-
Genetic fisk factors of MI include:
- glucose metabolism
- lipid metabolism
- platelet function
- blood pressure/growth regulation
- coagulation/ fibrinolysis
-
Fibrinogen is converted by _______ into fibrin during blood
coagulation.
thrombin
-
Fibrin iscross linked by _______ to form a clot.
factor XIII
-
FXIIIa stabilizes fibrin further by incorporation of the __________
fibrinolysis
-
Fibrin specifically binds the activated coagulation factors __________ and _________ and entraps them in the network of fibers, thus functioning as a temporary inhibitor of these enzymes, which stay active and can be released during _________.
- factor Xa
- thrombin
- fibrinolysis
-
Fibrinolysis refers to the process of fibrin digestion by the fibrin-specific protease, __________.
plasmin
-
What class of drugs activate the fibrinolytic system by converting plasminogen to plasmin? Name 2 drugs and its specificity.
- tissue plasminogen activator
- tenecteplase, alteplase, reteplase, lanoteplase - fibrin specific
- streptokinase - non specific
-
How does a fibrin specific differ from a non specific tpa?
the non specific degrades fibrinogen, factor V, & factor VIII
-
Fibrinolytics are used only for what indication?
STEMI
-
Which tpa has the highest incidence of noncerebral bleeding complications and need for transfusion.
alteplase
-
Survival benefit greatest when lytics administered within first _______ after onset of symptoms, particularly within the first ________.
-
Never use eptifibatide with which class of drugs?
tpa
-
What dose of clopidogrel should be used with a CABG?
300-600mg
-
Fibrinolytic therapy should be started within _______ after the diagnosis of STEMI is made
30 minutes
-
In STEMI, fibrinolytic agents offer a trade-off between reduced mortality and increased incidence of ___________ bleeding
intracerebral
-
Absolute contraindications to thrombolytics
- Previous ICH
- Known structural cerebral vascular lesion
- Known malignant intracranial neoplasm
- Ischemic CVA (stroke) within 3 months prior
- Suspected aortic dissection
- Active bleeding or bleeding diathesis
- Significant closed-head or facial trauma within 3 months prior
-
Relative contraindications to thrombolytics
- Poorly controlled or chronic sustained HTN
- Ischemic CVA (stroke) >3 months prior
- Dementia
- Traumatic or prolonged CPR or major surgery within <3 wk prior
- Recent (within 2-4 wk) internal bleeding
- Noncompressible vascular puncture
- Allergy to lytic agents
- Pregnancy
- Active peptic ulcer
- Current use of anti-coagulants
-
_________ cleaves fibrinogen to fibrin.
thrombin (factor IIa)
-
Alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase adjunctive therapy: Unfractionated heparin (UFH) at ________ bolus followed by ________ infusion; maintain PTT b/w ________ sec for 48hr.
-
LMWH also effective w/ tenecteplase, although don’t use it in pts ______ y/o (increased risk of ICH) or those with CrCl less
than ________- Enoxaparin dose _______ q ______ hrs
-
Heparin binds to the enzyme inhibitor ___________ causing a conformational change that results in its activation through an increase in the flexibility of its reactive site loop.
antithrombin III (AT)
-
The activated antithrombin III (AT) then inactivates ________ and other proteases involved in blood clotting, most notably __________. The rate of inactivation of these proteases by AT can increase by up to 1000-fold due to the binding of ________.
-
Antithrombin is a ________________
serpin (serine protease inhibitor)
-
The physiological target proteases of antithrombin are
________, ___________, ________, ________, and, to a greater extent, __________(thrombin), and also __________
- Factor XIIa
- Factor XIa
- Factor IXa
- Factor Xa
- Factor IIa
- Factor VIIa
-
Heparin dose: LD ________ iv bolus (Max 5000 units if > 65kg or 4000 u if < 65 kg)
60u/kg
-
Heparin Maintenance dose: ________ iv with max of 1000 u/hr if > 65kg or 800 u< 65kg
12 u/kg/hr
-
Heparin titration goal is ______ PTT
50-70 sec
-
LMWH dose : enoxaparin ________ sc q12h
100 u/kg (1mg/kg)
-
DO NOT administer concurrent GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors with thrombolytics
DO NOT administer concurrent GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors with thrombolytics
-
Clopidogrel is a ________ which must undergo hepatic conversion to its active metabolite for platelet inhibition, a process taking several hours.
prodrug
-
Thienopyridines (P2Y12 ADP receptor platelet inhibitor)
- ticlopidine
- clopidogrel
- prasugrel
- Tricagrelor
-
Direct thrombin inhibitors
- heparin
- bivalirudin
- argatroban
- Dabigatran
- Lepirudin
-
GP IIb/IIIa inhibitors
- abciximab
- eptifibatide
- tirofiban
-
Low molecular weight heparin
Enoxaparin
-
Aspirin inhibits __________ (prostaglandin G/H synthase) that mediates the first step in the biosynthesis of prostaglandins and thromboxanes (including _________) from arachidonic acid. ________________ is a potent stimulator of platelet aggregation.
- cyclooxygenase
- TXA2
- Thromboxane A2
-
The platelet P2Y12 receptor blockers ________, __________, __________, and __________ block the binding of ________ to a specific platelet receptor P2Y12, thereby inhibiting activation of the ________ complex and _____________.
- clopidogrel
- ticlopidine
- ticagrelor
- prasugrel
- ADP
- GP IIb/IIIa
- platelet aggregation
-
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (GP IIb/IIIa) antibodies and receptor antagonists inhibit the ___________ of platelet aggregation (the cross-bridging of _________ by ________ binding to the GP IIb/IIIa receptor).
- final common pathway
- platelets
- fibrinogen
-
Ticarelor (Brilinta ®) _____ LD, then ______ BID, indicated STEMI and NSTEMI (BID dosing)
-
Prasugrel (Effient ®) _____ LD, then _____ qd
NSTEMI or STEMI with planned PCI indicated qd
-
•Clopidogrel (Plavix ®) ________ LD, then ________
daily- STEMI or NSTEMI
-
Myocardial infarction complicatons
- heart failure
- myocardial rupture
- arrhythmias
- pericarditis
- cardiogenic shock
-
GPIIB/IIIA inhibitors may be beneficial during coronary interventions among ___________ including _________ and ________ myocardial infarctions, particularly in the absence of adequate pretreatment with _____________ drugs or when __________________ are not utilized.
- high-risk patients
- acute ST-elevation
- non-ST-elevation
- oral antiplatelet
- direct thrombin inhibitors
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