ARMDS--500 questions

During a pulsed wave Doppler examination of the pulmonary veins the somographer notes giant atrila reveral waves. The most likely explanations is:

mitral regurgitation
aortic stenosis
increased left ventricular end diastolic pressure
hypovolomia

During a continuous wave Doppler examination of mitral regurgitation, the sonographer notes a peak velocity of 5.0 m/s. The pressure gradient between the left atrium and left ventricle during ventricular systole is:

normal
increased
decreased
cannot be predicted

During a CW Dopploer examination of the aortic valve the sonographer notes a peak velocity of 4.0 m/s. The peak velocity across the left ventricle outflow tract is 2.0 m/s. The peak pressure gradient across the aortic valve is:

4 mmHG
16 mmHG
48 mmHG
64 mmHG

During a CW Doppler exam of the tricuspid regurgitation the sonographer notes a peak velocity of 3.3 m/s. The pressure gradient between the LA and LV during ventricular systole is:


increased
decreased
normal
cannot be predicted

Before beginning an EKG, the sonographer reviews a patient's cardial catheterization and finds the patient has giant right atrial A waves. The sonographer may find:

tricuspid stenosis
mitral stenosis
left heart failure
tricuspid regurgitation

The sinoatrial node is located near the entrance of the:

superior vena cava
inferior vena cava
pulmonary veins
coronary sinus

The most developed of the internodal pathways which delivers the impulse from the sinoatrial node to the LA is called:

Thorel's
Wenchebach's
Bachmann's
Chiari's

Which of the following components of the cardiac conduction system delays the impluse 1/10th of a second to allow the atria to deliver blood of the ventricles?

sinoatrial node
internodal pathways
atrioventricular node
His bundle

The portion of the cardiac conduction system that electricall connects the atria to the ventricles is called the:

sinoatrial node
atrioventricular node
His bundle
Purkinje fibers

Which components of the cardiac conduction system delivers the electrical impulse form the bundle of His to the Purkinje fibers?

sinoatrial node
atrioventricular node
Purkinje fibers
bundle branches

Which portion of the elctrical conduction system delivers the electrical impulse to the ventricular heart walls?

Purkinje fibers
bundle branches
atrioventricular node
sinoatrial node

Ventricular depolorization occurs from:

endocardium to epicardium
epicardium to endocardium
varies
cannot be predicted

The cardiac adipose tissue lies between which two layers of the heart?

myocardium and endocardium
epicardium and endocardium
endocardium and myocardium
epicardium and myocardium

The heart is placed in a protective sac called the:

visceral pericardium
parietal serous pericardium
parietal pericardium
oblique sinus

The pericardial space is located between the:

parietal serous pericardium and epicardium
fibrous pericardium and endocardium
epicardium and myocardium
visceral pericardium and myocardium

The pericardial space normall contains up to ____cc of percardial fluid.

0
50
100
200

The free space created by the pericardial-pulmonary vein interface behind the left atrium is the:

carotid sinus
oblique sinus
transverse sinus
coronary sinus

The free space created by the pericardial-great vessel interface is called the:

carotid sinus
oblique sinus
transverse sinus
coronary sinus

The thin mois empbrane that lines the fibrous pericardium in the:

visceral pericardium
epicardiurm
parietal serous
parietal pericardium

The tip of the heart formed by the left ventricle is called the:

base 
apex
sinus
pericardium

The widest portion of the heart is called the:

apex
base
sinus
percardium

The junction where the left heart border meets the pleura is called the:

transverse sinus
parietal serous
oblique margin
acute margin

Where the right heart border meets the diaphragm is the:

transverse sinus
oblique margin
parietal serous
acute margin

In relation to the arota, the pulmonary artery lies:

anterior and medial
posterior and lateral
anterior and leftward
posterior and righward

Which of the following cardiac valves lies closest to the cardiac apex?

mitral
aortic
tricuspid
pulmonic

The heart tube appears by day:

one
ten
twenty one
forty three

The heart tube loops:

anterior and righward
medially and laterally
posterior and leftward
caudad and coronal

The sinus venosus contributes to the formation of all of the following EXCEPT the:

superior vena cava
inferior vena cava
coronary sinus
pulmonary veins

All of the following are a part of the interatrial septum EXCEPT the:

bulbus cordis
septum primum
septum secundum
foramen ovale

The atrioventricular canal is divided by the:

sinus venosus
septum primum
interventricular septum
endocardial cushions

The endocardial cushions contribute to the formation of all the following EXCEPT the:

semilunar valves
atrioventricular valves
atrial septum
membranous septum

The primitive ventricle is most often a morphologic:

right ventricle
left ventricle
varies
cannot be predicted

The bulbus cordis contributes to the formation of all of the following EXCEPT the:

right ventricle
left ventricle outflow tract
right ventricle outflow tract
ductus arteriosus

Which of the following in considered a cono-truncal abnormality?

bicuspid aortic valve
patent ductus arteriosus
tetralogy of Fallot
univentricular heart

The aortic sad contributes to the formation of all of the following EXCEPT the:

bulboventricular foramen
internal carotid artery
aortic arch
pulmonary artery branches

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the maternal:

lungs
placenta
heart
renals

Which of the following connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava?

foramen ovale
truncus arteriosus
umbilical artery
ductus venosus

Which of the following permits the flow of blood from the RA to the LA during fetal circulation?

ductus arteriosus
ductus venosus
umbilical artery
foramen ovale

In fetal circulation, which of the following allows blood to be shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta?

foramen ovale
ductus arteriosus
ductus venosus
ligamentum arteriosum

During fetal circulation, deoxygenated blood is returned to the placenta via the:

foramen ovale
ductus arteriosus
umbilical vein
umbilical arteries

All of the following are true statments concerning postnatal circulationEXCEPT:

pulmonary vascular resistance increases
foramen ovale closed due to an increase in left heart pressures
ductus arteriosus closes due to flow of oxygenated blood across the ductus aretriosus
ductus venosus closes and becomes the ligamentum venosum

