Which are true statements about impetigo? (Select all that apply.)
a. Vesicle or pustule that ruptures, leaving a thick crust
b. Inflamed hair follicles with white pustules
c. Inflamed skin and subcutaneous tissue with deep, inflamed nodules
d. Treated with antibiotic therapy: erythromycin or dicloxacillin
a, d
Which are true statements about cellulitis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Local tenderness and redness at first, then malaise, chills, and fever
b. At first, small shiny lesions; then they enlarge and become rough
c. Treated with electrical current to destroy lesion followed by removal with curette, cryotherapy (freezing), topical medications
d. Site becomes more erythematous; nodules and vesicles may form; vesicles may rupture, releasing purulent material
a, d
Which are changes that occur in older men and women? (Select all that apply.)
a. Increased elastic tissue
b. Increased facial hair
c. Increased subcutaneous tissue
d. Thickening of capillaries
e. Thinning of scalp hair
b, e
Nevi (moles) are carefully inspected for pigmentation, ulcerations, changes in surrounding skin, and:
D.
When assessing capillary refill, after applying pressure to cause blanching and then releasing the pressure, the nurse would observe that the color returns to normal within:
B.
The potassium hydroxide (KOH) examination is used in combination with a culture to diagnose infections of the skin, hair, or nails that are:
B.
Which are assessments of the fingernails and toenails that nurses monitor? (Select all that apply.)
a. Capillary refill
b. Edema
c. Hemorrhage
d. Mobility
e. Color of nail bed
a, e
The most common problem for patients with pruritus is Risk for impaired skin integrity related to:
D.
Nursing diagnoses for the patient with atopic dermatitis may include Impaired skin integrity related to:
D.
The assessment of patients with seborrheic dermatitis includes inspecting affected areas for:
B.
A common risk factor for developing candidiasis is:
D.
A primary problem for patients with candidiasis is:
C.
Acne is caused by:
A.
The nurse advises the patient with shingles that the condition is communicable to people who have never been exposed to:
C.
The most serious form of skin cancer is:
B.
Following a burn injury, plasma leaks into the tissue due to increased capillary:
C.
After a burn injury, shifts in fluids and electrolytes cause local edema and a decrease in:
C.
A patient with a burn experiences a shift of plasma proteins from the capillaries. This is likely to result in:
A.
Which is a complication of untreated fluid shifts in burn patients?
D.
A type of therapy used in the treatment of psoriasis, vitiligo, and chronic eczema is:
B.
Vitamin A is essential for:
C.
Food allergies can cause:
C.
Which is a topical herbal preparation used as an emollient?
B.
What should be included in the teaching plan for a patient with atopic dermatitis? (Select all that apply.)
C.
b
c
Acne lesions develop when there is:
A.
Which drug used to remove heavy scales in patients with psoriasis can stain normal skin and hair?
C.
Which skin disorder characterized by irritation and redness in body folds is fairly common among patients in long-term care facilities?
B.
Which should not be used in patients with intertrigo because it supports the growth or C. albicans?
C.
Who is at greatest risk for skin cancer?
B.
A prominent symptom of psoriasis, dermatitis, eczema, and insect bites is:
A.
If one arm and one leg are burned, what is the estimated burn size, according to the rule of nines?
D.
The burn patient is at great risk for:
D.
A patient has just been prescribed isotretinoin (Accutane) for resistant acne. Which are teaching points for this patient? (Select all that apply.)
a. A serious adverse effect of isotretinoin (Accutane) is fetal deformities.
b. Isotretinoin (Accutane) can cause mental depression, possible leading to suicidal ideation.
c. Do not apply to eyes, mouth, or angles of the nose.
d. Avoid sun exposure and use sunscreen.
a, b
Which are true statements about acne skin disorders? (Select all that apply.)
a. Mild cases of acne respond well to Acyclovir (Zovirax).
b. Comedones (whiteheads and blackheads), pustules, and cysts are characteristics of acne.
c. Two oral antibiotics that are frequently given for acne are tetracycline and erythromycin.
d. A drug prescribed for patients if acne is severe and unresponsive to antibiotics isotretinoin (Accutane).
