTING THE PATIENT ROLE MAY INTERFERE WITH ONE OR MORE NEED LEVELS BECAUSE

    A- THE PATIENT MAY LOSE SOME AUTONOMY

    B- THE PATIENT IS CONFRONTED WITH A CONFUSING NRE LANGUAGE AND FEELS INSECURE

    C- THE PATIENT MAY LOSE SOME PRIVACY

    D- THE PATIENT MAY BE EXPERIENCING LIMITATIONS IMPOSED BY THE ILLNESS OR INJURY
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  45. UTERUS IS THE DEFINITION FOR

    A- COLP/O
    B- VAGIN/O
    C- VULV/O
    D- HYSTER/O
    HYSTER/O
  46. INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS ARE COMMONLY ADMINISTERED IN THE 

    A- DELTOID
    B-GLUTEUS MEDIUS
    C- VASTUS LATERALIS
    D- TRICEPS
    • DELTOID
    • GLUTEUS MEDIUS
    • VASTUS LATERALIS
  47. RES IPSA LOQUITUR IS KNOWN AS THE 

    A- RESPECTABLE MINORITY RULE
    B- BEST MEDICAL JUDGMENT RULE
    C- CAPTAIN OF THE SHIP DOCTRINE
    D- CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE DOCTRINE
    CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE DOCTRINE
  48. WHEN TAKING MESSAGES OVER THE PHONE, THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD INCLUDE

    A- THE NAME OF THE CALLER
    B- THE TIME OF THE CALL
    C- THE SUBJECT OF THE CALL
    D- THE NAME OF THE PERSON TAKING THE MESSAGE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  49. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS ARE SPELLED CORRECTLY

    A- NOSINCOMIAL
    B- CONJUNCTIVITIS
    C- STERNOCLEIDAMASTOID
    D- HERNIORRHAPHY
    CONJUNCTIVITIS & HERNIORRHAPHY
  50. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES ARE COMMON TO BOTH THE DISGESTIVE AND RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

    A- TRACHEA
    B- ESOPHAGUS
    C- ALVEOLI
    D- PHARYNX
    PHARYNX
  51. AN ABNORMAL DECREASE IN THE SIZE OF A MUSCLE IS 

    A- MYOPATHY
    B- ATROPHY
    C- DYSTROPHY
    D- HYPERTROPHY
    E- MYOTROPHY
    ATROPHY
  52. THE CELL FROM WHICH A MUSCLE DEVELOPS IS CALLED A(N)

    A- MYELOBLAST
    B- OSTEOBLAST
    C- MYOBLAST
    D- MYOCLAST
    E- ERYTHROBLAST
    MYOBLAST
  53. THE ABBREVIATION FOR THE RIGHT EAR IS

    A- AD
    B- AS
    C- AU
    D- OD
    E- OS
    AD
  54. AN OTOSCOPE IS USED TO 

    A- INSPECT THE NASAL CAVITY
    B- INSPECT THE EXTERIOR EAR CANAL
    C- MEASURE EYEBALL PRESSURE
    D- INSPECT THE ORAL CAVITY
    E- MEASURE OXYGEN LEVELS
    INSPECT THE EXTERIOR EAR CANAL
  55. THIS REPROCEDURE IS USED TO PUNCTURE THE CHEST AND REMOVE FLUID

    A- SPIROMETRY
    B- BRONCHOSCOPY
    C- INTUBATION
    D- THORACENTESIS
    E- TRACHEOSTOMY
    THORACENTESIS
  56. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LABORATORY TEST WOULD BE ABNORMAL FOR A PATIENT WITH ANEMIA

    A- DIFFERENTIAL
    B- HEMATOCRIT AND HEMOGLOBIN
    C- BLOOD GLUCOSE
    D- TOTAL CHOLESTEROL
    E- WHITE BLOOD CELL COUNT
    HEMATOCRIT AND HEMOGLOBIN
  57. HYPERPARATHYROIDISM MAY BE TREATED BY WHICH MEDICAL SPECIALIST

    A- CARDIOLOGIST
    B- EMERGENCY MEDICAL TECHNICIAN
    C- ENDOCRINOLOGIST
    D- HEMATOLOGIST
    E- OBSTETRICIAN
    ENDOCRINOLOGIST
  58. AN ABNORMAL INCREASE IN TOTAL NUMBER OF WHITE BLOOD CELLS IS CALLED

    A- ANEMIA
    B- LEUKOPENIA
    C- LEUKOSIS
    D- LEUKOCYTOSIS
    E- POLYCYTHEMIA
    LEUKOCYTOSIS
  59. THE TERM FOR EXTREMELY RAPID BREATHING IS 

    A- HYPERPNEA
    B- HYPOPNEA
    C- DYSPNEA
    D- APNEA
    E- HYPERTENTION
    HYPERPNEA
  60. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SUFFIXES REFERS TO PAIN 

    A- PHAGIA
    B- DESIS
    C- PNEA
    D- ALGIA
    E- LYSIS
    ALGIA
  61. A SUFFIX USED TO DENOTE A SURGICAL REPAIR IS

    A- PEXY
    B- DESIS
    C- PLASTY
    D- LYSIS
    E- CENTESIS
    PLASTY
  62. A MAMMOGRAM IS A RADIOGRAPH OF THE 

    A- CHEST
    B- BLADDER
    C- BREAST
    D- LYMPH NODES
    E- AXILLA
    BREAST
  63. THE TERM ALOPECIA IS SYNONYMOUS WITH

    A- EXCESSIVE HAIR GROWTH
    B- ITCHING
    C- MYOPIA
    D- BALDNESS
    E- A WHITISH PIGMENTATION OF THE SKIN
    BALDNESS
  64. ANOTHER TERM FOR CHEWING IS 

    A- MASTICATION
    B- OBSTIPATION
    C- DEGLUTITION
    D- PERISTALSIS
    E- REGURGITATION
    MASTICATION
  65. A NEVUS IN THE ANTECUBITAL AREA IS A 

    A- MASS ON THE SHOULDER
    B- POLYP ON THE LOWER BACK
    C- WART ON THE ANKLE
    D- SCAR ON THE KNEE
    E- MOLE OF THE INSIDE OF THE ELBOW
    MOLE OF THE INSIDE OF THE ELBOW
  66. AN INFLAMMATION OF A JOINT IS CALLED

    A- ARTHRODESIS
    B- ARTHRODYNIA
    C- ARTHROCLASIS
    D- ARTHRITIS
    E- ARTHROCENTESIS
    ARTHRITIS
  67. FAT IS THE MAIN COMPONENT OF 