The atrial septal defect that involves the central portion of the atrial septum is the:

ostium secundum
ostium primum
sinus venosus
coronary sinus

The atrial spetal defect that involves the uppper protion of the atrial septum is called the:

ostium secundum
ostium primum
sinus venosus
coronary sinus

The ASD that involes the lower portion of the atrial septum is called the:

ostium secundum
ostium primum
sinus venosus
patent foramen ovale

Which ASD is associated with mitral valve prolapse?

ostium secundum
ostium primum
sinus venosus
coronary sinus

Which ASD is associated partial anomalous pulmonary venous return?

ostium secundum
ostium primum
sinus venosus
coronary sinus

Which ASD is associated with cleft atrioventricular valve?

ostium secundum
ostium primum
sinus venosus
coronary sinus

Which of the following ASD is associated with Down's syndrome?

ostium secundum
ostium primum
sinus venosus
coronary sinus

Which ASD is associated with Lutembacher's syndrome?

ostium secundum
ostium primum
sinus venosus
coronary sinus

The VSD located beneath the aortic valve at the level of the left ventricular outflow tract is the:

perimembranous
muscular
inlet
outlet

The VSD which involves the muscular septum and may be multiple is the:

perimembranous
trabecular
inlet
outlet

The VSD defect located posteriorly and inferiorly beneath the right heart atrioventricular valve is the:

outlet
trabecular
inlet
perimembranous

The VSD located beneath the pulmonic balve in the right ventricular outflow tract is the :

outlet
perimembranous
inlet
trabecular

The abnormal narrowing of the descending thoracic aorta is called:

truncus
coarctation
Ebstein's
Uhl's anomaly

The congenital heart defect most often associated with aortic coarctation is the:

cleft atrioventricular valve
perimembrenous VSD
ostium secundum ASD
bicuspid aortic valve

All of the following are considered components of tetralogy of Fallot EXCEPT:

subpulmonic stenosis
malalignment VSD
ostium primum ASD
overriding aorta

The aorta arised from the RV and the pulmonary artery arises from the LV is called:

normal
D-Transposition of the great arteries
Ebstein's anomaly
L-Transposition of the great arteries

Ventricular inversion with the aorta orginationg from the RV and the pulmonary artery originationg from the LV is called:

teralogy of Fallot
Turner's syndrome
d-transposition of the great arteries
l-transposition of the great arteries

A single great vessel that gives rise to the pulmonary arteries, coronary arteries and arch vessels is called:

truncus arteriosus
tetralogy of Fallot
l-transposition of the great arteries
d-transposition of the great arteries

The failure of the pulmonary vascular resistance to fall after birth thus resulting in right-to-left foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus shunts is called:

tetralogy of Fallot
d-transposition of the great arteries
persistent fetal circulation
patent foramen ovale

Which of the following is most likely to be associated with paradoxical embolism in the adult?

bicuspid arotic valve
patent foramen ovale
cleft atrioventricular valve
aortic coarctation

All of the following are associated with persistent ductus arteriosus EXCEPT:

permaturity
maternal rubella
maternal diabetes
high altitude birth

The abnormal insetion of the tricuspid valve towards the cardiac apex is called:

Ebstein's anomaly
Turner's syndrome
Down's syndrome
Ehlers-Danlos

All of the following are generally considered left-to-right shunts EXCEPT:

ASD
VSD
persistent fetal circulation
patent ductus arteriosus

According to EKG, ventricular diastole occurs between the:

QRS and T wave
P wave to the QRS complex
end of the T wave to the onset of the QRS complex
S wave to the P wave

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the cardiac valves during ventricular diastole?

AV valves are open, semilunar valves are open
AV valves are closed, semilunar valves are closed
AV valves are open, semilunar valves are closed
AV valves are closed, semilunar valves are open

All of the following are considered components of ventricular diastole EXCEPT:

atrial systole
rapid early filling
diastasis
pre-ejection period

What % of filling normally occurs during early, rapid ventricular diastole?

10%
30%
50%
70%

What % of filling normally occurs with atrial systole?

10%
30%
50%
70%

In relation to the EKG, ventricular systole occurs during the:

end of the T wave to the onset of the QRS complex
peak of the R wave to the end of the S wave
onset of the Q wave to the end of the T wave
end of the P wave to the onset of QRS complex

Which of the following is a true statement concerning the cardiac valves during ventricular systole?

semilunar valves are open, AV valves are open
semilunar vales are closed, AV valves are closed
semilunar valves are open, AV valves are closed
semilunar valves are closed, AV valves are open

The time period between semilunar valve closure and AV valves opening is called:

ventricular systole
artial systole
isovolumic contraction
isovolumic relaxation

Which of the following is a true statment concerning isovolumic relaxation?

ventricular pressure and volume are decreasing
ventricular pressure and volume are increasing
ventricular pressure is decreasing and ventricular volume is increasing
ventricular pressure is decreasing and vetricular volume is unchanged

Cardiac output adjusted for body surface area is called:

stroke volume
cardiac output
cardiac index
ejection fraction

All of the following may be calculated by cardiac Doppler EXCEPT:

stroke volume
cardiac output
cardiac index
ejection fraction

All of the following are considered a part of the pulmonary circulation EXCEPT:

right ventricle
main pulmonary artery and branches
pulmonary capillaries
vena cava

All of the following are considered a component of the systemic circulation EXCEPT:

left ventricle
aorta
cerebral, peripheral and abdominal veins
pulmonary veins

When comparing the systemic circulation to the pulmonary circulation all of the following are true EXCEPT:

higher pressure
higher resistance
higher carbon dioxide content
thicker vessel walls

The central venous pressure is 4 mmHG. This pressure most likely represents which cardicad chamber pressure?

right atrium
left atrium
left ventricle
pulmonary artery

A pulmonary wedge pressure tracing ready 14 mmHG. This represents the pressure in the:

right atrium
left atrium
left ventricle
pulmonary artery

A normal pressure tracing reads 3 mmHG, this most likely represents the pressure in the:

left atrium
right atrium
pulmonary artery
aorta

Which pressure will most likely be increased initially in a patient with valvular aortic stenosis?

left ventricle
aorta
right atrium
right ventricle

Which pressure will most likely be increased initially in a patient with mitral stenosis?

left atrium
left ventricle
right atrium
right ventricle

Which of the followiong arial waves will most likely be increased in a patient with significant atrioventricular valve regurgitation?