e. Acne is a condition in which androgenic hormones cause increased sebum production and bacteria proliferation, causing hair follicles to block and become inflamed.
b, c, d, e
Which are true statements about herpes zoster virus? (Select all that apply.)
a. Older adults are especially
susceptible to complications, including ophthalmic involvement, from herpes zoster virus.
b. Patients with herpes zoster virus exhibit early symptoms of heightened sensitivity along a nerve pathway, pain, and itching.
c. Cold sores or fever blisters or oral lesions caused by herpes zoster virus.
d. The sites most often infected by herpes zoster virus are the nose, lips, cheeks, ears, and genitalia.
e. Wet dressing soaked in Burow's solution may be used to treat lesions associated with herpes zoster virus.
f. Herpes zoster infection is commonly called shingles.
a, b, e, f
Which are true statements about candidiasis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Candidiasis infections, which are manifested as red lesions with white plaques, are found on the mucous membranes.
b. Three common sites for candidiasis include the mouth, skin, and vagina.
c. Candidiasis is a bacterial infection caused by herpes simplex.
d. Oral candidiasis is treated with nystatin.
e. One area that is susceptible to candidiasis, owing to the constant moisture found there, is the ostomy site.
a, b, d, e
Which are skin changes related to malnutrition? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hives
b. Pruritus
c. Cracked skin
d. Dermatitis
e. Dry skin (xerosis)
c, d, e
Which types of skin lesions require contact precautions? (Select all that apply.)
a. Wart lesions
b. Infected lesions
c. Plaque lesions
d. Draining lesions
e. Weeping lesions
f. Scaly lesions
b, d, e
Which problems are most likely to occur in the emergent stage of patients with burns? (Select all that apply.)
a. Risk for infection
b. Risk for imbalanced nutrition
c. Decreased cardiac output
d. Excess fluid volume
c, d
Which of the following problems are related to patients with burns? (Select all that apply.)
a. Acute pain related to tissue trauma
b. Risk for infection related to loss of protective skin barrier
c. Impaired skin integrity related to scratching
d. Hypothermia related to impaired heat-regulating ability of injured skin
e. Impaired physical mobility related to contractures, pain
f. Impaired skin integrity related to inflammation
a, b, d, e
Which is a problem for the patient with shingles?
A.
Which are problems for the patient with psoriasis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Risk for injury related to improper nail trimming, poor peripheral circulation
b. Decreased cardiac output related to hypovolemia secondary to shift of fluid from vascular to extracellular compartment
c. Disturbed body image related to lesions and scales on skin
d. Excess fluid volume related to changes in capillary permeability and accumulation of fluid in body tissues
e. Social isolation related to embarrassment about flake skin lesions
c, e
When a skin biopsy is scheduled, the physician may advise the patient to avoid which drug before the procedure to reduce bleeding?
C.
Which foods are vital for healthy skin? (Select all that apply.)
a. Liver
b. Sweet potato
c. Grapefruit
d. Bananas
e. Cantaloupe
f. Spinach
g. Carrots
a, b, e, f, g
Which are true statements about glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
a. Tunnel vision occurring in patients with glaucoma
b. A condition in which intraocular pressure is decreased below normal
c. Excess pressure impairs blood flow to the optic nerve, resulting in vision impairment
d. The type of vision that is lost first in glaucoma
a, c
Which are true statements about drugs used to treat glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
a. Timolol maleate (Timpoptic), used in glaucoma to lower intraocular pressure,, is classified as a beta blocker.
b. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is used to reduce intraocular pressure by increasing the production of aqueous humor.
c. Chronic glaucoma, open-angle glaucoma, is usually treated first with drug therapy, which include miotics.
d. Adrenergics are used to decrease intraocular pressure, by decreasing the formation of aqueous humor and increasing its outflow.
a, c, d
As light enters the eye, it passes through the transparent cornea, aqueous humor, lens, and:
B.
Dark spots that are actually bits of debris in the vitreous are called:
C.
If a patient has sensitivity to light, the nurse would document this as:
B.
When the nurse is performing a physical assessment of the eyes, the lids should cover the eyeball completely when closed; when the eyes are open, the lower lid should be at the level of the:
B.
