Absite Radiology

  1. What is the most commonly injured organ in blunt trauma?
  2. What is the most commonly injured organ in penetrating trauma?
    Small bowel
  3. What is the most common anatomic reason for upper airway obstruction?
  4. What does diagnostic peritoneal lavage miss?
    Retroperitoneal bleeding

    Contained hematomas
  5. What areas are checked in a FAST scan?
    • 1. Pericardium
    • 2. Around liver fossa
    • 3. Around spleen
    • 4. Around pelvis
  6. What is typically missed in a FAST scan?
    Retroperitoneal bleeding

    Hollow viscous injuries
  7. What do trauma CT scans miss?
    Hollow viscous injuries

    Diaphragm injuries
  8. When does abdominal compartment syndrome occur?
    Massive fluid resuscitation


    Abdominal surgery
  9. What vessels are damaged in an epidural hematoma?
    Middle meningeal artery
  10. In a epidural hematoma, where does the blood accumulate?
    Between the dura mater and the skull
  11. In a subdural hematoma, where does the blood accumulate?
    Between the dura mater and the arachnoid membrane
  12. What is the source of blood in a subdural hematoma?
    Tearing of bridging veins
  13. How often are skull fractures seen in epidural hematomas?
    85 to 95% of the time
  14. What types of attenuation values do chronic hematomas have?
    Low attenuation values
  15. What the three layers of meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord?
    • Dura mater
    • Arachnoid mater
    • Pia mater
  16. What is the typical symptoms for patients presenting with acute epidural hematoma?
    Initial loss of conscious

    Lucid interval

    Sudden deterioration
  17. How do patients typically present after subdural hematomas?
    Often in elderly patients after falls or MVAs
  18. When do skull fractures need to be taken to the OR?
    Depressed skull fractures

    Compound skull fractures
  19. What is the pathogenesis of diffuse axonal injury?
    Widespread disruption of axons from acceleration or deceleration injury
  20. Within the layers of the meninges, where does CSF reside?
    Between the arachnoid and pia mater
  21. What is the equation for cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP)?
    MAP - ICP
  22. What are the major parts of the inner surface of the skull base?
    • Anterior
    • Middle
    • Posterior
  23. What is the most common site of facial nerve (VII) injury?
    Geniculate ganglion
  24. What is another name for C1?
  25. What is another name for C2?
  26. What is distinct about the atlas vertebrae?
    The atlas has no body
  27. What joint is involved in flexion/extension of the neck?
    Atlas - occipital joint
  28. What joint is involved in the lateral rotation of the neck?
    Atlas - axis
  29. What is another name for a C1 fracture?
    Jefferson fracture
  30. What is the mechanism of a C1 fracture?
    Jefferson fracture - axial compression forces
  31. What is unique about the C2 vertebrae?
    Odontoid process (dens) emerging from anterior aspect of body of vertebrae
  32. What is the mechanism for a Hangman's fracture?
    Hyperextension of neck leading to a C2 fracture
  33. What structures are disrupted in a Hangman's fracture?
    Anterior longitudinal ligament

    Pars interarticularis
  34. What are the different types of odontoid fractures?
    • Type I - Above base of odontoid
    • Type II - At base of odontoid
    • Type III - extends to vertebral body
  35. What are the three columns of the thoracolumbar spine?
    • Anterior
    • Middle
    • Posterior
  36. What is the difference between a burst and a wedge fracture?
    Wedge fracture only involves anterior column
  37. What separates anterior and middle columns of the spine?
    Anterior includes the anterior 1/2 of the vertebral body
  38. What is the pathognomonic sign for hyperparathyroidism?
    Subperiostial bone resorption of radial aspect of middle phalanges
  39. What is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?
    Parathyroid adenoma (80%)
  40. What is the most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?
    Renal failure
  41. What is the basic structure of the parathyroid glands?
    4 glands

    Superior and inferior glands
  42. What is the embryological origin of the parathyroid glands?
    Superior - 4th branchial pouch