    A- THE EPIDERMIS
    B- ADIPOSE TISSUE
    C- MUSCLE TISSUE
    D- TENDONS
    E- LYMPHATIC TISSUE
    ADIPOSE TISSUE 
  68. THE STUDY OF THE CAUSE OF DISEASE IS REFERRED TO AS 

    A- BIOLOGY
    B- EPIDEMIOLOGY
    C- PATHOLOGY
    D- ETIOLOGY
    E- PHYSIOLOGY
    PATHOLOGY
  69. THE MAIN FUNCTION OF THE OLFACTORY NERVE IS 

    A- TOUCHING
    B- TASTING
    C- SMELLING
    D- SEEING-
    E- HEARING
    SMELLING
  70. AN OOPHORECTOMY IS A SURGICAL PROCEDURE PERFORMED ON THE 

    A- UTERUS
    B- OVARIES
    C- KNEE
    D- VAGINA
    E- EAR
    OVARIES
  71. THE MEDICAL SPECIALTY THAT IS INVOLVED WITH DISEASES AND TREATMENT OF THE MALE AND FEMALE URINARY SYSTEMS IS 

    A- NEPHROLOGY
    B- ONCOLOGY
    C- UROLOGY
    D- PROCTOLOGY
    E- GYNECOLOGY
    UROLOGY
  72. THIS DIAGNOSTIC PROCEDURE ALLOWS FOR VISUALIZATION OF THE URINARY BLADDER

    A- URETHRAL DILATION
    B- INTRAVENOUS PYELOGRAM (IVP)
    C- CYSTOGRAPHY
    D- CYSTOSCOPY
    E- TRANSURETHRAL RESECTION OF THE PROSTATE (TURP)
    CYSTOSCOPY
  73. THE CORRECT MEDICAL TERM FOR HIVES IS 

    A- URTICARIA
    B- VERRUCA
    C- A NEVUS
    D- SHINGLES
    E- ALOPECIA
    URTICARIA
  74. THE MEMBRANE THAT SURROUNDS THE HEART IS THE 

    A- ENDOCARDIUM
    B- ENDOMETRIUM
    C- PERICARDIUM
    D- PERINEUM
    E- MYOCARDIUM
    PERICARDIUM
  75. A MUCOUS MEMBRANE

    A- LINES CLOSED CAVITIES OF THE BODY
    B- COVERS THE LUNGS
    C- LINES THE ADBOMINAL CAVITY
    D- LINES BODY CAVITIES THAT OPEN TO THE OUTSIDE
    E- SURROUNDS THE HEART
    LINES BODY CAVITIES THAT OPEN TO THE OUTSIDE
  76. THE VENTRAL REGION OF THE BODY IS DESCRIBED AS 

    A- SUPERIOR
    B- LATERAL
    C- MEDIAL
    D- ANTERIOR
    E- POSTERIOR
    ANTERIOR
  77. THE BODY CAVITY THAT CONTAINS THE INTESTINES IS THE 

    A- THORACIC
    B- SPINAL
    C- ADBOMINAL
    D- PLEURAL
    E- PERITONEAL
    ADBOMINAL
  78. MOVEMENT OF A BODY PART TOWARD THE MIDLINE OF THE BODY IS 

    A- SUPINATION
    B- PRONATION
    C- ADDUCTION
    D- ABDUCTION
    E- ROTATION
    ADDUCTION
  79. THE PLANE THAT DIVIDES THE BODY INTO FRONT AND BACK HALVES IS 

    A- FRONTAL
    B- HORIZONTAL
    C- MEDIAN
    D- OBLIQUE
    E- TRANSVERSE
    FRONTAL
  80. REYE'S SYNDROME

    A- CAN FOLLOW A VIRAL ILLNESS IN CHILDREN
    B- IS CAUSED BY HIGH FEVER
    C- IS A SYNDROME OF ACQUIRED IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)
    D- CAUSES MUSCULAR DYSTROPHY
    E- IS THE COMMON COLD
    CAN FOLLOW A VIRAL ILLNESS IN CHILDREN
  81. THE VERTEBRAE LOCATED IN THE LOWER BACK ARE THE 

    A- CERVICAL
    B- THORACIC
    C- LUMBAR
    D- SACRAL
    E- COCCYX
    LUMBAR
  82. THIS ACUTE INFECTIOUS SKIN DISEASE IS CAUSED BY STAPHYLOCOCCI

    A- IMPETIGO
    B- PSORIASIS
    C- ATHLETES FOOT
    D- MELANOMA
    E- ECZEMA
    IMPETIGO
  83. THE BONE LOCATED IN THE POSTERIOR OF THE SKULL IS THE 

    A- FRONTAL
    B- ETHMOID
    C- TEMPORAL
    D- OCCPITAL
    E- MANDIBLE
    OCCIPITAL
  84. THE TYPE OF BONE FRACTURE IN WHICH THE BONE IS BENT AND PARTIALLY BROKEN IS A 

    A- SIMPLE FRACTURE
    B- COMPOUND FRACTURE
    C- GREENSTICK FRACTURE
    D- COMMINUTED FRACTURE
    E- COMPLETE FRACTURE
    GREENSTICK FRACTURE
  85. THE PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM IS COMPOSED OF HOW MANY PAIRS OF SPINAL NERVES

    A- 2
    B- 5
    C- 12
    D- 20
    E- 31
    31
  86. THE PONS AND MEDULLA MAKE UP THE 

    A-BRAINSTEM
    B- CEREBELLUM
    C- CEREBRUM
    D- THALAMUS
    E- RIGHT HEMISPHERE
    BRAINSTEM
  87. THE FAILURE OF BONE MARROE TO PRODUCE RED BLOOD CELLS RESULTS IN WHICH TYPE OF ANEMIA

    A- APLASTIC
    B- HEMOLYTIC
    C- PERNICIOUS
    D- MICROCYTIC
    E- LEUKEMIA
    APLASTIC
  88. PROTRUSION OF A PART OF THE STOMACH THROUGH THE ESOPHAGEAL OPENING IN THE DIAPHRAGM IS A(N)

    A- ESOPHAGEAL ANEURYSM
    B- ESOPHAGEAL VARICES
    C- HIATAL HERNIA
    D- PYLORIC STENOSIS
    E- GASTROESOPHAGEAL REFLUX DISEASE (GERD)
    HIATAL HERNIA
  89. ANOTHER NAME FOR THE TYMPANIC MEMBRANE IS THE 

    A- OSSICLE
    B- COCHLEA
    C- AURICLE
    D- EARDRUM
    E- ORGAN OF CORTI
    EARDRUM
  90. THE LARGEST ATERY IN THE BODY IS THE 