A wave
Y descent
V wave
X descent

Which of the following atrial waves will most likely be increased in a patient with AV valve stenosis?

A wave
Y descent
V wave
X descent

All of the following will increase ventricular systolic pressure EXCEPT:

systemic hypertension
pulmonary hypertension
semilunar valve stenosis
AV valve prolapse

All of the following may increase ventricular end-diastolic pressure EXCEPT:

sinus of valsalva aneurysm
constrictive pericarditis
congestive heart failure
poor ventricular systolic function

All of the following may increase pulmonary artery pressure EXCEPT:

left-to-right shunts
tricuspid regurgitation
left heart disease
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

All of the following maneuvers will increase venous return EXCEPT:

supine to standing
standing to supine
passive leg raising
standing to squatting

Which of the following maneuvers will reduce venous return?

standing to squatting
passive leg raising
standing to supine
supine to standing

How will the strain phase of the valvalsa maneuver affect venous return?

increase
decrease
varies
cannot be predicted

All of the following will increase during the isometric handrip EXCEPT:

peripheral vascular resistance
blood pressure
heart rate
respiratory rate

How will quite inspiration affect venous return?

increase
decrease
varies
cannot be predicted

How will quite expiration affect venous return?

increase
decrease
varies
cannot be predicted

All of the following mumurs will increase in intensity during the maneuver supine to standing EXCEPT:

semilumar valve stenosis
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
semilumar valve regurgitation
AV valve regurgitation

Which of the following murmurs will decrease in intensity during the maneuver standing to supine?

valvular arotic stenosis
valvular pulmonic stenosis
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
cannot be predicted

How will the manuuver standing to squatting affect the murmur of hypertorphic cardiomyopathy?

increase
decrease
varies
cannot be predicted

All of the following murmurs will decrease in intensity during the strain phase of the valsalva maneuver EXCEPT:

valvular arotic stenosis
tricuspid regurgitation
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
mitral valve stenosis

Quiet inspiration will increase all of the following EXCEPT:

tricuspid regurgitation
mitral regurgitation
S2 time interval
pulmonary regurgitation

All of the following will decrease during quiet expiration EXCEPT:

tricuspid regurgitation
pulmonary regurgitation
S2 time interval
mitral regurgitation

The normal S1 heard sound is caused by:

mitral & tricuspid opening
mitral & tricuspid closing
aortic & pulmonic valve opening
aortic & pulmonic valve closing

In relation to the EKG, the S1 heart sound normally occurs at the:

onset of the P wave
onset of the QRS
end of the T wave
end of the S wave

Normally the loudes component of S1 heart sound is closure of the:

mitral valve
tricuspid valve
aortic valve
pulmonic valve

In relationship to tricuspid valve closue, normally mitral valve closure occurs:

before
after
during
varies

The normal S2 heart sound is caused by:

mitral & tricuspid closure
mitral & tricuspid opening
aortic & pulmonic closure
aortic & pulmonic opening

In relation to the EKG, S2 normally occurs at the :

onset of QRS complex
onset of the P wave
end of the T wave
end of the PR interval

Which compoennt of S2 is normally the loudest?

mitral valve opening
tricuspid valve closure
aortic valve closure
pulmonic valve closure

Which of the following will increase the interval between arotic valve closure and pulmonic valve closure?

inspiration
expiration
standing to supine
strain phase of the valsalva

Whick of the following component parts of the circulation is best capable of altering blood flow to the capillaries?

arota
peripheral arteries
arterioles
venules

Which of the following components of the circulation conducts blood from the peripheral tissues to the heart?

aorta
venules
arterioles
veins

Which effect will an increase in preload normally have on cardiac contractility?

increase
decrease
varies
cannot be predicted

Which of the following will most likely increase ventricular afterload?

mitral & tricuspid regurgitation
mitral & tricuspid stenosis
aortic & pulmonic regurgitation
aortic & pulmonic regurgitation

Coronary artery blood occurs predominantly during:

artial systole
ventricular diastole
ventricular systole
isovolumic contraction

All of the following will affect coronary artery blood flow EXCEPT:

aortic distolic blood pressure
left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
heart rate
body surface area

All of the following are considered the formed elements of   blood except:

plasma
red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets

Which component of blood carries hemoglobin?

erythrocytes
leukocytes
plasma
thrombocytes

The term that refers to the % of red blood cells present is:

leukopenia
anemia
polycthemia
hematocrit

The term that mean there is an abnormal increase in the number of red blood cells is:

hematocrit
polycythemia
anemia
leukopenia

The term used ot describe an abnormal increase in the number of white blood cells is:

polycythemia
leukopenia
hematocrit
plasmacrit

What % of blood is made up of plasma?

15%
35%
55%
75%

What % does red blood cells constitute the formed elements of blood?