The eyeball is inspected for color and moisture; the sclera should be clear:
B.
The pupils are assessed for size, equality, and reaction to light; pupils that are unequal, dilated, or do not respond to light suggest:
B.
When the nurse asks the patient to focus on the nurse's finger as it is moved slowly toward the patient's nose, the nurse is assessing:
A.
Visual acuity is commonly tested using:
C.
Eye surgery may involve surgical incisions, the application of cold probes (cryotherapy), or the use of:
D.
Following eye surgery, the patient is usually positioned:
D.
An important aspect of the care of postoperative eye patients is to prevent increased:
A.
Medications prescribed after cataract surgery usually include antibiotics and:
D.
One of the leading causes of blindness in the United States is:
B.
Which drug has a side effect of vision disturbances?
B.
A vision of 20/30 on the Snellen chart means that the person can:
A.
The measurement of pressure in the anterior chamber of the eye is:
A.
Which is an inflammation of hair follicles along the eyelid?
C.
Corticosteroids are contraindicated in patients with conjunctivitis caused by:
D.
Which drug is ordered before surgery for a patient with cataracts?
C.
Which herb should not be taken by patients with glaucoma because it increases intraocular pressure?
D.
A patient see floaters and states: "It is like a curtain has come down across my vision." This is a symptom of:
C.
Which antioxidant is believed to slow the progression of age-related macular degeneration?
B.
Which are signs and symptoms of cataracts? (Select all that apply.)
a. Tunnel vision
b. Loss of peripheral vision
c. Cloudy vision
d. Seeing spots
e. Floaters in eyes
c, e
Which are interventions that relate to lighting for patients who are partially sighted? (Select all that apply.)
a. Reduce flare because it interferes with vision.
b. Make sure the furniture is a different color from the floors and walls.
c. Use dishes and cups with a solid, single color to facilitate self-feeding and reduce spills.
a, b
Which are the most common problems for patients with impaired vision? (Select all that apply.)
a. Disturbed sensory perception related to inflammation, rejection of transplanted tissue
b. Ineffective coping related to decreased independence
c. Disturbed sensory perception related to altered reception, transmission, and interpretation of visual stimuli
d. Self-care deficit (feeding, hygiene, grooming) related to visual impairment
b, c, d
Which are problems for patients with glaucoma? (Select all that apply.)
a. Disturbed sensory perception related to vision changes caused by rejection of transplanted tissue
b. Fear related to actual or potential loss of vision
c. Acute pain related to acute increased intraocular pressure
b, c
What are the goals/patient outcomes related to risk for injury for a patient who is postoperative eye surgery? (Select all that apply.)
a. Patient states pain is relieved.
b. Patient avoids rubbing eyes.
c. Patient is careful not to bend forward.
d. Patient demonstrates self-care activities.
b, c
If more than one medication is being given, the nurse must wait how long between each medication?
C.
Nurses can teach people how to care for their eyes in order to protect their vision; it is important to tell people that:
A.
The nurse should treat nausea promptly in the postoperative eye surgery patient in order to prevent:
D.
Which is correct patient teaching regarding protection of health of the eyes?
D.
A primary consideration of the patient with visual impairment is:
C.
Following cataract surgery, the nurse should:
D.
Which nursing interventions for the patient are planned to prevent increased intraocular pressure? (Select all that apply.)
a. Keep the bed in low position.
b. Keep head of bed elevated.
c. Instruct the patient not to rub the operative eye, strain, or lean forward
d. Instruct the patient to lie on the affected side.
e. Administer antiemetics immediately as ordered for nausea and vomiting.
f. Encourage patient to take stool softeners as ordered to prevent constipation.
g. Acknowledge fear of vision loss common with eye surgery.
b, c, e, f
Which statements are related to sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)
a. Patients who hear better in noisy settings than in quiet settings have sensorineural hearing loss.
b. Causes include congenital problems, noise, trauma, aging, Meniere syndrome, ototoxicity, diabetes, and syphilis.
c. A condition in which the stapes in the middle ear does not vibrate.
d. A disturbance of the neural structures in the inner ear or the nerve pathways to the brain.
e. Sometimes called nerve deafness.
f. Patients can hear sounds but have difficulty understanding speech.