    A- BRACHIAL ARTERY
    B- TEMPORAL ARTERY
    C- RADIAL ARTERY
    D- AORTA
    E- FEMORAL ARTERY
    AORTA
  91. THE SINOATRIAL MODE

    A- STIMULATES THE DIAPHRAGM
    B- IS THE SAME AS THE ATRIOVENTRICULAR NODE
    C- IS THE PACEMAKER OF THE HEART
    D- DIVIDES THE HEART INTO RIGHT AND LEFT SIDES
    E- REGULATES BLOOD FLOW TO THE BRAIN
    IS THE PACEMAKER OF THE HEART
  92. AN X-RAY TAKEN TO CONFIRM A FRACTURE OF THE DISTAL FORARM WOULD INCLUDE THE 

    A- TIBIA AND FIBULA
    B- RADIUS AND ULNA
    C- FEMUR AND TROCHANTER
    D- CALCANEUS AND MALLEOLUS
    E- HUMERUS AND SCAPULA
    RADIUS AND ULNA
  93. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEMONSTRATES AN INVOLUNTARY MUSCLE ACTION

    A- HEARTBEAT
    B- BREATHING
    C- PERISTALSIS
    D- PUPIL DILATION
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  94. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANS IS LOCATED IN THE RIGHT UPPER QUADRANT

    A- LIVER
    B- RIGHT OVARY
    C- APPENDIX
    D- UTERUS
    E- STOMACH
    LIVER
  95. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NERVES STIMULATES THE DIAPHRAGM

    A- TROCHLEAR
    B- ACCESSORY
    C- SCIATIC
    D- PHRENIC
    E- VAGUS
    PHRENIC
  96. AN ABNORMAL LATERAL CURVATURE OF THE SPINE IS KNOWN AS 

    A- SPONDYLOSIS
    B- KYPHSIS
    C- SCOLIOSIS
    D- ANKYLOSIS
    E- LORDOSIS
    SCOLIOSIS
  97. THE ALPHA CELLS IN THE PANCREA ARE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE PRODUCTION OF 

    A- INSULIN
    B- GLUCAGON
    C- HYDROCHLORIC ACID (HCI)
    D- PEPSIN
    E- GASTRIN
    GLUCAGON
  98. THE SURGICAL REMOVAL OF THE GALLBLADDER IS A 

    A- CHOLECTOMY
    B- COLOSTOMY
    C- CHOLECYSTECTOMY
    D- LAPAROSCOPY
    E- GASTRECTOMY
    CHOLECYSTECTOMY
  99. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CRANIAL NERVES IS INVOLVED IN BLINDNESS?

    A- ABDUCENS
    B- OCULOMOTOR
    C- TRIGEMINAL
    D- OLFACTORY
    E- OPTIC
    OPTIC
  100. THE NUMBER OF PERMANENT TEETH IS 

    A- 20
    B- 24
    C- 28
    D- 32
    E- 36
    32
  101. LEGALLY A PHYSICIAN

    A- MAY NOT REFUSE TREATMENT IN AN EMERGENCY SITUATION

    B- MAY REFUSE TO PROVIDE A FOLLOW UP CARE AFTER INITIAL TREATMENT

    C- MUST PROVIDE A DIAGNOSIS TO A PATIENTS EMPLOYER IF REQUESTED

    D- MUST PROVIDE A MEDICAL HISTORY TO THE PATIENTS INSURANCE COMPANY IF THE INSURANCE COMPANY REQUESTS IT 

    E- MAY REFUSE TO ACCEPT A PATIENT IF HE OR SHE CHOOSES
    MAY REFUSE TO ACCEPT A PATIENT IF HE OR SHE CHOOSES
  102. AN ITINERARY

    A- IS A YEARLY SCHEDULE
    B- IS A TRAVEL GUIDE
    C- CONTAINS TICKETS
    D- IS A DETAILED OUTLINE OF A TRIP
    E- MAKES TRAVEL ARRANGEMENTS
    IS A DETAILED OUTLINE OF A TRIP
  103. PROFESSIONALISM MAY BE BEST BE DISPLAYED BY 

    A- KEEPING EMOTIONS  TO ONES SELF
    B- STAYING CALM WHEN DEALING WITH ANGRY PATIENTS
    C- SHOWING NO CONSIDERATON FOR OTHER MEMBERS OF THE TEAM
    D- REFERRING ALL PROBLEMS TO THE PHYSICIAN
    E-  ARRIVING LATE OR LEAVING EARLY
    STAYING CALM WHEN DEALING WITH ANGRY PATIENTS
  104. THE ABILITY TO IMAGINE TAKING THE PLACE OF THE PATIENT AND ACCEPTING THE PATIENTS BEHAVIOR IS 

    A- OBJECTIVITY
    B- EMPATHY
    C- SYMPATHY
    D- INDUSTRY
    E- SUBJECTIVITY
    EMPATHY
  105. THE PATIENTS MEDICAL RECORD BELONGS TO 

    A- THE PATIENTS SPOUSE
    B- THE PHYSICIAN
    C- THE PATIENT
    D- THE PATIENTS ATTORNEY
    E- THE STATE MEDICAL BOARD
    THE PHYSICIAN
  106. A BREAST MASS IS FOUND IN A WOMAN WHOSE MOTHER AND SISTER HAVE DIED FROM BREAST CANCER. SHE CANCELS HER NEXT THREE FOLLOW UP APPOINTMENTS, WHICH DEFENSE MECHANISM IS SHE USING?

    A- DENIAL
    B- ANXIETY
    C- ACCEPTANCE
    D- ISOLATION
    E- SUPPRESSION
    DENIAL
  107. PERSONALITY DIFFERENCES ARE DUE TO 

    A- AGE
    B- EXPERIENCE
    C- HEREDITY
    D- ENVIRONMENT
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  108. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC DESIRABLE IN A MEDICAL ASSISTANT

    A- APPRECIATION
    B- IMPATIENCE
    C- FLEXIBILITY
    D- FRIENDLINESS
    E- CONCERN
    IMPATIENCE
  109. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOW AN EXAMPLE OF STERO TYPING

    A- SIMILAR PEOPLE HAVE SIMILAR NEEDS
    B- ELDERLY PATIENTS HAVE HEARING DEFICITS
    C- MEDICAID PATIENTS ARE LAZY
    D- EDUCATED PATIENTS HAVE NO FEAR OF ILLNESS
    E- YOUNG CHILDREN REACT DIFFERENTLY TO STRESSFUL SITUATIONS
    YOUNG CHILDREN REACT DIFFERENTLY TO STRESSFUL SITUATIONS
  110. TO RELEASE MEDICAL INFORMATION