15%
35%
55%
75%

Chest pain due to myocardial ischemia is called?

nocturia
clubbing
hemoptysis
angina pectoris

________ is a state of ill health, malnutrition and wasting.

angina pectoris
cachexia
clubbing
edema

Which of the following is most likely to be associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease?

cachexia
cor pulmonale
angina pectoris
clubbing

Right heart failure due to intrinsic pulmonary disease is called:

clubbing
cyanosis
cor pulmonale
angina pectoris

The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is called:

clubbing
cyanosis
cachexia
cor pulmonale

The abnormal uncomfortable awarness of breathing is called:

hemoptysis
hepatomegaly
edema
dyspnea

The accumulation of fluid in cells, tissues or cavaties is called:

edema
syncope
hemoptysis
nocturia

A patient with fever of unknown origin, chills and a new murmur most likely has:

valvular aortic stenosis
mitral valve prolapse
infective endocarditis
cardiac myxoma

Which of the following most likely represents right hear failure?

hemoptysis
syncope
hepatomegaly
angina pectoris

Which of the following is most often associated with mitral valve stenosis?

cor pulmonale
angina pectoris
hemoptysis
nocturia

Which of the following indicates increased right heart pressure?

jugular venous distention
hemoptysis
syncope
angina pectoris

Which of the following is most likely to be associated with mitral valve prolapse?

cachexia
clubbing
pectus excavatum
angina pectoris

Which of the following is most likely to be assosicated with valvular aortic stenosis?

hemoptysis
syncope
pectus carinatum
nocturia

Which fo the following peulse is most likely to be present in a patient with severe left ventricular dysfunction?

pulsus alternans
pulsus bisfierens
pulsus paradoxus
pulsus parvus et tardus

Which of the following pulses is most likely to be present in a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

pulsus parvus et tardus
pulsus paradoxus
pulsus bisfierens
pulsus alternans

Which of the following pulses is most likely to be present in a patient with cardiac tamponade?

pulses bisfierens
pulsus alternans
pulsus paradoxus
pulsus parvus et tardus

Which of the followiong pulses is most likely to be present in a patient with valvular aortic stenosis?

pulsus paradoxus
pulsus bisfierens
pulsus parvus et tradus
pulsus alternans

Which of the following sings is associated with an enlarged heart?

thrill
pectus excavatum
displacement of the PMI
left ventricular thrust

Which of the following is associated with and enlarged left atrium?

left parasternal lift
left ventricular thrus
left ventricular systolic bulge
thrill

Whichof the following sings indicates left ventricular hypertrophy?

left parasternal lift
left ventricular thrust
left ventricular systolic bulge
thrill

Which of the following signs is associated with left vetricular aneurysm?

left ventricular thrust
left ventricular systolic bulge
thrill
left parasternal lift

S1 is best auscultated at the 

right uppper sternal border
left uppper sternal border
xyphoid area
cardiac apex

S2 is best auscultated at the

upper left sternal border
lower left sternal border
xyphoid area
cardiac apex

Which of the following are true statments concerning the effect of respiration on S2?

S2 splits on inspiration, narrows on expiration
S2 narrows on inspiration, splits on expiration
S2 reverses on inspiration, normalizes on expiration
cannot be precited

Which heart sounds indicates an increase in early ventricular diastolic filling?

S1
S2
S3
S4

All of the following pathologies are associated with S3 EXCEPT:

mitral stenosis
anemia
significant mitral regurgitation
significant pulmonary regurgitation

The S3 is best auscultated at the:

right upper sternal border
left upper sternal border
xyphoid area
cardiac apex

Which of the following heart sounds is associated with decreased ventricular compliance?

S1
S2
S3
S4

The S4 heart sound occurs in response to:

early ventricular relaxation
isovolumic contraction
atrial systole
ventricular diastasis

The S4 heart sound is best auscultated at the:

right upper sternal border
left upper sternal border
xyphoid area
cardiac apex

All of the following pathologies are associated with an S4 EXCEPT:

systemic hypertension
acute myocardial infarction
semilunar valve stenosis
left to right shunt

All of the following heart sounds are associated with rheumatic mitral stenois EXCEPT:

loud S1
fixed split S2
opening snap
presystolic diastolic rumble

Which of the following heart sounds is associated with congenital semilunar valve stenosis?

loud S2
fixed split S2
ejection click
opening snap

Which of the following heart sound is most commonly associated with mitral valve prolapse?

loud S1
opening snap
midsystolic click
fixed split S2

Which of the following heart sounds is most often associated with atrial septal defect?

loud S1
fixed split S2
midsystolic click
ejection sound

All of the following may cause a murmur EXCEPT:

increased flow rate across a cardiac valve
forward flow across a stenotic valve
backward flow across a regurgitation valve
cardiac valve opening and closure

For cardiac auscultation, the mitral valve area is considered to be the:

right upper sternal border
left upper sternal border
xyphoid area
cardiac apex

For cardiac auscultation, the tricuspid valve area is considered to be the:

right upper sternal border
left upper sternal border
xyphoid area
cardiac apex

For cardiac auscultation, the aortic valve ared is considered to be the:

right upper sternal border
left upper sternal border
xyphoid area
cardiac apex

For cardiac auscultation, the pulmonic valve area is considered to be the:

right upper sternal border
left upper sternal border
xyphoid area
cardiac apex

The description of the timing of a cardiac murmur may include all of the following except:

diastolic
diastasis
systolic
continuous

A murmur that begins softly and becomes louder is called:

crescendo
decrescendo
cresendo-decrescendo
diamond shaped

A murmur that begins loud and becomes softer is called:

crescendo
decrescendo
cresendo-decrescendo
diamond shaped

A murmur that begins softly, becomes louder, and then decreases in intensity is called:

crescendo
decrescendo
cresendo-decrescendo
continuous

All of the folloowing are associated with an early systolic murmur EXCEPT:

small ventricular septal defect
valvular aortic stenosis
large VSD with pulmonary hypertension
severe acute atrioventricular regurgitation

All of the following are assoicated with a systolic ejection murmur EXCEPT:

valvular semilunar valve stenosis
dilatation of the aorta or pulmonary artery
increased heart rate
atrioventricular valve regurgitation

All of the following are assoicated with a holosystolic murmur EXCEPT:

mitral regurgitation
semilunar valve stenosis
VSD
tricuspid regurgitation

The most likely cause of a late systolic mumur is:

semilunar valve stenosis
atrioventricular valve stenosis
mitral valve prolapse
patent ductus arteriosus

The most likely cause of an early diastolic murmur is:

mitral & tricuspid stenosis
mitral & tricuspid regurgitation
aortic & pulmonic stenosis
aortic & pulmonic regurgitation

The most likely cause of a mid-diastolic murmur is:

atrioventricular valve stenosis
mitral valve prolapse
semilunar valve stenosis
semilunar valve regurgitation

