Volume 1 (Self-Test)

  1. what two unrelated factors determine the path of an aircraft over the earth?
    direction and speed
  2. explain the function of drift (angle) correction.
    compensation for the wind to be able to get to the destination in the straightest and shortest path
  3. what is the basic operating principle of VOR?
    phase comparison of the two 30 Hz signals to determine bearing to the VOR
  4. how does the ground station prevent interference between the 30Hz reference and 30 Hz variable signals?
    the 30 Hz reference is transmitted on a 9960 Hz FM subcarrier
  5. what information does the RMI display?
    aircraft magnetic heading and the magnetic bearing to the VOR ground station
  6. when the VOR signal is unreliable, what shows on the HSI?
    the HSI NAV flag and the bearing pointer parked at 4 o'clock
  7. where does the ARN-147 system park the HSI bearing pointer in ILS mode?
    3 o'clock
  8. in ILS mode, how much course error is represented by the second deviation dot on the HSI?
    2.50 degrees
  9. how does the ADI indicate a 0.6 degree GS error?
    the GS displacement pointer will be positioned next to the second deviation dot
  10. which aircraft system drives the ADI pitch and bank steering bars?
  11. a fully equipped MLS runway has how many transmitters? what are their functions?
    4 signal transmitters. 2 of the transmitters provide MLS azimuth functions; one of the remaining transmitters provides the elevation signal and the other provides DME information
  12. what are the MLS operating frequencies?
    5.03-5.09 GHz
  13. why are the MLS operating frequencies in the microwave range?
    to reduce sensitivity to interfering signals and site topography
  14. how many MLSs are installed on the aircraft?
  15. what are the main components of an aircraft MLS?
    receivers, antennas, splitters, IDCU, data bus coupler, and FDMS
  16. what type of information does a TACAN provide to a pilot?
    bearing and distance information
  17. how does the TACAN confirm a ground station's identification?
    by using an audio conformation signal
  18. what is the operating frequency range of a TACAN system?
    UHF range
  19. how is range information obtained?
    by measuring time interval between signals
  20. where are the antennas located on an F-16, and what do they provide?
    1 on the top and 1 on the bottom of the fuselage; omnidirectional coverage
  21. what happens to the vertical and horizontal components of the Earth's magnetic field as you approach the poles?
    • veritical - increases in magnitude
    • horizontal - decreases in magnitude
  22. what is magnetic variation?
    the error caused by true north and magnetic north not being the same
  23. why does a change of latitude cause an error in the MAD?
    the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field becomes too weak in the high latitudes
  24. how does altitude affect the MAD output?
    the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field weakens at high altitudes
  25. what factors affect the magnitude of the Coriolis signal?
    aircraft speed, aircraft heading, rotation of the Earth, and geographic latitude
  26. what error is caused by risidual magnetism in the aircraft?
    hard iron or one-cycle error
  27. what error is caused by a misalignment of the MAD during installation?
    index error
  28. what causes transmission error?
    an electrical unbalance in the MAD or any of the synchros that make up the compass system
  29. name three frames of reference that can be used in an INS
    Earth, space and grid
  30. briefly explain how an INS accounts for aircraft's present position.
    the system moves one space reference at an Earth rate and another at vehicle rate; the result is the aircraft position
  31. name four types of sensors that may be used as data-gathering devices in an integrated navigational system.
    inertial, radar, astrotracker, and radio
  32. what type of information does a basic GPS provide?
    accurate navigation aiding data
  33. where are GPS satellites placed?
  34. what does the NAVSTAR GPS require at power turn-on to achieve optimum operation?
    GPS almanac data, GPS initialization data and GPS crypto-variable
  35. what is the purpose of the Kalman filter in the EGI system?
    it models errors in velocit, position and calibration to provide enhanced alignment and in-flight performance
  36. what is the altitude range of the CARA system?
    0-50,000 ft
  37. what is the transmitter swept CW frequency range?
    4.24-4.35 GHz
  38. what warns the pilot if the aircraft flies below the VALI setting?
    low-altitude warning light comes on
  39. what altitude is indicated on the digital display when self-test is activated using the SET knob?