    A- THE PHYSICIAN MUST SIGN A WAIVER
    B- THE INSURANCE COMPANY MUST TAKE THE REQUEST IN WRITING
    C- THE PATIENT MUST SIGN A RELEASE FORM
    D- A CERITIFIED RECORED TECHNICIAN MUST BE EMPLOYED BY THE OFFICE
    E- THE PATIENT MUST DELIVER THE RECORDS IN PERSON TO THE REQUESTER
    THE PATIENT MUST SIGN A RELEASE FORM 
  111. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE REPORTED TO THE HEALTH DEPARTMENT

    A- OTITIS MEDIA
    B- STREP THROAT
    C- INFLUENZA
    D- VAGINAL YEAST INFECTION
    E- HIV
    HIV
  112. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF OBJECTIVE DATA

    A- FAMILY HISTORY
    B- VITAL SIGNS
    C- PAST SURGICAL HISTORY
    D- LAST MENSTRUAL PERIOD (LMP)
    E- INSURANCE INFORMATION
    VITAL SIGNS
  113. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TELEPHONE CALLS SHOULD BE GIVEN IMMEDIATELY TO PHYSICIAN

    A- ANOTHER PHYSICIAN
    B- AN ANGRY PATIENT
    C- A PATIENTS FAMILY MEMBER
    D- A SALESPERSON
    E- AN INSURANCE COMPANY
    ANOTHER PHYSICIAN
  114. IN MASLOWS HIERARCHY OF NEEDS, THE NEED TO BE LOVED AND FREE FROM LONELINESS IS A 

    A- PHYSIOLOGIC NEED
    B- SAFETY NEED
    C- SOCIAL NEED
    D- SELF ESTEEM NEED
    E- SELF ACTUALIZATION NEED
    SOCIAL NEED
  115. IF A PATIENT REFUSES TO CONSENT TO TREATMENT, THE MEDICAL ASSISTANT SHOULD

    A- SCHEDULE ANOTHER APPOINTMENT
    B- FORCE TREATMENT TO THE PATIENT
    C- FOR THE PATIENT TO CONSENT
    D- DELAY TREATMENT & INFORM PHYSICIAN
    E- TERMINATE THE PATIENT
    DELAY TREATMENT & INFORM PHYSICIAN
  116. AN ENFORCEABLE CONTRACT CONTAINS

    A- AN OFFER
    B- AN ACCEPTANCE
    C- A CONSIDERATION
    D- A CAPACITY
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  117. THE OPPOSITE OF ANTERIOR IS 

    A- DISTAL
    B- MEDIAL
    C- PROXIMAL
    D- POSTERIOR
    E- LATERAL
    POSTERIOR
  118. INFORMED CONSENT INCLUDES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS

    A- BENEFITS AND RISKS OF THE TREATMENT
    B- PURPOSE OF TREATMENT
    C- NATURE OF THE PATIENTS CONDITION
    D- ASSESSMENT OF THE PATIENTS UNDERSTANDING OF THE TREATMENT
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  119. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE REASONS FOR REVOKING A PHYSICIANS LICENSE EXCEPT

    A- MENTAL INCAPACITY
    B- PHYSICAL INCAPACITY
    C- CONVICTION OF A CRIME
    D- UNPROFESSIONAL CONDUCT
    E- PROVIDING ATYPICAL CARE
    PROVIDING ATYPICAL CARE
  120. THE CONTROL CENTER OF A CELL IS 

    A- DNA
    B- ORGANELLES
    C- NUCLEUS
    D- RIBOSOMES
    E- CELL MEMBRANE
    NUCLEUS
  121. SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUE

    A- IS FOUND UNDER THE SKIN
    B- CONTAINS FAT
    C- IS AN INJECTION SITE
    D- CONNECTS THE DERMIS TO THE MUSCLE SURFACE
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  122. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A BONE OF THE LOWER EXTREMITY

    A- FEMUR
    B- HUMERUS
    C- TIBIA
    D- FIBULA
    E- METATARSALS
    HUMERUS
  123. THE MUSCLE IN THE UPPER EXTREMITY THAT IS USED AS AN INJECTION SITE IS THE 

    A- DELTOID
    B- BICEPS BRACHII
    C- TRICEPS BRACHII
    D- TRAPEZIUS
    E- GLUTEUS MEDIUS
    DELTOID
  124. THE PACEMAKER OF THE HEART IS THE 

    A- SEPTUM
    B- SINOATRAIL NODE
    C- ATRIOVENTRICULAR NODE
    D- LEFT ATRIUM
    E- MITRAL VALVE
    SINOATRAIL NODE
  125. GAS EXCHANGE IN THE LUNGS TAKES PLACE IN THE 

    A- PHARYNX
    B- BRONCHI
    C- TRACHEA
    D- BRONCHIOLE
    E- ALVEOLI
    ALVEOLI
  126. THE LIVER

    A- MAKES BILE
    B- DETOXIFIES HARMFUL SUBSTANCES
    C- PRODUCES HEPARIN
    D- STORES GLYCOGEN
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  127. THE FERTILIZED OVUM IMPLANTS INTO THE 

    A- CERVIX
    B- ENFOMETRIUM
    C- MYOMETRIUM
    D- EPIMETRIUM
    E- OVIDUCTS
    ENDOMETRIUM
  128. IN THE MALE, TESTOSTERONE IS PRODUCED IN THE

    A- OVARIES
    B- TESTES
    C- EPIDIDYMIS
    D- SEMINAL VESICLES
    E- PROSTATE GLAND
    TESTES
  129. THE LARGEST PORTION OF THE BRAIN IS THE 

    A- CEREBRUM
    B- CEREBELLUM
    C- MEDULLA OBLONGATA
    D- BRAINSTEM
    E- HYPOTHALAMUS
    CEREBRUM
  130. THERE ARE ____ PAIRS OF SPINAL NERVES

    A- 100
    B- 10
    C- 12
    D- 25
    E- 31
    31
  131. GUSTATORY RECEPTORS ARE LOCATED IN THE 

    A- MOUTH
    B- NOSE
    C- EYE
    D- EAR
    E - SKIN
    MOUTH
  132. INSULIN

    A- IS PRODUCED BY THE LIVER
    B- CONTROLS METABOLISM
    C- INCREASES BLOOD SUGAR LEVELS
    D- DECREASES BLOOD SUGAR LEVELS
    E- CONTROLS BLOOD CALCIUM LEVELS
    DECREASES BLOOD SUGAR LEVELS
  133. A DECREASE IN THE TOTAL NUMBER OF WHITE BLOOD CELLS IS CALLED