b, d, e, f
Which statements are related to conductive hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)
a. Patients who either cannot perceive or cannot interpret sounds that are heard
b. A hearing loss that results from interference with the transmission of sound waves from the external or middle ear to the inner ear
c. People with conductive hearing losses are usually helped to hear by hearing aids
d. May be caused by otosclerosis or obstruction of the external canal or eustachian tube
e. Patients either cannot perceive or cannot interpret sounds that are heard
b, c, d
Which are true statements about otitis externa? (Select all that apply.)
a. It is also called swimmer's ear.
b. Treatment of otitis externa includes topical corticosteroids and diuretics.
c. Drainage in otitis externa may be blood-tinged or purulent.
d. May be caused by scratching or cleaning the ear with sharp objects.
e. The most characteristic symptom of otitis externa is itching.
a, c, d
Age-related changes in the inner ear affect sensitivity to sound, understanding of speech, and:
C.
The type of hearing loss usually associated with aging is:
D.
Pain in the ear is called:
C.
Ototoxicity means that a drug can damage the eighth cranial nerve or the organs of:
B.
Examples of drugs that can have ototoxic effects are:
A.
When assessing the position of the auricles, the nurse should observe that the top of the auricle normally will be at about the level of the:
B.
The external auditory canal is inspected for obvious obstructions or:
B.
Which is the only normal secretion in the external auditory canal?
C.
Otic drops, or ear drops, are intended to be placed directly into the:
D.
The use of solution to cleanse the external ear canal or to remove something from the canal is called:
B.
Which is a common indication for irrigation?
C.
Which is a device that amplifies sound?
C.
People who benefit the most from hearing aids are those with:
A.
Postoperative dizziness or vertigo following ear surgery may put the patient at risk for:
D.
Patients who have had ear surgery may have altered auditory sensory perception as a result of:
A.
Following ear surgery, patients often complain of the sensation that the room is spinning or that their bodies are spinning. This is documented as:
C.
After ear surgery, patients are advised to move slowly and carefully and to avoid sudden movement, which may cause:
D.
Of all patients with sensory disorders, people who probably suffer the most severe social isolation are those with:
D.
To prevent one form of congenital hearing impairment, all women of childbearing age should be immunized for:
B.
One of the most common causes of obstruction of the external ear canal is:
B.
Patients with impacted cerumen may complain of hearing loss or:
C.
A very common problem after mastoidectomy or middle ear surgery is:
D.
Because the fixed stapes cannot vibrate in patients with otosclerosis, sound waves cannot be transmitted to the:
D.
Slow progressive hearing loss in the absence of infection is the primary symptom of:
A.
The most common treatment for otosclerosis is a surgical procedure called:
D.
A hereditary condition in which an abnormal growth causes the footplate of the stapes to become fixed is:
B.
An upper ear infection that usually follows an upper respiratory infection and that may lead to Ménière disease is:
C.
The treatment of labyrinthitis is:
A.
Which is a major concern for a patient with vertigo?
B.
Which is the primary symptom of ototoxicity which salicylates?
C.
A low buzzing sound that sometimes becomes a roar and that is a symptom of Ménière disease is documented as:
D.
When the caloric test or electronystagmography is done in patients with Ménière disease, they will experience severe:
D.
Following surgery for Ménière disease, the nurse needs to assess the patient for:
D.
Presbycusis is the result of changes in one or more parts of the:
B.
A labyrinth disorder in which there is an accumulation of fluid in the inner ear is:
A.
Drugs that can cause permanent hearing loss are:
D.
Patients who are at special risk of developing ototoxicity because their bodies excrete drugs more slowly are those with:
C.
Rinne's and Weber's tests use a tuning fork to assess the:
C.
Which diet may be recommended for patients' with Ménière disease?
A.