    300(+-10) ft
  40. where is the receiver local oscillator frequency developed?
    transmitter section
  41. which two signals are used to develop the IF frequency?
    current transmitter frequency and received RF signal from the terrain
  42. what do the altitude tracking circuits use the lower sideband frequencies for?
    to calculate absolute altitude and determine which segment the system will operate in
  43. if it takes the transmit signal 20 usec to travel to the terrain and back, what IF frequency is produced in segment one?
    2.528 MHz
  44. how many different altitudes can an IF frequency of 395 kHz represent?
  45. what are the upper and lower boundary limits of segment six?
    533 kHz, 266 kHz
  46. what causes noise?
    random or unintentional electron movement
  47. what does sensitivity refer to?
    a receiver's ability to pick up weak signals
  48. what do we mean when we say that a receiver has good stability?
    its signal will stay tuned to one channel without "drifting"
  49. what is selectivity?
    a receiver's ability to block all frequencies except those selected
  50. what supplies a radio's power output?
    the transmitter
  51. what is linearity?
    any proportional change or deviation of a straight-line response to an input
  52. what do you call an amplifier's output not accurately following its input?
  53. what do you call the total opposition that a circuit offers to the flow of AC?
  54. when does the maximum power transfer occur between two circuits?
    when the circuit impedances match
  55. what happens if you use a 75 ohm feed line to connect 50 ohm transmitter output to a 50 ohm antenna?
    standing waves build between the transmitter and the antenna
  56. what do you call the ability of radio circuits to maintain the original signal characteristics?
    coupling stability
  57. the heterodyne process converts the incoming RF signal into what frequency?
  58. how many output frequencies does the frequency conversion process create?
  59. what are two types of circuits used for creating an IF?
    mixer and converter
  60. what is the process called of imposing information onto a carrier FR signal by varying the amplitude, frequency or phase of the carrier wave?
  61. what are the three basic types of modulation used in radios?
    AM, FM and PM
  62. what's the meaning of the term demodulation?
    to reproduce the exact signal that was originally imposed on the carrier wave
  63. what are the three important characteristics of a detector?
    sensitivity, selectivity and linearity
  64. what type of modulation does the UHF system use?
  65. how many channels can be preset into the radio set?
  66. how many channels does the UHF system have?
    seven thousand channels
  67. name the five major sections of the UHF transceiver.
    switching unit, synthesizer/ECCM assembly, guard receiver, main receiver and transmitter
  68. what are the three subassemblies of the transmitter?
    modulator, RF power amplifier and power supply
  69. how many digits are available on the channel frequency indications display?
    five digits
  70. how many antenna elements are contained in each UHF antenna, and what are they used for?
    two elements; one for the UHF radio and one for the IFF transponder
  71. what antenna select mode provides automatic cycling between the upper and lower UHF antennas?
    NORM mode
  72. what are the four requirements for HQ UHF radios to communicate with the frequency-hopping capability?
    synchronized precision clocks, programmable frequency switching patterns, common frequency hop rates and selective active network systems
  73. what capability is added when using a Have quick II radio?
    multiple word of the day
  74. what is the purpose of the KY-58?
    provides for secure speech capabilities by coding and decoding UHF audio
  75. what VHF mode is the only one that is extensively used mode?
    the air-to-ground mode
  76. what is the frequency range of the VHF AM communication?
    116.000-151.975 MHz
  77. what is the frequency range of the emergency FM communication?
    38.000-43.000 MHz
  78. describe the preset channel capability.
    twenty reprogrammable channels and two emergency channels. each can be programmed for AM or FM
  79. what frequency bands are available for emergency channels?
    38-43 MHz for FM and 119-124 MHz for AM
  80. what effect does selection of an emergency channel have on the secure speech capability?
    secure speech is disabled and normal voice communication is enabled
  81. an input of 25 MHz to the IF receiver indicates what mode?