All of the following are likely causes of a continuous murmur EXCEPT:

patent ductus arteriosus
atrioventricular valve stenosis
coronary artery from the pulmonary artery
ruptured sinus of valsalva aneurysm

All of the following murmurs will decrease in intensity during the strain phase of the valsalva maneuver EXCEPT:

atrioventricular valve stenosis
atrioventricular valve regurgitation
semilunar valve stenosis
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

All of the following are considered a component of a routine cardiac cath EXCEPT:

right heart
left heart
coronary arteriogram
transvalvular Doppler

All of the following information may be recored during a routine cardiac cath EXCEPT:

intercardiac pressures
oxygen saturations
assessment of ventricular function
transvalvular peak velocities

All of the following information may be recored during a routine caridiac cath EXCEPT the evaluation of:

valvular velocities
valvular stenosis/regurgitation
cardiac shunts
congenital heart disease

All of the following information may be recorded during a right heart cath EXCEPT:

right atrial pressure
right ventricular systolic/diastolic pressure
left ventricular systolic/diastolic pressure
systolic/mean/diastolic pulmonary artery pressure

The pulmonary artery wedge pressure is obtained during a:

right heart cath
left heart cath
coronary arteriogram
pulmonary arteriogram

The pulmonary artery wedge pressure represent the pressure of the:

left atrium
right atrium
right ventricl
pulmonary artery

Which of the following is the most common right heart cardiac cath methoud used for predicting cardiac output?

Fick
Gorlin
thermodilution
indicator dye

All of the following pressures may be obtained during a left heart cardiac cath EXCEPT:

left ventricular systolic
left ventricular end-diastolic
pulmonary wedge pressure
arotic systolic/diastolic

Which of the following cardiac cath techniques would be best used to evaluate the severity of aortic regurgitation?

aortography
left ventriculography
coronary arteriography
pulmonary wedge

All of the following may be evaluated during a cardiac cath left ventriculogram EXCEPT:

mitral regurgitation
left ventricular global function
left ventricular segmental function
left ventricular systolic/end-diastolic pressure

The brachial approach that may be utilized during a cardiac cath is called the:

Sone's
Judkin's
Gorlin
Fick

A coronary artriogram reveals a 75% stenosis of the right coronary artery. This is considered:

normal
mild
moderate
significant

The cardiac cath technique that injects chilled saline into the right heart and measures the temperature change at a distal site to predict cardiac ouput is:

thermodilution
indicator dilution
Fick method
angiography

The cardiac cath techique which injects a dye into the right heart and measures the concentration of dye at an arterial site in order to predict cardiac output is called:

thermodilution
indicator dilution
Fick method
angiography

The most accurate cardiac cath technique for predictiong cardiac output is:

thermodilution
indicator dilution
Fick method
angiography

Which of the following cardiac cath techinques allows for th prediction of cardiac output by injecting a radiopaque dye into the ventricle?

Fick
thermodilution
angiography
indicator dilution

Which of the following cardiac cath techniques would be best to utilize in quantifying a left-to-right shunt?

left ventriculography
aortography
oximetry
arteriography

A left ventriculogram will allow the evaluation of all of the following EXCEPT left ventricular:

global function
segmental function
stroke volume
systolic pressure

Which cardiac valve regurgitation may a left ventriculogram best evaluate?

aortic
mitral
pulmonic
tricuspid

All of the following may be valuated during a right heart cath ventriculogram EXCEPT right ventricular:

global systolic function
segmental wall motion
tricuspid regurgitation
systolic/diastolic pressure

Which cardiac cath techinque is best used to evaluate aortic root dimension?

coronary arteriogram
left ventriculogram
aortogram
oximetry

All of the following are likely causes of cardiomegaly as seen on chest x-ray EXCEPT:

pleural effusion
dilated cardiomyopathy
ventricular hypertrophy
ventricular dilatation

All of the following are associated with an increase in pulmonary vascularity on chest x-ray EXCEPT:

left heart failure
aortic aneurysm
left-to-right cardiac shunt
left heart valvular disease

A widened mediastinum as viewed on a chest x-ray suggests:

infective enodcarditis
mitral valve prolapse
aortic dissection
constrictive pericarditis

Which of the following nuclear test utilizes Thallium-201 to evaluate coronary artery disease?

myocardial perfusion
infarct avid imaging
radionuclide angiography
MUGA

Which of the following nucelar medicine test is utilized to evaluate acute myocardial infarction?

myocardial perfusion
infarct avid imaging
radionuclide angiography
MUGA

Whichof the following nuclear medicine tests injests a radionuclide isotope is order to visualize the atria, ventricles and great vessels?

myocardial perfusion
radionuclide angiography
infarct avid imaging
sestamibi imaging

Which nuclear medicine test allows for the calculation of ejection fraction?

myocardial perfusion
Cardiolyte
infarct avid imaging
MUGA

According to Poiseuille's law, as the diameter of a tube increases, flow rate will:

increase
decrease
varies
cannot be predicted

According to Poiseuille's law, as the pressure gradient increases, flow rate will:

increase
decrease 
varies
cannot be predicted

According to Poiseuille's law, as the lenth of a tube increases, flow rate:

increases
decreases
varies
cannot be predicted

According to Poiseuille's law as fluid viscoisty increases, flow rate:

increases
decreases
varies
cannot be predicted

According to Poiseuille's law, which of the following has the greates effect on flow through a tube?

pressure gradient
tube diameter
tube length
fluid vescosity

Disturbed flow occurs usually as an:

inlet
bifurcation
outlet
annulus

___________ flow is present when fluid particles move in mutiple directions and different velocities.

inlet 
laminar
disturbed
turbulent

The clinical use of the simplified Bernoulli equation usually ignores all of the following except:

V1
V2
flow acceleration
viscous friction

The simplified Bernoulli equation of 4* (v2)2 may not be accurated in all of the following situations EXCEPT:

V1 velocity greater than 1.0m/s
tunnel stenosis
discrete stenosis
stenosis in series