Which are potential complications of surgery for Ménière disease? (Select all that apply.)
a. Tinnitus
b. Infection
c. Hearing loss
d. Ataxia
e. Loss of cerebral spinal fluid
f. Damage to cranial nerve VII (facial nerve)
b, c, e, f
Which is true about drying agents used as drug therapy for patients with ear infections? (Select all that apply.)
a. Decrease risk of infection by drying the external canal after swimming or bathing.
b. Prevent or treat nausea, vomiting, motion sickness.
c. They soften ear wax.
d. An example is boric acid.
e. Contraindicated with perforated tympanic membrane.
f. Used with ear surgery.
a, d, e
Which are true statements about the use of topical corticosteroids for patients with ear infections? (Select all that apply.)
a. Prevent or treat nausea, vomiting, and motion sickness.
b. Treat inflammation, pruritus, and allergic response.
c. Side effects include sedation, drowsiness, and dry mouth.
d. Side effects include hypersensitivity: redness, rash, burning.
e. Otocort, neomycin, colistin (Coly-Mycin S Otic), and polymyxin B are examples.
b, e
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is taking aspirin. The nurse will monitor the patient for which signs and symptoms of toxicity? (Select all that apply.)
a. Hearing loss
b. Ataxia
c. Infection
d. Tinnitus
e. Dizziness
f. Drainage
a, b, d, e
The nurse is taking care of a patient with Ménière disease. Which of the following is the priority problem for this patient?
C.
Which is the correct postoperative intervention for a patient who has had ear surgery?
D.
Which is the priority intervention for patients with impaired verbal communication?
D.
For patients with throat disorders, for what does the nurse inspect the mucous membranes and tonsils of the throat? (Select all that apply.)
a. Cyanosis
b. Lesions
c. Pallor
d. Redness
e. Drainage
f. Swelling
b, d, e, f
Inspection and palpation of the neck may reveal enlarged:
B.
Epistaxis (nosebleed) is more common in older people, especially in those taking:
B.
A patient has a weakened esophageal sphincter that allows gastric contents to flow back into the throat when the patient lies down. Where does this patient experience a burning sensation?
B.
Following laryngoscopy, the patient takes nothing by mouth until:
B.
Before suctioning a patient, it is important to:
D.
Which is a key point to remember when suctioning a patient?
A.
When providing tracheostomy care to a patient, which is the appropriate intervention?
A.
Which are common problems the nurse monitors in a patient who has had nasal surgery? (Select all that apply.)
a. Tachycardia
b. Dyspnea
c. Pain
d. Pressure
e. Anxiety
f. Hypotension
g. Pallor
b, c, d, e
After nasal surgery, the patient's vital signs are monitored to detect signs of which of the following?
D.
The patient who has had nasal surgery may be at risk for decreased cardiac output because of:
B.
Following nasal surgery, what is the priority problem for this patient?
B.
Laxatives or stool softeners may be ordered for patients after nasal surgery in order to prevent which of the following?
D.
Which is the best position for patients after nasal surgery in order to prevent which of the following?
C.
When the nasal cavity is packed following surgery, the patient is breathing through the mouth. Which is the best measure that helps decrease dryness of the mucous membranes?
A.
Patients may experience disturbed body image following nasal surgery due to:
A.
Serious neurologic complications should be suspected in patients with sinusitis if the patient develops which of the following?
A.
Which is the type of surgery performed for chronic maxillary sinusitis?
D.
Desensitizing injections, or "allergy shots," are composed of dilute solutions of which of the following?
B.
A deviated septum may obstruct the nasal passage and block which of the following?
D.
Patients with a deviated septum may complain of epistaxis, sinusitis, and:
C.
When epistaxis occurs, the patient should sit down and lean forward and direct pressure should be applied for:
C.
Suctioning is limited to 10 seconds because prolonged suctioning may lead to which of the following?
A.
Patients with severe epistaxis may be at high risk for infection due to:
C.
The two major problems that may develop in the postoperative phase of tonsillectomy are respiratory distress and:
C.
Following a tonsillectomy, a treatment that may be applied to the neck to decrease swelling and pain is:
A.
A postoperative tonsillectomy patient is ready to be discharged. Which symptoms should be reported to the physician if the nurse observes them?
B.
Which treatment is usually prescribed to reduce irritation of the larynx in patients with laryngitis?
B.
A primary nursing diagnosis for patients with laryngitis due to aphonia is:
C.
What is the correct term for benign masses of fibrous tissue that result primarily from overuse of the voice tor that follow infections?
B.