    AM mode
  82. what type of radio wave is most important for HF radio?
    sky waves
  83. list the three factors that affect refraction of electromagnetic waves.
    the frequency of the wave, the angle by which the waves meets the ionosphere and the degree of ionization of the ionosphere
  84. to what is the amount of refraction directly proportional?
  85. with each refraction, is power lost or gained?
  86. what is the primary cause of atmospheric ionization?
  87. what is the basic purpose of HF radios?
    to provide long-range communication
  88. in reference to power, what is the difference between HF and UHF radios?
    HF radios require a greatt deal more transmitter power
  89. what is the difference between normal and AM and AME?
    AME consists of the carrier and only one sideband
  90. why is an antenna coupler required in an HF system?
    to match the impedance of the antenna to the selected frequency
  91. describe the channels of the ARC-190 systems.
    280,000 channels spaced 100 Hz apart in the HF band of 2.0000-29.9999 MHz
  92. what are the major components of the ARC-190 radio system?
    R/T, control box, antenna coupler, R/T mount and coupler mount
  93. how does the ARC-190 generate the frequencies needed?
    they are derived from a temperature-compensated oscillator
  94. what does the control box provide?
    selection and indication of preset channels, frequency, mode, volume, and squelch for the system
  95. how many channels are available in the HF radio set?
    280,000 channels
  96. what is the function of the LOAD switch?
    this is a momentary-action push-button switch, which causes preset information to be loaded into memory
  97. what is the CONTL FAULT indicator?
    an indicator lights that lights up when the R/T BITE circuitry determines the control to be the source of a problem; also indicates certain shorts between the headsets
  98. why is the tuner section of the antenna coupler pressurized?
    to prevent high-voltage arcing at high altitudes, provide a uniform cooling medium, and prevent the entry of corrosive elements
  99. when does the R/T's external blower come on?
    when the R/T is keyed and for about a minute after it is unkeyed
  100. what is the HF radio operating power and where does it come from?
    115 VAC, 400 Hz, 3-phase; aircraft power
  101. describe the general signal path for a receive operation.
    signal -> antenna -> coupler -> R/T
  102. describe the general signal path for a transmit operation.
    XMT -> modulator -> antenna coupler -> R/T
  103. what three purposes does the intercommunications system provide?
    provides crew-to-crew communications, the ability to select, key and modulate radio R/Ts and the means to monitor received audio signals from radio and navigational system receivers
  104. define these six terms: INTERPHONE, HOT-MIC, CALL, chassis ground, battery ground, and audio ground.
    • INTERPHONE - method of intercommunication requiring PTT switch
    • HOT-MIC - method of crew-to-crew communication
    • CALL - emergency intercommunication
    • chassis ground - connected to chassis/frame
    • battery ground - completes the path for current flow back to the power source
    • audio ground - return line for all audio voltages
  105. what part of the intercommunication set control would the operator use to select, key and modulate any of the six different radios?
    the rotary select switch
  106. what is the purpose of the CALL switch?
    used for emergency or high-priority communications between crew members
  107. what two switches are required to activate HOTT-MIC transmit and receive?
  108. what switches enable crew members to individually monitor and adjust the audio level of eight different inputs?
    monitor switches
  109. keying the MIC involves what action by the crew members?
    placing the PTT switch into transmit mode of operation using the one- or two-button mode of operation
  110. what three lines are routed by the rotary select switch of the intercommunication set control?
    control, MIC audio and receiver audio
  111. why is the passive satellite not as effective as the active?
    passive satellites do not have any means for amplifying weak signals
  112. explain the movement of the geosynchronous satellite.
    move at the the same velocity as a specific point of the Earth
  113. what is the power range of satellites generally used in AFSATCOM systems?
    200-2,000 watts
  114. why is satellite communications used for most critical communications needs?
    because of its reliable, invulnerable, secure, and flexible communications
  115. how many narrow-band channels are available in the Type 1 terminal?
  116. what is the ouput power for the Type 1 terminal?
    100 watts
  117. what major component is used to prepare and send messages?
    C-10080/A keyboard
  118. what is the term used to describe automated channel sharing?