All of the following are possible causes for congestive heart failure EXCEPT:

myocardial dysfunction
pressure overload
volume overload
pleural effusion

A

l of the following are possible etiologies for congestive heart failure EXCEPT:

myocardial ischemia
amyloidosis
aortic aneurysm
valvular aortic stenosis

Semilumar valve stenosis is a ventricular

pressure overload
volume overload
varies
cannnot be predicted

Which effect does semilunar valve stenosis initially have on the ventricle?

dilatation
hypertrophy
varies
cannot be predicted

Atrioventricular valves stenosis is initially an:

atrial volume overload
atrial pressure overload
ventricular volume overload
ventricular pressure overload

Which effect does atrioventricular valve stenosis initioally have on the atria?

dilatation
hypertrophy
varies
cannot be predicted

Significant chronic semilunar valve regurgitation is initially a ventricular"

volume overload
pressure overload
varies
cannot be predicted

Significant severe acute semilunar valve regurgitation initially causes an increase in:

ventricular diastolic pressure
hypertrophy
varies
cannot be predicted

Significant chronic atrioventricular valve regurgitation initially is a:

volume overload
pressure overload
varies
cannot be predicted

Acute mitral valve regurgitation initially results in:

atrial/ventircular dilatation
atrial/ventricular hypertrophy
pulmonary edema
cannot be predicted

An ASD initially results in a volume overload of all the following EXCEPT:

right atrium
left atrium
right ventricle
pulmonary veins

A VSD initially resutls in a volume overload of all of the following EXCEPT:

right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle
main pulmonary artery

A PDA initially resutls in a volume overload of all of the following EXCEPT:

right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle
pulmonary veins

Intrinsic pulmonary diesease resutls initially in a :

right atrial volume overload
left atrial volume overload
right ventricular pressure overload
left ventricular volume overload

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is initially a left ventricular:

volume overload
pressure overload
volume/pressure overload
cannot be predicted

Dilated cardiomyopathy initially results in an:

atrial/ventricular volume overload
atiral/ventrcular pressure overload
varies
cannot be predicted

A restrictive cardiomyopathy initially results in an increse in atrial and ventricular:

systolic pressure
diastolic pressure
varies
cannot be predicted

An interatrial septal aneurysm usually afffects which portion of the interatrial septum?

sinus venosus
foramen ovale
ostium primum
coronary sinus

The groove between the right atrium and right ventricle is called the:

coronary sinus
coronary sulcus
crista terminalis
supraventricular crest

The left atrium and left ventricle are anteriorly and posteriorly separated by the:

pulmonary veins
coronary artery
atrioventricular groove
posterior descending artery

The chordae tendineae may be catergorized by all of the following terms EXCEPT:

primary
secondary
tertiary
quarterly

The position of the heart in a tall, thin patient may be more:

horizontal
vertical
lateral
cephalad

The long axis of the heart is parallel to a line drawn from the:

right shoulder to left hip
left shoulder to right hip
sternum to xyphoid process
right shoulder to left shoulder

The descending thoracic aorta begins just beyond the:

coronary arteries
innonimate artery
left common carotid artery
left subclavian artery

In relation to the spine, the aorta normally lies:

to the right
to the left
cephalad
inferior

The weakest area of the aorta is considered to be the aortic:

annulus
arch
isthmus
transverse

The left anterior descending coronary artery follows the:

coronary sulcus
interventricular groove
atrioventricular groove
coronary sinus

The left circumflex coronary artery follows the:

coronary sulcus
interventricular groove
artioventricular groove
coronary sinus

The veins that join to form the superior vena cave are the:

innominate
corotid
internal 
external

As compared to intrathoracic pressure, intrapericardial pressure is:

greater than
equal to
less than
cannot be predicted

All of the following are considered conotruncal abnormalities EXCEPT:

truncus arteriosus
ventricular septal defect
tetralogy of Fallot
D-Transposition of the great arteries

Depolarization of the ventricles occurs with the onset of the:

QRS complex
P wave
T wave
S wave

As compared to the beginning of left ventricular contraction, right ventricular contraction begins:

before
at the same time
after
varies

The period of time where the cardiac cell will not respond to another stimulus no matter how strong is called:

absolute refractory period
relative refractory period
rapid repolarization
partial repolorization

Whichof the following state that the greater the stretch of the cardiac muscle cell, the greater the force of contraction:

Bernoulli
Doppler
Gorlin
Starling

The length to which a cardiac myofibril is stretched prior to the next contraction is called:

afterload
preload
diastasis
systole

Within limits, what effect will an increase in preload have on contraction:

increase 
decrease
varied
cannot be predicted

All of the following will increase preload EXCEPT:

atrioventricular valve regurgitation
atrioventricular valve stenosis
semilunar valve regurgitation
septal defect

____________ is the resistance the ventricles faces as it ejects blood.

afterload
preload
diastole
systole

Normally an increase in afterload will have what effect on the rate of ventricular fiber shortening?

increase
decrease
no change
cannot be predicted

All of the following patholoiges will increase afterload EXCEPT:

semilunar valve stenosis
semilunar valve regurgitation
supravalvular stenosis
systemic/pulmonary hypertension

According to the interval-strength relationship, sinus bracycardia may have which effect on venticular contractions?

increase
decrease 
no change
cannot be predicted

What effect will the compensatory pause following a premature ventricular contractions have on an aortic stenosis peak velocity?

increase
decrease
no effect
cannot be predicted

The atrioventricular valves close when:

atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure
arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure

The atrioventricular valves open when:

atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
arterial pressure exeeds ventricular pressure
ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure

Semilunar valves closure occurs when

arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure

Semilunar valves opening occurs when:

arterial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
ventricular pressure exceeds arterial pressure
atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure
ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure

The pre-ejection period refers to:

ventricular diastole
diastasis
isovolumic contraction
active relaxation

What effect will valvular aortic stenosis have an ventricular ejection time?