    A- LEUKOCYTE
    B- LEUKODERMA
    C- LEUKOCYTOSIS
    D- ANEMIA
    E- LEUKOPENIA
    LEUKOPENIA
  134. THE ABBREVIATION MEANING IMMEDIATELY IS

    A- PRN
    B- STAT
    C- QOD
    D- AD LIB
    E- DC
    STAT
  135. THE PHYSICIAN IS LEGALLY OBLIGATED TO REPORT

    A- DEATHS
    B- BIRTHS
    C- COMMUNICABLE DISEASES
    D- ABUSE
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  136. THE PREFIX BRADY- DENOTES

    A- SLOW
    B- FAST
    C- HARD
    D- SOFT
    E- DIFFICULT
    SLOW
  137. THE OPPOSITE OF SUPERFICIAL IS

    A- VENTRAL
    B- PROXIMAL
    C- DEEP
    D- DISTAL
    E- DORSAL
    DEEP
  138. AN AUTHORIZATION IS ADVANCE TO WITHDRAW ARTIFICIAL LIFE SUPPORT IS

    A- ASSAULT
    B- BATTERY
    C- AN ADVANCED DIRECTIVE
    D- UNIFORM ANATOMICAL GIFT ACT
    E- GOOD SAMARITAN ACT
    AN ADVANCED DIRECTIVE
  139. UNCONSCIOUSLY AVOIDING THE REALITY OF AN UNPLEASANT EVENT IS 

    A- REGRESSION
    B- DENIAL
    C- REPRESSION
    D- SUPPRESSION
    E- RATIONALIZATION
    DENIAL
  140. "TELL ME MORE ABOUT IT" IS AN EXAMPLE OF

    A- AN OPEN ENDED STATEMENT
    B- A CLOSED STATEMENT
    C- CLARIFICATION
    D- FEEDBACK
    E- REFLECTION
    AN OPEN ENDED STATEMENT
  141. THE STUDY OF THE CAUSE OF DISEASE IS 

    A-EPIDEMIOLOGY
    B- PATHOLOGY
    C- ETIOLOGY
    D- SYMPTOMOLOGY
    E- RISK MANAGEMENT
    ETIOLOGY
  142. NONVERBAL COMMUNICATION MAY BE CONVEYED BY 

    A- TOUCH
    B- EYE CONTACT
    C- BODY POSITION
    D- SILENCE
    E- ALL OF THE ABOVE
    ALL OF THE ABOVE
  143. BULIMIA IS 

    A- A MASS OF FOOD
    B- AN EATING DISORDER
    C- LOST OF APPETITE
    D- A BLOOD CONDITION
    E- AN ARRHYTHMIA
    AN EATING DISORDER
  144. A CEREBRAL VASCULAR ACCIDENT CAN ALBE BE CALLED A(N)

    A- ARRHYTHMIA
    B- HEART ATTACK
    C- ANEURYSM
    D- STROKE
    E- THROMBUS
    STROKE
  145. RUBEOLA IS

    A- HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS I
    B- SCARLET FEVER
    C- WHOOPING COUGH
    D- MEASLES
    E- CHICKEN POX
    MEASLES
  146. A SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASE CAUSED BY A PROTOZOAL INFESTATION IS 

    A- HERPES
    B- GONORRHEA
    C- TRICHOMONIASIS
    D- CRABS
    E- SYPHILIS
    TRICHOMONIASIS
  147. AN ELECTROLYTE THAT HAS AN IMPORTANT INFLUENCE ON THE ACTIVITY OF THE HEART MUSCLE IS

    A- CHLORIDE
    B- MAGNESIUM
    C- PEPTASE
    D- PHOSPHORUS
    E- POTASSIUM
    POTASSIUM
  148. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RESPIRATORY DISORDERS IS CHARACTERIZED BY A LOSS OF LUNG CAPACITY

    A- ASTHMA
    B- EMPHYSEMA
    C- BRONCHITIS
    D- TUBERCULOSIS
    E- PSORIASIS
    EMPHYSEMA
  149. THE TYPE OF MEMBRANE THAT LINES CAVITIES OF THE BODY THAT OPEN TO THE OUTSIDE IS

    A- CUTANEOUS
    B- SYNOVIAL
    C- MUCOUS
    D- PLEURAL
    E- PERITONEUM
    MUCOUS
  150. ANOTHER NAME FOR AN OPEN FRACTURE IS A 

    A- COMMITTED FRACTURE
    B- CLOSED FRACTURE
    C- SIMPLE FRACTURE
    D- GREENSTICK FRACTURE
    E- COMPOUND FRACTURE
    COMPOUND FRACTURE
  151. A basic word element that identifies the central meaning of a word is a 





    B. root
  152. The opposite of distal is 





    A. proximal
  153. Law developed and enforced by government agencies best describes 

    a. common law 
    b. statutory law 
    c. administrative law 
    d. constitional law 
    e. civil law 
    c- administrative law 
  154. Communication is best defined as the 





    E. process of sharing meaning 
  155. Which of the following prefixes refers to a color?





    C. melan/o
  156. The control center of a cell best describes the 





    C. nucleus 
  157. Which of the following is considered a mandatory credential?





    D. licensure
  158. The means by which meaning is conveyed best describes 





    A. channel
  159. All of the following are adjectival suffixes EXCEPT





    A. -oma
  160. All of the following are functions of the integumentary system EXCEPT 





    B. calcium storage 
  161. In order for consent to be informed, which of the following elements should be present?





    E. all of the above
  162. Anything that interferes with the communication process best describes 





    C. noise 
  163. Which of the following is a proper plural?





    C. irides
  164. The shaft of a bone describes the 





    B. diaphysis
  165. The physician is required to report the following to the appropriate local agencies EXCEPT 





    D. strep-throat 
  166. The objective of therapeutic communication includes 





    E. all of the above 
  167. All of the following terms are spelled corectly EXCEPT 





    E. synovialectomy
  168. Muscles that can be controlled consciously best describes 





    C. striated muscle 
  169. Which of the following charting situations may create liability?





    E. all of the above 
  170. All of the following are considered facilitalive communication techniques EXCEPT 





    B. advising 
  171. Myring/o- means which of the following?





    E. eardrum
  172. Which of the following may creat communication barriers?





    E. all of the above 
  173. The underlined part of the word salpingopathy represents which of the following word parts?





    D. combining form 
  174. Which of the following best describes a function of the respiratory system?





    A. air exchange 
  175. Which of the following is considered an intentional tort?





    D. defamation 
  176. Among Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the need for shelter and freedom from anxiety best describes 





    E. saftey need 
  177. Which of the following describes bacteria arranged in clusters?





    B. staphylococci
  178. Which of the following organs best describes as an accessory organ of the digestive system?





    D. liver
  179. The AAMA Code of Ethics subscribes to which of the following general principles?





    E. all of the above 
  180. Assuming the patient role may interfere with which of the following needs?





    D. A B and C
  181. A physician who specializes in giagnosing and treating conditions of the eye is an 





    A. ophthalmologist
  182. Uncooperative patients are frustrating to work with because 





    E. the health professional is denied experiencing the satisfaction associated with helping the patient
  183. Setting aside unpleasant thoughts and feelings best describes which of the following unconscious defense mechanisms?