  119. how are satellite channels allocated?
    on the basis of current needs and priorities
  120. what is the definition of CDMA?
    a method of supporting multiple users over a single channel by precoordinating the uniqe frequencey each transmitter and associated receiver will use
  121. what is the definition of TDMA?
    a method of supporting multiple users over a single channel by precoordinating the time period each user will be given to transmit on the channel
  122. what is the term used when two terminals attempt to transmit at the same time and interfere with each other?
  123. what is the definition of ranging?
    the process where the terminal determines its distance to the satellite
  124. what item of equipment must be added to an IFF system to obtain SIF capabilities?
    adding an antenna on top of the radar antenna
  125. besides determining azimuth and aircraft identification, what additional information does SIF equipment provide?
  126. define the abbreviation AIMS.
    Air traffic control radar beacon system, IFF, Mark XII System
  127. what are the basic series of operations of the IFF transponder?
    it receives RF interrogations from two antennas, decodes the interrogations into the proper mode, encodes the selected reply and transmits the coded RF reply
  128. what IFF mode uses side-lobe suppression pulses?
    mode 4
  129. what are considered the normal IFF interrogation pulses?
    two pulses, each approximately 0.8 usec wide
  130. where are the information pulses located in a normal reply?
    between the framing pulses
  131. what are special replies?
    identification of position and emergency
  132. name the four modes of operation of the IFF transponder.
    standby, normal, low and emergency
  133. what does the audio output indicate?
    the transponder is being interrogated in Mode 4
  134. what is the function of the Mode 4 monitor switch?
    controls the REPLY light indications and Mode 4 audio monitoring
  135. what IFF mode permits a speical code to be transmitted for aircraft identification?
    IDENT position
  136. what is the Mode 3/A SIF code when emergency mode is selected?
    SIF code 7700
  137. when is the IFF caution light active?
    only when a Mode 4 computer is installed
  138. what term is given to the part of the airfoil facing into the wind during flight?
    leading edge
  139. what happens to the pressure over the top of an airfoil when the velocity of the airflow is increased?
    the airflow travels farther and faster, causing the pressure to decrease
  140. the chord is a straight line drawn from where to where?
    the most distant parts of the leading and trailing edges
  141. what are the two main reasons why airfoils differ in design?
    to meet lift and speed requirements
  142. from where is the angle of attack (AOA) derived?
    from the angle between the chord line of the airfoil and the direction of the relative wind
  143. explain how a high AOA adds to the total lift.
    dynamic pressure created on the bottom of the airfoil adds to the total lift
  144. what is a stall condition?
    lift over the airfoils is destroyed
  145. what four aerodynamic forces affect an aircraft during flight?
    gravity, lift, thrust, and drag
  146. which force attracts a body to the ground?
  147. what force is produced by an aircraft's power plant?
  148. what force does the friction and turbulence of the air produce as it passes over an aircraft?
  149. why is a high AOA necessary at slow-flight airspeeds?
    because at slow speeds more lift is required to overcome drag and gravity
  150. define the longitudinal axis.
    an imaginary line that extends from the nose to the tail
  151. define the Y-axis
    an imaginary line that extends from the left wing tip to the right wing tip
  152. define the vertical axis.
    an imaginary line that extends vertically through the intersection of the X and Y axes
  153. left wing down or right wing down is movement about which axis?
  154. what is the movement about the lateral axis called?
  155. what is the movement about the vertical axis called?
  156. movment about the vertical axis is referenced to what part of the aircraft?
  157. where are the ailerons located?
    near the wing tip
  158. how do the ailerons move in reference to each other?
    opposite each other
  159. what does symmetrical movement of the stabilators provide?
    pitch control
  160. what does differential movement of the stabilators control?
    roll control
  161. to what is stabilator movement referenced?
    trailing edge of the stabilator
  162. where is the rudder located?
    on the trailing edge of the vertical stabilizer
  163. about what axis does the rudder provide control?
  164. what control surfaces prevents an aircraft from stalling when it's slowing down for a landing?
  165. for safety reasons, how are flaps activated?