The only symptom of laryngeal nodules is:
D.
Which is the term for a swollen mass of mucous membrane attached to the vocal cord?
B.
Individuals who both smoke and use alcohol are at particularly high risk for:
B.
What is the most common site of metastasis in a patient with laryngeal cancer?
D.
Total laryngectomy causes permanent loss of the:
B.
A total laryngectomy involves removal of the entire larynx, vocal cords, and which of the following?
D.
Gently closing one naris at time and instructing the patient to breathe through the other naris is a way to assess:
C.
Normally, the frontal and maxillary sinuses are filled with which of the following?
C.
In the immediate postoperative period after total laryngectomy, the nurse's assessment focuses on comfort, circulation, and:
D.
Which position promotes maximal lung expansion in the patient with a laryngectomy?
B.
To prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs of patients with laryngectomies, which should the nurse encourage?
B.
Which herb is used to boost the immune system and is taken by some to decrease the severity of a cold?
C.
To decrease the patient's reaction to offending allergens, the allergist may recommend injections for what purpose?
B.
Which are true statements about sinusitis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Pain or a feeling of heaviness over the frontal or maxillary area is a common symptom.
b. Toothache-like pain is a common symptom of sinusitis that involves the front sinus.
c. Complications of sinusitis include brain abscess and meningitis.
d. Most sinus infections are caused by a virus.
a, c
Which are true statements about acute viral coryza? (Select all that apply.)
a. Acute viral coryza is contagious and spread by droplet infection.
b. Complications of acute viral coryza are more common in people with increased resistance.
c. Complications of acute viral coryza include otitis media, sinusitis, bronchitis, and pneumonia.
d. Antibiotics are effective against acute viral coryza.
e. Decongestants and antihistamines are used to treat acute viral coryza.
a, c, e
Which are true statements about pharyngitis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Pharyngitis is treated with rest, fluids, analgesics, and throat gargles.
b. A soft or liquid diet may be ordered because of nausea.
c. A treatment that may be ordered is humidification.
d. The recommended daily fluid intake for patients with pharyngitis is 1000-1500 ml
a, c
Which are complications of bacterial pharyngitis that may occur 1-5 weeks after the throat infection? (Select all that apply.)
a. Acute glomerulohephritis
b. Meningitis
c. Sinusitis
d. Brain abscess
e. Rheumatic fever
a, e
Which are true statements about patients with tonsillitis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Tonsillitis is a contagious infection spread by food or airborne routes.
b. A patient with tonsillitis usually reports a sore throat, difficulty swallowing, fever, chills, and muscle aches.
c. If swollen tissue blocks the eustachian tubes in patients with tonsillitis, there may also by pain in the lungs.d. An elevated white blood cell count in patients with tonsillitis suggest a viral infection.e. The medical treatment of tonsillitis usually includes the use of antibiotics
a, b, e
Which are common problems for a patient with epistaxis? (Select all that apply.)
a. Ineffective airway clearance related to increased pulmonary secretions or weak cough
b. Decreased cardiac output related to hypovolemia secondary to hemorrhage
c. Risk for injury related to pressure (of packing, balloon) and possible airway obstruction
d. Risk for infection related to presence of nasal packing
e. Disturbed body image related to facial bruising
b, c, d
With facial trauma or nasal fracture, the recommended treatment initially is application of:
C.
Which are early signs of inadequate oxygenation in the postoperative tonsillectomy patient? (Select all that apply.)
a. Cyanosis
b. Pallor
c. Numbness
d. Confusion
e. Restlessness
f. Increased pulse rate
d, e, f
Which foods should be avoided in patients after a tonsillectomy?
C.
In the patient with a laryngectomy, the nurse monitors the need for suctioning by observing which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
a. Increased pulse
b. Swelling
c. Pain
d. Restlessness
e. Audible or visible mucus
a, d, e
The nurse is taking care of a patient who has had a laryngectomy. Which of the following are factors that affect the respiratory status of this patient. (Select all that apply.)
a. Nutrition
b. Verbal communication
c. Humidification
d. Personal hygiene
e. Positioning
f. Fluids
c, e, f
An older adult has pharyngitis. Why must fluids be increased slowly in older adults?