    Inferior - 3rd branchial pouch
  43. What makes up Hesselbach's triangle?
    • Rectus muscle (medial border)
    • Inguinal ligament (inferior border)
    • Inferior epigastric artery (lateral border)
  44. What does the inguinal ligament come from?
    External oblique
  45. What makes up the floor of the inguinal canal?
    Transversalis muscle
  46. What abdominal wall muscle does the cremasteric muscle come from?
    Internal oblique
  47. Relative to Hesselbach's triangle, where do direct hernias form?
    Medial to the inferior epigastric artery
  48. Relative to Hesselbach's triangle, where do indirect hernias form?
    Lateral to the inferior epigastric artery
  49. What are the most common types of inguinal hernias?
    Indirect hernias
  50. Where do indirect inguinal hernias come from?
    Patent processus vaginalis
  51. Where do sliding inguinal hernias come from in males?
    Cecum or sigmoid colon
  52. Where do sliding inguinal hernias come from in females?
    Ovaries/fallopian tubes
  53. What types of hernias are infants/children more likely to get?
    Almost always indirect inguinal hernia
  54. What is the most common complication after an inguinal hernia repair?
    Urinary retention
  55. What is the inguinal canal created by?
    External oblique aponeurosis/inguinal ligament curls on itself to form U shaped structure
  56. What is inside the inguinal canal in males and females?
    Males - spermatic cord

    Females - round ligament
  57. What are the components of the spermatic cord?
    Vas deferens

    Testicular artery/vein (Pampiniform plexus)

    Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
  58. What are the boundaries of the femoral canal?
    • Inguinal ligament
    • Femoral vein
    • Lacunar (Cooper's ligament)
  59. Where do epigastric hernias occur?
    Above umbilicus

    Through linea alba
  60. What arteries supply the adrenal glands?
    • Superior adrenal
    • Middle Adrenal
    • Inferior Adrenal
  61. Where does the superior adrenal artery emerge from?
    Inferior phrenic artery
  62. Where does the inferior phrenic artery emerge from?
    Aorta or celiac axis
  63. Where does the middle adrenal artery emerge from?
  64. Where does the inferior adrenal artery come from?
    Renal artery
  65. Where do the left and right adrenal veins drain into?
    • Left adrenal vein > left renal vein
    • Right adrenal vein > IVC
  66. What is the most common source of extrahepatic collateral blood supply to hepatocellular carcinomas?
    Inferior phrenic artery
  67. What layer covers the kidneys and adrenals?
    Gerota's fascia
  68. What are the most common types of kidney stones?
    Calcium oxalate stones (75%)
  69. What is the second most common type of kidney stone?
    Struvite stone (Magnesium ammonium phosphate) (15%)
  70. What type of urinary infection is associated with struvite stones?
    Proteus mirabilis
  71. What types of stones are seen in patients who had their terminal ileums resected and why?
    Calcium oxalate - increased calcium oxalate reabsorption in colon, higher chance of precipation of those stones in kidney
  72. What is the number 1 type of testicular tumor?
  73. What are different types of nonseminomatous testicular cancers?
    • Embryonal
    • Yolk Sac
    • Teratoma
    • Choriocarcinoma
  74. What markers are elevated in non-seminomatous testicular cancers?

  75. What are three muscular groups that make up the diaphragm?
    Pars lumbaris

    Pars costalis

    Pars sternalis
  76. What types of hernias form at the junction between the pars lumbaris and pars costalis?
    Bochdalek hernias
  77. What types of hernias form between the pars sternalis and the pars costalis on the right side?
    Morgagni's hernia
  78. What is the name of the space between the pars sternalis and pars costalis on the left side?
    Larrey space
  79. What is eventration?
    Area of congenital weakness in diaphragm
  80. What are the stages of bone healing?
    • 1. Inflammation
    • 2. Soft callus formation
    • 3. Mineralization of callus
    • 4. Removal of callus
  81. What is the mnemonic for Salter Harris Fractures?
    • SALTR
    • S - same/straight across
    • A - Above (physis)
    • L - Lower (below physis)
    • T - Through
    • R - Rammed (crushed)
  82. What types of Salter Harris fractures require open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF)?
    Salter Harris Types III, IV and V
  83. What fractures are associated with avascular necrosis?