  166. the F-16 aircraft uses what type of control suface in place of ailerons to control roll?
  167. what does the hydromechanical flight control system use to position flight control surfaces?
    mechanical linkage and hydraulic actuators
  168. what systems provide inputs to the hydraulic actuators
    hydromechanical and control augmentation systems
  169. what is the purpose of the control stick?
    it provides the mechanical inputs to the pitch and roll channels
  170. what is the purpose of the rudder pedals?
    they provide the pilot with inputs to the directional yaw channel
  171. what F-15 system provides damping on all three axes?
    automatic flight controls system's control augmentation system (CAS)
  172. what components generate electronic signals for the F-16 FLCS?
    stick, rudder pedals, and manual trim panel
  173. what is the main component of the F-16 FLCS?
    flight control computer (FLCC)
  174. what mechanical device provides for correct rudder pedal feel?
  175. what components make up the air data system?
    air data computer, air data instruments, and air sensors
  176. what is the main function of the ADC?
    to produce reference data for almost all other aircraft systems
  177. what are the two pneumatic inputs to the ADC?
    Psi and Pt
  178. what is the purpose of the heating element in the pitot tube?
    prevents icing
  179. what self-contained flight instrument shows aircraft heading with respect to magnetic north?
    magnetic compass
  180. what unit provides signals to the vertical velocity indicator (VVI)?
    air data computer
  181. what systems use the radar altitude for terrain following and low-altitude warning?
    AFCS, autopilot, LANTIRN navigation pod and central computer
  182. what are the two modes of operation for the altimeter?
    ELECT and PNEU
  183. what are the inputs to the airspeed/Mach indicator?
    total and static pressure
  184. what does the HSI's HDG set knob provide?
    rotates the heading reference marker
  185. what does the HSI's bearing pointer provide?
    bearing information to the TACAN or INS destination
  186. what type of information is displayed by the ADI?
    pitch and roll attitude
  187. what does the ADI OFF warning flag indicate?
    INS or ADI failure
  188. how long after power loss can the standby attitude indicator provide usable information?
    approximately nine minutes
  189. what systems are controlled by the display system in addition to the monitoring of vital aircraft systems?
    navigation, communications, weapons delivery, and mission data systems
  190. what method does the multipurpose display process or (MPDP) use to generate and overlay display symbology on the multipurpose displays (MPD) and the multipurpose color displays (MPCD)?
    raster and/or stroke
  191. what display unit initiates and controls data transfer with the HUD, MPD, and MPCD?
    multipurpose display processor (MPDP)
  192. what format is used to display all information on a MPD?
    monochromic format
  193. how many MPDs/MPCDs are located in each cockpit?
    two MPDs in each cockpit, one MPCD in the front cockpit, and two MPCDs in the rear cockpit
  194. what do the legends, positioned adjacent to each pushbutton, provide to the crew?
    modes and options selectable for operation
  195. what is the purpose of color-coding the displayed data?
    aids in quick interpretation of complex formats such as HSI and ADI
  196. what is the purpose of the MPDs and MPCDs pushbuttons?
    controls system selection and data to be displayed
  197. what type of information is displayed on the head-up display (HUD) system?
    attack symbology and steering information
  198. where is information displayed when using a HUD system?
    on a combiner glass in the forward field of view
  199. what is a major benefit of having a HUD system?
    it keeps the pilot from constantly looking down into the cockpit
  200. what avionic system optimizes weapon delivery capabilites for a one-man operation?
    integrated fire control avioncs system
  201. what F-16 LRUs provide attack mode control and weapon selection?
    upfront crontrols and multifunction displays
  202. what are the main functions of the fire control computer (FCC)?
    interfacing and primary bus controller for the AMUX, BMUX, and DMUX acts as the central computer, performs weapons delivery, navigation functions, and malfunction analysis capabilities
  203. what is the purpose of the upfront controls?
    provides a simplified, centralized, head-up means of controlling the most frequently used functions of the communications, navigation, and IFF systems
  204. what is the primary function of the data entry display (DED)?