increase
decrease
no change
cannot be predicted

Stenotic valve gradients may increase due to an increase in:

flow volume
valve area
respiration
trubulence

Chest pain is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

coronary artery disease
pericarditis
musculoskeletal
ascities

Peripheral edmea may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT:

right heart failure
mitral valve prolapse
peripheral venous insufficiency
liver failure

The pericardial friciton rub may indicate:

cardiac tumor
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
rheumatic fever
pericarditis

The auscultatory finding for constrictive pericarditis is:

loud S1
opening snap
pericardial knock
S4

A cardiac cell is able to transfer an electrical impulse to a neighboring cardiac cell. This is called:

excitability
contractlity
automaticity
conductivity

All of the following maneuvers increase cardiac output except:

passive leg raising
supine to standing
squatting
standing to walking

All of the following will cause a systolic murmur EXCEPT:

atrioventricular valve regurgitation
atriventricualr valve stenosis
semilunar valve stenosis
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

All of the following will casue a diastolic mumur EXCEPT:

aortic regurgitation
mitral stenosis
aortic stenosis
pulmonary regurgitation

Ventricular systolic contraction begins at the:

cardiac base
cardiac apex
lateral walls of the ventricles
medial wall of the ventricles

Ventricular depolarization marks the beginning of ventricular:

diastole
diastasis
systole
relaxation

Ventricular repolarization marks the beginning of vetricular:

diastole
systole
diastasis
contraction

According to the action potential curve for cardiac cell, actual cardiac contractions occurs during the EKG:

P wave
onset of the QRS complex
ST segment
PR interval

For valvular aortic stenosis which of the following is a true statement?

increase in LV systolic pressure, increase in aortic systolic pressure
decrease in LV systolic pressure, decrease in systolic aortic pressure
increase in LV systolic pressure, decrease in aortic systolic pressure
decrease in LV systolic pressure, increase in aortic systolic pressure

Which of the following is true statment concerning mitral valve stenosis?

increase in LA pressure, decrease in LV diastolic pressure
increase in LA pressure, increase in LV diastolic pressure
decrease in LA pressure, increase in LV diastolic pressure
decrease in LA paressure, decrease in LV diastolic pressure

Which of the following pressures will most likely be increased in a patient with significant chronic aortic regurgitation?

left atrial
left ventricular end diastolic
aortic diastolic
pulmonary artery wedge

The PR interval is deternimed to be 223m/s. The diagnosis is:

1st degree AV Block
Mobitz I
Wenckebach
comlete heart block

While performining an echo the sonographer notes a structure in the right atrium.  All of the following are possible explanations EXCEPT:

thebesian valve
eustachian valve
trabeculae carneae
Chiari network

While observing a TEE the sonographer notes a structure in the left artial appendage. The most likely anatomic explanation is that it is:

trabeculae carneae
pectinate muscle
chordal web
eustachian valve

During a venus saline contrast injection the patient performs a valsalva maneuver and contrast crosses into the LA. The most likely explanation is:

perimembramous VSD
left ventricle to right atrial communication
patent foramen ovale
partioal anomalous pulmonary venous return

While performing an echo the sonographer notesa structure near the apex of the right ventricle. The most likely explanation:

chordal web
moderator band
pectinate muscle
Chiari network

During a pediatric echo the sonographer is questioned on how to identify a right ventricle. All of the following are anatomical features of the right ventricle EXCEPT:

moderator band
three papillary muscle group
smooth ventricular walls
three leaflet atrioventricular valve

An echo request reads "Rule out infundibular stenosis". The sonographer should carefully evaluate the:

left ventricular outflow tract
right ventricular outflow tract
left atrial appendage
cardiax apex

An echo request reads "Rule out supracristal ventricular septal defect". The sonographer should carefully evaluate the:

left ventricular outflow tract
right ventricle outlflow tract
left atrial appendage
cardiac apex

An echo request reads "Rule out left ventricular infow tract obstruction." The sonographer should carefull evaluate all of the following EXCEPT:

valve annulus
valve leaflets
choardae tendineae
trabeculae carneae

During an echo examination of a patient with long-standing severe pulmonary hypertension the sonographer notes that the right ventricle forms the cardiac apex. This finding in anatomically:

normal
abnormal
varies
cannot be predicted

An echo request reads "Rule out perimembranous ventricle septal defect". The sonographer should carefully evaluate the:

left ventricular outflow tract
right ventricular outflow tract
left atrial appendage
cardiac apex

During an echo examincation a patient with long standing sever pulmonary hypertension the sonographer notes the IVS is concave to the right ventricle. This finding is anatomically:

normal
abnormal
varies
cannot be predicted

During an echo the sonographer is questioned on which tricuspid valve leaflet is the larger. The correct answer in the:

anterior
posterior
medial
septal

During an echo examination the sonographer is quesitoned on which tricuspid valve leaflet is inserte closer to the cardiac apex. The correct response is:

anterior
posterior
septal
medial

During a color flow Doppler examination the sonographer notes a moderate size mosaic backflow of blood into the RA during ventricular systole. This finding is called atrioventricular valve:

stenosis
regurgitation
obstruction
dissection

In teh PSAX view of the mitral valve the sonographer may be able to evaluate all of the following EXCEPT:

anterior leaflet
medial commissure
lateral commissure
septal leaflet

During a TEE examination the sonographer notes prominent echoes at the edges of each aortic valve cusp. A possible anotomic explanantion would be:

vestigial of Arantii
nodules of Arantii
nodules of Atlantii
ectopic chordae

In the standard PLAX the sonographer may be able to evaluate  all of the following sections of the aorta EXCEPT the:

aortic annulus
transverse aorta
sinotubular junction
descending thorocic aorta

In the suprasternal long axis view the sonographer may be able to evaluate all of the following arteries EXCEPT the:

innominate
left common carotid
left subclavian
superior mesenteric

An echo request reads "Rule out type III aortic dissection: question intimal tear at the aortic isthmus." The best 2D view the sonographer may use to evaluate the aortic isthmus is the:

parasternal long axis
parasternal short axis @ the aortic level
apical four chamber
suprasternal long axis