    D. repression 
  184. A increased number of white blood cells best describes 





    E. leukocytosis
  185. All of the following structures are part of the female reproductive system EXCEPT the 





    D. epididymis 
  186. Arguments supporting abortion include 





    B. a woman's right to self determination 
  187. Which of the following represents a duty when adopting the sick role?





    B. make every effort to get well
  188. All of the following are part of the peripheral nervous system EXCEPT the 





    A. brain
  189. In distributing scarce resources, the following criteria may be considered ethical EXCEPT





    E. to each according to social class
  190. Losses associated with adopting with adopting the sick role may include 





    E. all of the above 
  191. One who specializes in the study of tissue is a(n) 





    D. histologist
  192. Olfaction related to which of the following senses?





    D. smell
  193. "to do no harm" best describes 





    E. nonmaleficence 
  194. The stages of dying as described by Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross incluse all of the following EXCEPT 





    E. humiliation 
  195. Which of the following words best describes a muscular disorder?





    E. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 
  196. All of the following hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary EXCEPT 





    E. oxytocin
  197. Which of the following terms describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state?

    (A) Anabolism
    (B) Catabolism
    (C) Tolerance
    (D) Homeostasis
    (E) Metabolism
    d. homeostasis
  198. Each of the following is known to help prevent infection EXCEPT

    (A) hair in the nose
    (B) mucous membranes
    (C) osteoblasts
    (D) saliva
    (E) tears
    c. osteoblasts
  199. Each of the following mature cells has a nucleus EXCEPT

    (A) lymphocyte
    (B) monocyte
    (C) erythrocyte
    (D) basophil
    (E) neutrophil
    c. erythrocyte
  200. Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?

    (A) Adipose
    (B) Cartilage
    (C) Epithelial
    (D) Muscle
    (E) Nerve
    b. cartilage
  201. Each of the following is located in the mediastinum EXCEPT the

    (A) aorta
    (B) esophagus
    (C) heart
    (D) pancreas
    (E) trachea
    d. pancreas
  202. Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?

    (A) Abdominal
    (B) Cranial
    (C) Pleural
    (D) Spinal
    (E) Thoracic
    b. cranial
  203. Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing?

    (A) Alveoli
    (B) Epiglottis
    (C) Larynx
    (D) Uvula
    (E) Vocal cords
    b. epiglottis
  204. Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the right upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity?

    (A) Appendix
    (B) Kidney
    (C) Liver
    (D) Spleen
    (E) Stomach
    c. liver
  205. Which of the following anatomical regions of abdomen lies just distal to the sternum?

    (A) Epigastric
    (B) Hypochondriac
    (C) Hypogastric
    (D) Lumbar
    (E) Umbilical
    a. epigastric
  206. Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?

    (A) Abdominal and pelvic
    (B) Cranial and spinal
    (C) Dorsal and ventral
    (D) Pericardial and pleural
    (E) Thoracic and abdominal
    e. thoracic and abdominal
  207. Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the body?

    (A) Abduction
    (B) Eversion
    (C) Flexion
    (D) Pronation
    (E) Supination
    c. flexion
  208. In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?

    (A) Dorsal
    (B) Erect
    (C) Lateral
    (D) Prone
    (E) Supine
    d. prone
  209. If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction?

    (A) Inward
    (B) Outward
    (C) Upward
    (D) Downward
    b. outward
  210. The anatomic location of the spinal canal is

    (A) caudal
    (B) dorsal
    (C) frontal
    (D) transverse
    (E) ventral
    b. dorsal
  211. Which of the following is a structural, fibrous protein found in the dermis?

    (A) Collagen
    (B) Heparin
    (C) Lipocyte
    (D) Melanin
    (E) Sebum
    a. collagen
  212. A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced,
    and the skin is intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the
    following?

    (A) Closed, greenstick
    (B) Complex, comminuted
    (C) Compound, transverse
    (D) Open, spiral
    (E) Simple, pathologic
    a. closed, greenstick
  213. Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium?

    (A) Calcaneus
    (B) Femur
    (C) Symphysis pubis
    (D) Tibia
    (E) Ulna
    b. femur
  214. The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form
    for an x-ray study of the fibula. The procedure will be performed on
    which of the following structures?

    (A) Heel
    (B) Lower leg
    (C) Toes
    (D) Thigh
    (E) Pelvis
    b. lower leg
  215. Which of the following is a disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the day?

    (A) Dyslexia
    (B) Epilepsy
    (C) Hydrocephalus
    (D) Narcolepsy
    (E) Shingles
    d. narcolepsy
  216. The point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron is called the

    (A) dendrite
    (B) glial cell
    (C) nerve center
    (D) synapse
    (E) terminal plate
    d. synapse
  217. Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?

    (A) Adrenal glands
    (B) Hypothalamus
    (C) Pancreas
    (D) Thalamus
    (E) Thyroid gland
    b. hypothalamus
  218. Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell?

    (A) Abducens
    (B) Hypoglossal
    (C) Olfactory
    (D) Trochlear
    (E) Vagus
    c. olfactory
  219. Which of the following is a substance that aids the transmission of nerve impulses?

    (A) Acetylcholine
    (B) Cholecystokinin
    (C) Deoxyribose
    (D) Oxytocin
    (E) Prolactin
    a. acetylcholine
  220. The carotid pulse is located


    (A) in front of the ears and just above eye level
    (B) in the antecubital space
    (C) in the middle of the groin
    (D) on the anterior side of the neck
    (E) on the medial aspect of the wrist
    d. on the anterior side of the neck
  221. A patient sustains severe blunt trauma to the left upper abdomen and
    requires surgery. The body organ most likely to be involved is the

    (A) appendix
    (B) gallbladder
    (C) pancreas
    (D) urinary bladder
    (E) spleen
    e. spleen
  222. Where is the sinoatrial node located?