    it provides a visual display of switch actions made via the upfront controls
  205. what system is the heart of the F-15?
    central computer complex
  206. what types of computations does the very high speed integrated circuit (VHSIC) central computer (CC) make?
    mission oriented from data received from control panels and subsystems aboard the aircraft
  207. what enables the VHSIC CC to retain boresight values?
    batteries enable it to retain variable data
  208. what is the purpose of the avionics interface units (AIU)?
    controls, processes, and routes interfacing signals between multiple aircraft systems
  209. what F-15 LRU provides the major interface and control of avionics systems in both the front and rear cockpits?
    upfront crontrols
  210. define multiplexing.
    the procedure of transmitting many digital signals over a single pair of wires
  211. what is the time-sharing concept of mutliplexing?
    all the information being processed takes turns on the same communication line
  212. how are information bits processed on MUX lines?
  213. what are the requirements for the information exchange on a MUX line?
    it must be quickly and accurately processed, controlled, and routed between systems
  214. what is considered the central point of a MUX bus?
    the bus controller
  215. what must occur for a remote terminal to communicate on a MUX bus?
    it has to receive the proper computer word from the bus controller
  216. what is the purpose of a bus controller?
    it initiates and directs data transfers on the MUX bus
  217. what type of device is used as a bus controller?
    a computer that performs all control and computing functions
  218. what performs the secretarial function on the MUX bus?
    the remote terminal
  219. what are the three types of computer words used by the MUX bus system?
    comman, data and status words
  220. what device can transmit both command and data words?
    bus controller
  221. what types of words does the remote terminal transmit?
    data and status words
  222. what is the basic operating principle of all radar?
    to create a signal and detect its echo
  223. what characteristics of radio frequency energy make it possible to measure distance in terms of time?
    travels in straight line, at a constant velocity, and it's partially reflected by objects it strikes
  224. how does a frequency-modulation radar system establish range?
    it measures the time interval by comparing the frequency of the transmitter with the frequency of the received echo
  225. what two dimensions must be considered in determining direction of a radar target?
    azimuth and elevation
  226. name two types of navigational data that an airborne Doppler radar system provides.
    ground speed and drift angle
  227. what component sends trigger pulses to various units to control system operation?
  228. what component generates short bursts of RF energy?
  229. what component reflects the radar echo into the duplexer?
  230. what component amplifies the pulse, changes it to video, and sends it to the radar indicator?
  231. what component operates on a time base that translates into range?
  232. name three advantages a waveguide has over a two-wire transmission line.
    less dielectric loss, less radiation loss, and greater power-handling capability
  233. identify the principle disadvantage of a waveguide.
    impractical size requirements at lower frequencies
  234. generation and radiation of electromagnetic energy for ECM purposes is the definition of what countermeasure?
    electronic jamming
  235. what characteristic of most radar systems makes them vulnerable to jamming?
  236. briefly describe an electronic alternative to blocking a radar receiver with highly concentrated RF energy.
    inject confusing and/or misleading information
  237. chaff is what type of jamming device?
  238. what is a weakness of chaff?
    it lacks velocity
  239. how does RAM act as a countermeasure?
    by absorbing radar energy and attenuating the return
  240. flying in the shadow area of radar is an example of what kind of countermeasure?
  241. what countermeasure method is assigned to aircraft specially equipped with radar-homing missiles?
  242. state the functions provided by a digital stores management system.
    stores ID, inventory and status
  243. what component of a digital stores management system stores, sends, and computes information used by the entire system?
    the main computer or computers
  244. what process is normally used by a digital stores management system to transfer data from computer to computer?