    Femoral neck
  84. What bone connects to the tibia?
  85. What bone connects to the talus?
  86. What bones are directly distal to the navicular?
    Cuneiform bones (lateral, intermediate, medial)
  87. What bone is lateral to the lateral cuneiform bone?
    Cuboid bone
  88. What bones are distal to the cuneiform bones?
    Metatarsal bones
  89. What types of fractures are most commonly associated with nonunion?
    Clavicle fractures

    5th metatarsal fracture
  90. What is another term for the 5th metatarsal fracture?
    Jones fracture
  91. What types of fractures are associated with compartment syndrome?
    Supracondylar humerus

  92. What are the components of the intervertebral disk?
    Annulus fibrosis

    Nucleus pulposus
  93. What is the most common type of shoulder dislocation?
    Anterior shoulder dislocation (95%)
  94. What are the most common causal associations with a posterior shoulder dislocation?

  95. What structure is at risk for injury in an anterior shoulder dislocation?
    Axillary nerve
  96. What structure is at risk for injury in a posterior shoulder dislocation?
    Axillary artery
  97. Which structure contains the ovarian vessels and nerve?
    Infundibular ligament -

    Contains ovarian artery, vein, nerve
  98. What is the blood supply to the ovaries?
    Ovarian artery

    Uterine artery - adnexal branch
  99. What is the most common US finding in ovarian torsion?
    Large ovary (> 4 cm)
  100. What are the most common presenting sx of ectopic pregnancy?
    Pelvic pain

    Vaginal bleeding
  101. What is the major cause of vulvar hematomas?
    Blunt trauma
  102. When can vulvar hematomas be managed conservatively?
    • 1) Lack of rapid expansion
    • 2) Ability to void clear urine
  103. What is endometriosis?
    Presence of ectopic endometrial glands and stroma in aberrant locations
  104. What is the most common site of involvement of endometriosis?
  105. What happens to leiomyomas with uterine artery embolization?
    Ischemia which causes necrosis and shrinkage of myomas
  106. What are sx of leiomyomas?
    Pressure from an enlarging uterus



    Adverse pregnancy outcomes
  107. What type of cancer is vaginal cancer typically?
    Squamous cell
  108. What drug is associated with clear cell carcinoma of the vagina?
    DES (diethylstilbestrol)
  109. What types of cancers are endometrial cancers typically?
  110. What histologic types of endometrial cancers are associated with a worse prognosis?
    Papillary serous

    Clear cell
  111. What cell type of ovarian cancer is most common?
    Epithelial (85%)
  112. Ultrasound findings of acute cholecystitis?
    • Thickening of gallbladder wall
    • Pericholecystic fluid
    • Gallbladder distention
    • Presence of impacted gallstone
    • Sonographic murphy's sign
  113. What intestinal artery do emboli typically go to?
  114. What is the definition of volvulus?
    Loop of gut has twisted on itself
  115. What anatomic landmark is associated with the ligament of Treitz?
    Junction between duodenum and jejunum
  116. What is the most common site for colonic volvulus?
    Sigmoid colon
  117. What is the taeniae coli?
    Condensations of the outer muscular layer along the length of the colon
  118. What causes haustra to form in the colon?
    Taeniae coli are 1/6 of the length of the entire colon - causes pouches of colon to form
  119. What is the widest part of the colon?
  120. What are the spaces between haustra called?
    Plicae semilunaris
  121. What are valvulae connivente?
    Muscular bands encircling small bowel
  122. What is the definition of ileus vs obstruction?
    Non-mechanical stasis of bowel vs mechanical stasis of bowel
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Absite Radiology
Absite Radiology Review