    (A) Between the left atrium and the left ventricle
    (B) Between the right atrium and the right ventricle
    (C) In the interventricular septum
    (D) In the upper wall of the left ventricle
    (E) In the upper wall of the right atrium
    e. in the upper wall of the right atrium
  223. Blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart into the

    (A) inferior vena cava
    (B) left ventricle
    (C) pulmonary arteries
    (D) pulmonary veins
    (E) right atrium
    c. pulmonary arteries
  224. Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by the

    (A) aorta
    (B) carotid arteries
    (C) inferior vena cava
    (D) pulmonary veins
    (E) superior vena cava
    d. pulmonary veins
  225. The thoracic cage is a structural unit important for

    (A) alimentation
    (B) menstruation
    (C) mentation
    (D) respiration
    (E) urination
    d. respiration
  226. Exhaled air, when compared with inhaled air, contains more

    (A) carbon dioxide and less oxygen
    (B) nitrogen and less carbon dioxide
    (C) oxygen and less carbon dioxide
    (D) oxygen and less carbon monoxide
    (E) oxygen and less nitrogen
    a. carbon dioxide and less oxygen
  227. In the lungs, gas exchange occurs in tiny one-celled air sacs called

    (A) alveoli
    (B) bronchi
    (C) bronchioles
    (D) capillaries
    (E) pleurae
    a. alveoli
  228. Bile enters the gastrointestinal tract at the

    (A) gastroesophageal sphincter
    (B) duodenum
    (C) ileocecum
    (D) jejunum
    (E) pyloric sphincter
    b. duodenum
  229. Each of the following is a segment of the large intestine EXCEPT the

    (A) ascending colon
    (B) cecum
    (C) ileum
    (D) sigmoid colon
    (E) transverse colon
    c. ileum
  230. Which of the following conditions is characterized by incompetence of the esophageal sphincter?

    (A) Crohn's disease
    (B) Esophageal varices
    (C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
    (D) Pyloric stenosis
    (E) Stomatitis
    c. gastroesophageal reflux disease
  231. Which of the following organs removes bilirubin from the blood,
    manufactures plasma proteins, and is involved with the production of
    prothrombin and fibrinogen?

    (A) Gallbladder
    (B) Kidney
    (C) Liver
    (D) Spleen
    (E) Stomach
    c. liver
  232. Which of the following is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal system that is responsible for secreting insulin?

    (A) Adrenal gland
    (B) Gallbladder
    (C) Liver
    (D) Pancreas
    (E) Spleen
    d. pancreas
  233. Which of the following is the lymphoid organ that is a reservoir for red blood cells and filters organisms from the blood?

    (A) Appendix
    (B) Gallbladder
    (C) Pancreas
    (D) Spleen
    (E) Thymus
    d. spleen
  234. The process whereby the stomach muscles contract to propel food through the digestive tract is called

    (A) absorption
    (B) emulsion
    (C) peristalsis
    (D) regurgitation
    (E) secretion
    c. peristalsis
  235. Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon

    (A) starches
    (B) proteins
    (C) fats
    (D) minerals
    (E) vitamins
    a. starches
  236. In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most commonly obtained from which of the following?

    (A) Anus
    (B) Bladder
    (C) Skin
    (D) Testicle
    (E) Urethra
    e. urethra
  237. The cluster of blood capillaries found in each nephron is the

    (A) afferent arteriole
    (B) glomerulus
    (C) Loop of Henle
    (D) renal pelvis
    (E) renal tubule
    b. glomerulus
  238. Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney stones (renal calculi)?

    (A) Glomerulonephritis
    (B) Interstitial nephritis
    (C) Nephrolithiasis
    (D) Polycystic kidney
    (E) Pyelonephritis
    c. nephrolithiasis
  239. Urine flows through the urinary system in which order?

    (A) Bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra, urethral meatus
    (B) Bladder, urethra, kidney, urethral meatus, ureter
    (C) Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, urethral meatus
    (D) Kidney, urethra, urethral meatus, bladder, ureter
    (E) Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidney, urethral meatus
    c. kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, urethral meatus
  240. In men, which of the following structures is located at the neck of the bladder and surrounds the urethra?

    (A) Epididymis
    (B) Prostate
    (C) Scrotum
    (D) Seminal vesicle
    (E) Vas deferens
    b. prostate
  241. Male hormones are produced by which of the following?

    (A) Glans penis
    (B) Prepuce
    (C) Prostate
    (D) Testes
    (E) Vas deferens
    d. testes
  242. Which of the following are mucus-producing glands located on each side of the vaginal opening?

    (A) Adrenal
    (B) Bartholin's
    (C) Bulbourethral
    (D) Corpus luteum
    (E) Parotid
    b. bartholins
  243. Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in the

    (A) cervix
    (B) fallopian tube
    (C) ovary
    (D) uterus
    (E) vagina
    b. fallopian tube
  244. Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following?

    (A) Androgens
    (B) Catecholamines
    (C) Electrolytes
    (D) Estrogens
    (E) Prostaglandins
    c. electrolytes
  245. Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system?

    (A) Adrenal
    (B) Pancreas
    (C) Pineal
    (D) Pituitary
    (E) Thyroid
    d. pituitary
  246. Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12?

    (A) Bell's palsy
    (B) Crohn's disease
    (C) Diabetes mellitus
    (D) Graves' disease
    (E) Pernicious anemia
    e. pernicious anemia
  247. Which of the following word parts is a suffix?





    D. organ/o
  248. In the structural hierarchy of organisms, which of the following immediately precedes the organ level?





    B. tissues
  249. All of the following are reasons for revocation or suspension of a physicians license EXCEPT 





    D. administering atypical treatment 
  250. A facilitative communication technique that repeats what a patient has said to demonstrate understanding is 





    C. mirroring 
  251. Which of the following word parts is a prefix?





    D. pre 
  252. Which of the following tissues consists of neurons?





    A. nervous 
  253. Behavior or actions that can be reasonably presumed to be consentual is 





    A. implied consent 
  254. All of the following are facilitative communication techniques EXCEPT 





    A. advising 
  255. Which of the following is an ENT specialist?





    B. otorhinolaryngologist 
  256. Which of the following is consider an appendage of the skin?





    D. sudoriferous glands 
  257. Which of the following may require notification of the appropriate agencies?





    E. phenylketonuria 
  258. An unconscious defence mechanism characterized by behaving in the opposite to ones actual feelings 