  245. what SMS-related system responds to commands by displaying information on an aircraft's MFD?
    controls and displays
  246. what aircraft panel is responsible for distributing power throughout the entire aircraft?
    aircraft power panels
  247. through what panel is the selection of gun firing rates normally made?
    main armament control panel
  248. what stick grip switch on an aircraft releases munitions?
    the armament release switch
  249. what is the function of a video display in an aircraft's cockpit?
    it displays information about the status of the aircraft's weapon system and the munitions that are installed on the aircraft
  250. what is the purpose of the release priority systems?
    they control the sequencing of weapons release when more than one station is selected for weapons delivery
  251. what two aircraft panels are used with each other to facilitate emergency jettison of nuclear weapons?
    emergency jettison control panels and the special weapons control panels
  252. what function is provided by system override panels?
    they provide a circuit that bypasses the need for the landing gear to be in the UP position before the armament system is able to receive power
  253. normally, what is the only connection an EO-guided bomb control system has with the SMS?
    weapon and station selection and release activation
  254. what is the purpose of the nuclear system on nuclear-capable aircraft?
    to prevent accidental or unauthorized prearming of nuclear weapons and, if necessary, accommodate their delivery
  255. weapon system management is accomplished by which LRU's on an F-15?
    MPCD and the MPDs
  256. what F-16 LRU provides the interface between the CIU and the weapon stations?
    remote interface units
  257. state the two types of bombing systems used in our aircraft.
    internal and external
  258. what are the three basic types of releases incorporated into all aircraft bombing systems?
    manual, manual-computed, and automatic
  259. how is manual release equal to a single-selected weapons release?
    manual release allows the release of one bomb from one station
  260. what is produced by a manual input to the bombing system during manual-computed weapons release?
    release pulses are distributed to the vaious selected weapons stations
  261. in what type of release is the proper weapons release time calculated using previously inputted data?
    automatic or computed
  262. what are the two basic modes of operation in missile systems?
    air-to-air and air-to-ground
  263. how are AIM-7 and AIM-9 missiles fired?
  264. what happens to nonselected aircraft missile system stations during missile release?
    they'll automatically be passed over during the firing sequence
  265. what are the two basic modes of operation in aircraft jettison systems?
    selective and emergency jettison
  266. what type of operation can emergency jettison be equated to?
    an override mod of operation
  267. what is the Air Force standard system for the movement of concentrated cargo?
    463L system
  268. what are the dimensions of a 463L pallet? the usable area dimensions?
    108" x 88" x 2.25"; usable area is 104" x 84"
  269. what is the total weight a pallet of cargo secured with nets can weigh?
    10,355 lbs
  270. when low-profile cargo is loaded on a pallet that does not permit the use of side nets on what conditions can a top net be used?
    total weight does not exceed 2,500 lbs
  271. pallets must be in good condition. for what reason would you reject a pallet for transportation?
    pallets with excessive mud, dirt, or oild on them
  272. describe what is unique about the 10K adverse terrain forklift's steering. what is such steering called?
    steering is accomplished by pivoting the front frame with respect to the rear frame. this is called an articulated frame or steering
  273. how long must forklift tines be to be used with 463L pallets?
    72 inches
  274. when rolling stock has loose items, what must you ensure about this cargo?
    it must be carefully checked to ensure all loose items are secure
  275. what is the difference between a type of airdrop and a method of airdrop?
    method of airdrop refers to the way the loads exit the aircraft. type of airdrop refers to the rate of decent of the loads
  276. on a high-velocity drop, what type of parachute is used and why?
    stabilizing parachute--attached to the top of the load to hold it upright
  277. what type of airdrop uses a large, clear drop zone and why?
    low-velocity because it usually consists of large, complex loads
  278. what method of airdrop is being used when the load has to be pushed out of the aircraft?
    door bundle method
  279. what method of airdrop is being used when the aircraft is flown at a nose-high attitude at the release point?
    gravity drop method
  280. what is the difference between HALO and HAHO?
    HALO is at low altitude and HAHO at higher altitudes
  281. what C-17 subsystem provides control for the cargo handling and missions system?
    system integration subsystem
  282. what components make up the forward loadmaster subsystem?
    pilot/copilot ADS control panel, and the ADS backup control panel, and forward CDSCS
  283. what panel serves as the primary interface between operating personnel and the aircraft cargo delivery system?
    forward cargo delivery system control-status panel (CDSC-SP)
Card Set
Volume 1 (Self-Test)
set 2 volume 1 self-test