An echo examination is ordered for a patient with known left anterior descending coronary artery diasease. The sonographer should expect to see wall motion abnormalities in all of the following left ventricular wall segments EXCEPT:

anterior septum
anterior
anterolateral
cardiac apex

An echo examination is ordered for a patient with known left circumflex coronary artery disease. The sonographer should expect to see wall motion abnormalities in all of the following left ventricular wall segments EXCEPT:

anterior septum
anterolateral
inferolateral
lateral

During an echo examination the sonographer notes a segmental wall motion abnormalities in the inferior IVS. The coronary artery most likely causing this abnormality is the:

left main
left anterior descending
left circumflex
posterior descending

During an echo examination the sonographer notes a wall motion abnormality of the lateral wall of the right ventricle. The coronary artery most likely diseased is the:

left main
oblique margin
diagonal
acute margin

In the PLAX the sonographer notes an echo free space at the roof of the left atrium. The most likely anatomic explanation is that is the:

aortic sinotubular junction
atrial appendage
oblique sinus
left pulmonary artery

During a color flow Doppler examination the sonographer notes flow into the right atrium.  All of the following are possible explanations EXCEPT:

superior vena cava flow
inferior vena cava flow
coronory sinus flow
ductus venosus flow

During a left heart contrast echo examination, flow is noted in the left ventricle during ventricular diastole. All of the following are possible explanations EXCEPT:

mitral valve inflow
aortic regurgiation
thebesian venous flow
atrial septal defect flow

During an echo examination the sonographer notes an anterior clear space located between the epicardium and myocardium. The most likely explanation is:

pericardial effusion
adipose tissue
pleural effusion
dilated coronary sinus

During an echo exam the sonographer notes pericardial effusion behind the left atrium. This effusion is contained in the:

transverse sinus
oblique sinus
coronary sinus
sinus of valsalva

During a TEE examination, the sonographer notes a clear space between the pulmonary artery and the aorta. This is most likely the:

transverse sinus
oblique sinus
coronary sinus
carotid sinus

While evaluating left ventricular systolic function in the apical four chamber veiw, the sonographer should expect the base of the heart to move:

posteriorly
laterally
downward
caudad

In the PSAX view of the cardiac apex, the sonographer should normall expect to visualize the heart to twist:

clockwise
counter clockwise
posteriorly
laterally

During an echo evaluation of the patient with severe, acute aortic regurgitation the sonographer notes premature closure of the mitral valve. The most likely explanantion is that there is an increase in:

left atrial pressure
left ventricular end diastolic pressure
aortic pressure
heart rate

During an echo examination of a patient with constrictive pericarditis the sonographer notes premature opening of the pulmonic valve. The most likely explanation is that there is an increase in:

right atrial pressure
right ventricular end-diastolic pressure
pulmonary artery pressure
heart rate

During an echo examination of a patient with a history of systemic hypertension the sonographer measures and notes an abnormal increase in the time interval between aortic valve closure and mitral valve opening. This represents an abnormality during:

early ventricular systole
early ventricular diastole
diastasis
pre-ejection period

During an echo examination of a patient with dilated cardiomypothy the songrapher notes an abnormal increase in the time period between mirtal valve closure and aortic valve opening. This represent an abnormality during:

early ventricular distole
late ventricular systole
diastasis
pre-ejection period

The sonographer measures a left ventricualr end diastolic volume of 120cc and an left ventricular end systolic volume of 90cc. The heart rate is 80 beat per minute. The body surface area is 2.0 m2. The stroke volume in this case is.

increased
normal
abnormal
cannot be predicted

The sonographer measure a left ventricular end diastolic volume of 100cc and a left ventricular systolic volume of 30cc. The heart rate is 50 beats per minute. The body surface area is 2.0m2. The cardiac output is:

30cc
130cc
3500cc
6500cc

The sonographer measures a left ventricular end diastolic volume of 120cc and a left ventricular end systolic volume of 60cc. The heart rate is 70 BPM. The body surface area is 2.0m2. The cardiac index is:

30cc
1.1 lpm/m2
2.1 lpm/m2
4.2 lpm/m2

The sonographer measures an end systolic volume of 40cc and an end diastolic volume of 80cc. The rate is 110 beats per minute.  The body surface area is1.8m2. The ejection fraction is:

40cc
120cc
33%
50%

A 22 year old femail persents with a diagnosis of univentricular heart. The echo demonstrates a smooth walled ventricle. The ventricle is most likely a morphologic:

right ventricle
left ventricle
combination right and left ventricle
cannot be predicted

By evaluating the inferior vena cava the sonographer predicts the right atrial pressure to be 10 mmHG. In the absence of right ventricular inflow tract obstruction, which other cardiac pressure is equal to 10 mmHG?

right ventricle diastolic
right ventricular systolic
pulmonary artery systolic
pulmonary artery diastolic

Utilizing the tricupsid regurgitation method the sonographer predicts the right ventricular systolic pressue to be 65 mmHG. In the absence of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction which other cardiac pressure would be 65 mmHG?

pulmonary artery diastolic
pulmonary artery systolic
pulmonary artery mean
left atrial mean

Utilizing the pulmonary regurgitation method the sonographer predicts the pulmonaly end diastolic pressure to be 19 mmHG. What other cardiac pressures would be equal to 19 mmHG?

pulmonary artery systolic and mean
right atrial and right ventricular end diastolic
left atrial and left ventricular diastolic
aortic systolic and diastolic

The sonographer determines a patient's blood pressure to be 133/76 mmHg. In the absence of left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, which other cardiac chamber would have a systolic pressure of 133 mmHg.

pulmonary systolic
left ventricle
left atrial
mean aortic

While reviewing a patient's cardiac cath report before performing an echo examination the sonographer notes the right atrial V wave was measured to be 18 mmHg. The expected cardiac Doppler finding would be significant:

aortic regurgitation
mitral regurgitation
tricuspid regurgitation
pulmonic regurgitation