    A. reaction formation 
  259. Which of the following terms relates to a respiratory disorder?





    E. COPD
  260. Which of the following best descrbes a bony projection?





    E. process 
  261. Confidentiality is legally supported by the 





    E. privacy act 
  262. Mimicking the behavior of another to cope with feelings of inadequacy is called 





    D. identification
  263. Which of the following terms relates to a gynecological disorder?





    B. salpingitis 
  264. Turning a body part inward, especially the sole of the foot is 





    E. inversion 
  265. Confidentiality is ethically supported by the concept of 





    D. all of the above 
  266. The reasons a patient may desire to continue the sick role is 





    D. A B and C 
  267. Which of the following terms is spelled incorrectly?





    A. rabdomyoma 
  268. The right atrioventricular valve is known as the 





    B. tricuspid
  269. A civial commited against other persons or their property 





    A. a tort
  270. All of the following may be considered losses associated with adopting the sick role EXCEPT 





    E. none of the above 
  271. Unclear vision due to hardening of the cystaline lens common among the elderly is known as 





    A. presbyopia 
  272. The structure containing the voice box is the 





    D. larynx
  273. A physician who guarantees the outcome of a course of treatment may be in jeopardy of committing 





    A. a breach of contract 
  274. Methods of discovering what is important to a patient include 





    E. all of the above 
  275. Inflammation of the gallbladder is known as 





    D. cholecystitis 
  276. Negligence of a professional person is known as 





    A. malpractice 
  277. Radiographic study involving the urinary system is called 





    D. intravenous pyelogram 
  278. The structure that houses the glomerulus is the 





    E. bowmans capsule 
  279. The least serious degree of negligence is 





    B. ordinary
  280. Which of the following will most likely promote the preception of professional competence?





    A. appearing confident 
  281. Medical abbreviation meaning by mouth 





    C. p.o
  282. The innermost layer of the uterus is the 





    E. endometrium 
  283. The principle that the physician has a professional pbligation to care for a patient is known as 





    E. duty 
  284. Interacting with a health professional as one would interact with a parental figure is known as 





    C. transference 
  285. The medical abbreviation meaning as desired is 





    D. ad lib 
  286. Neuronal structures that receive and conduct impulses toward the cell body are 





    D. dendrites 
  287. In most states, there is no legal duty to rescue victims EXCEPT 





    C. family members 
  288. The process of converting meaning into understandable symbols is known as 





    E. encoding 
  289. The medical term meaning disease of the blood vessel(s) is 





    E. angiopathy
  290. Sensory receptors responsible for the sense of taste are 





    D. gustatory 
  291. In most states, rescuers can abandon an accident victim if 





    E. the victim is not placed in further jeopardy 
  292. Mrs. Jonathan (Wilma) Wilson would be most properly addressed as 





    D. Mrs. Wilson 
  293. Surgical removal of the iris is called an 





    B. iridectomy 
  294. The small gland located in the posterior hypothalamus is the 





    E. pineal 
  295. A defense against malpractice may include acts of independent agents that stand int he way of the casual connection between the negligent act and the damage suffered. This is called 





    D. intervening cause 
  296. If a patient is in obvous pain, the medical assistant should 





    D. indicate to the patient that he appears uncomfortable, and offer assistance 
  297. The destriction of blood cells is called 





    D. hemolysis
  298. The body region representing the neck region is the 





    D. cervical 
  299. A standard or principle that guides our behavior regarding what is right and what is wrong is a(n)





    C. moral 
  300. If an upset patient expresses frustration concerning a long wait, the medical assistant should say 





    C. " i am sorry, excuse me while i check to see when you may expect to be seen"
  301. A herniation of a joint capsule is called 





    A. arthrocele
  302. The organee responsible for energy production is the 





    C. mitochondria 
  303. An obligation to act in certain ways is a(n)





    A. duty
  304. A patient enters the clinic and collapses on the floor. The medical assistant should 





    B. calmly page the physician and immediately check the patients airway 
  305. A decrese in size of an organ or tissue is known as 





    A. atrophy 
  306. The middle layer of the skin (true skin) is the 





    C. dermis 
  307. Telling the truth best defines 





    E. veracity 
  308. Reasons patient may be reluctant to ask that instructions be repeated include 





    E. all of the above
  309. The medical abbreviation meaning every other day is 





    B. q.o.d
  310. The bone that forms the infereior, posterior aspect of the skull is the 





    D. occipital
  311. Positive character traits are





    E. virtues 
  312. Encouraging the patient to stay on a topic is known as 





    C. focusing 
  313. Lou Gehrig's disease is also known as





    D. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis 
  314. The ability of a muscle to be stimulated by nervoud impulses is 





    B. irritability
  315. Disclosing unpleasant information to a patient is best supported by the ethical concept of 





    B. veracity
  316. A common stereotype associated with persons with communication disabilities





    A. lack of intelligence 
  317. Excision of a small piece of tissue is a(n)





    A. biopsy 
  318. The double membranous sac that envelopes the heart is called the 





    A. pericardium
  319. Informed consent is most related to the concept of 





    B. autonomy 
  320. All of the following are common reaactions to illness EXCEPT 





    A. vigor
  321. Swelling of the eyelids is known as 





    B. blepharedema 
  322. An argument supporting not disclosing unpleasent information to a patient for his own good is 





    B. benecolent deception 
  323. A persons reaction to the illness of another is determined by which of the following?





    E. all of the above 
  324. The symbol for potassium hydroxide is 





    C. KOH
  325. A malingerer or hypochondriac may be inappropriately labeled a 





    B. crock 
  326. The loss of privacy through physicial exposure may affect which of the following needs most?





    A. self-esteem
  327. The structure that permits the passage of urine from the bladder to the external environment is the 





    C. urethra 
  328. Suicide is often viewed as 





    E. any of the above 
  329. Anxiety is most synonymous with 





    A. uneasiness 
  330. Testicles that have failed to descent into the scrotum indicated 





    D. cryptorchidism 
  331. Painful sexual intercourse is known as 





    C. dyspareunia 
  332. A document serving to appoint an individual, chosen by the patient, to represent the patients interests is a(n)





    C. durable power of attorney 
  333. After adopting the patient role, a patients return to society depends ont he patients ability to 





    E. all of the above 
  334. Hardening of the crystalline lens of the eye is known as 





    E. phacosclerosis
  335. The inner protective layer of the brain and spinal cord is the 





    B. pia mater 
  336. An argument supporting euthanasia is 





    C. self-determination 
  337. The loss of income resulting from an illness interferes with a patients 





    D. saftey need 
  338. Manipulating the genes of offspring through either breeding or alteration is known as 





    A. eugenics 
  339. A physicial, phychological, or social characteristic that is viewed as undesirable is 





    E. stigma
Author
bowzbabi1
ID
173713
Card Set
RMA GENERAL
Description
RMA EXAM
Updated