1. Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI 36-2201, Classifying Military Personnell (Officer and Enlisted)?
    Duty Position Task
  2. Which enlisted training element is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field?
    Core Competency
  3. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide?
    Cyber Systems Operations
  4. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base heldesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions?
    Client Systems
  5. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices?
    Radio Frequency Transmissions
  6. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deoyable air traffic, weather, ground air control and warning radar systems?
    Ground Radar Systems
  7. Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations?
    Cable and Antenna Systems
  8. Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field?
    Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
  9. Who is the final authority to waive career field education training plan (CFETP) requirements to incluide the completion of the Air Force Specialty (AFS) career development course (CDC)?
    Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
  10. Who assists with the identification of qualified subject matter experts (SME) to help with the development of yourt specialty knowledge test (SKT) and your career development course (CDC)?
    MAJCOM functional manager (MFM)
  11. What title is normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3D Cyberspace non-commissioned officer (NCO)?
    Base functional manager (BFM)
  12. What is the main goal of utilization and training workshop (U&TW)?
    Establish a viable Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
  13. Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Heath (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Material Handling and Storage Equipment"?
    AFOSH Standard 91-46
  14. Which Air Force Occupational Safety and Heath (AFOSH) standard would you reference safety information on "Communications Cable, Antenna and Communications-Electronics Systems"?
    AFOSH Standard 91-50
  15. The Air Force Occupational Safety and Heath (AFOSH) standard that you would reference safety information on data processing facilities is called AFOSH standard
    AFOSH 91-64
  16. From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little to no sensation of skin heating?
    Nonionizing Radiation
  17. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle states that most logical choices for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements while exposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk?
    Accept no unnecessary risk
  18. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability?
    Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs
  19. Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle has risk assessments of mission supportive operations done as a normal way of conducting a mission and not an add-on process?
    Integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels
  20. Offensive operations support Untied States cyberspace objectives by
    denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace
  21. What refers to centralized systems that monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas?
    Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)
  22. Which center has the overall authoritative source for the status, control and defense of Air Force networks?
    Air Force Network Operations Center (AFNOC)
  23. Which center is typically aligned under the base communications squadron, provide Tier-3 (local level) on-site, and implements technical annd physical network changes?
    Network Control Center (NCC)
  24. Which function or ogranization has a mission that varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base (EAB) communications packages?
    Combat Communication Squadrons (CCS)
  25. Which function or organization was established to operate with an air expeditionary task force (AETF)?
    Expeditionary Communications Squadron (ECS)
  26. Which function or organization has the goal to manage AF core services, within the AFNetOps community to; reduce training, maintenance costs; increase operational flexibility and capacity to the warfighter?
    Enterprise Service Unit (ESU)
  27. Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
  28. Which document authroizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force and Marine Corps?
    United States Title Code 10
  29. Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
    Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
  30. In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidate their ideas as the first drafts of join and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
  31. In what year did the Air Force finalize and publish its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
  32. Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to intituate, govern or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
    Air Force Policy Directives
  33. Which publication type are informational publications which are "how to" documents?
    Air Force Pamphlets
  34. What provides us with the transmission of analog of digital bits information to convey data over significatioin geographical distances to communicate?
  35. What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
    Air Force Portal
  36. What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
    Air Force Portal
  37. Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirements?
  38. Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
    Virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF)
  39. Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project and/or solve group problems?
    Community of Practice (CoP)
  40. Which document would you reference for guidance on "Web Management and Internet Use"?
    AFI 33-129
  41. Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
    AFI 35-101, Public Affairs Responsibilities and Management
  42. When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
    Consistently using the "Reply-to-All" feature
  43. Which document is not considered an official government record?
    Library reference or museum exhibitions
  44. Records that are considered to be in draft format
    can be altered and are not officially released
  45. Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
    Officially signed and released
  46. Who is charged with duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
    Command records manager
  47. Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas and records training?
    Base records managers
  48. Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
    Functional area records management
  49. Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of records?
    Chief of Office of Records
  50. A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
    Electronic record
  51. A logical group of record is called a/an
  52. An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an
  53. Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primarily responsibility (OPR) records custodian?
    Functional area records manager (FARM)
  54. Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
    Second step
  55. The primary purpose for maintaing records is to ensure
    we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed
  56. What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan?
    Air Force Records Information Management System (AFIRMS)
  57. What determines the cutoff for active records?
    Retention period
  58. A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage and donation of records or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a
  59. For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?
    Base closures
  60. Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?
    Standard Form 135
  61. The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by
    Any method such as tearing, burning or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction
  62. AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model?
    Tempo bands
  63. Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements?
    Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)
  64. What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)?
  65. Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea and air forces?
    Air and Space Operation Center (AOC)
  66. Which document is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of air and space expeditionary forces (AEF)?
    Unit Type Code (UTC)
  67. Which function is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data and video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite or hard-wired resources?
    Theater deployable communications (TDC)
  68. Defense Support of Civil Authorities (DSCA), Humanitarian Relief Operations (HUMRO), Non-Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to the International Law Enforcement are all examples of
    Operational capabilities packages (OCP)
  69. Which function has the primary purpose of providing standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command?
    Manpower and squipment force packaging (MEFPAK)
  70. A remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads is called a/an
    Unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV)
  71. As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown to support Operation ENDURING FREEDOM and Operation IRAQI FREEDOM?
  72. Which system focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in the near-real time?
    High Altitutde Endurance Program (HAE)
  73. Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characterisitc requires equipment modules to be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, or shelterized configurations?
  74. Which theater deployable communications (TDC) equipment characteristic requires size, weight, power requirements and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support the transportation, deployment and operations in a deployed environment?
  75. Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network?
    Integrated communications access package (ICAP)
  76. Which system provides the capability to identify, sequence and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance, and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather?
    Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS)
  77. Which system asset can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing and mobile Tactical AIr Nagication (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination?
    Deployable Air Traffic-Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS)
  78. The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to the
    Air Combat Command (ACC)
  79. Under what program does the Department of Defense (DOD) collects, processes, produces, disseminates and uses information?
    Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance and Reconnaissance (C4ISR)
  80. What system provides connectivity between the US and allied forces for critical missions and enhances worldwide readiness, mobility, responsiveness and operations?
    Global Information Grid (GIG)
  81. Which system is employed at more than 600 sites across the global information grid (GIG) and interconnected through the SIPRNET?
    Global Command and Control System (GCCS)
  82. Which major system employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems?
    Global Command and Control System (GCCS)
  83. Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel and material requirements?
    Global Combat Support System (GCSS)
  84. Which system of the interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State?
    Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS)
  85. Which Air Force specific system uses the global information grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Force (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces?
    Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)
  86. Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technoloogical developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliablity and joint interoperability?
    Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS)
  87. Which command and control structure is a priority component of the global information grid (GIG) designed to support the President, SECDEF and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities?
    National Military Command System (NMCS)
  88. Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the emergency action messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the warfighting commanders in the field?
    Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)
  89. Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits and alternate communications paths?
    Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)
  90. Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems?
  91. Which program was created in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture?
    Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)
  92. Which systems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation and dissemination (TPED)?
    Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)
  93. Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)?
    Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)
  94. Which system capitalizes on the popular commcercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters?
    Global Broadcast Service (GBS)
  95. Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku band)?
    Global Broadcast Service (GBS)
  96. Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HG Entry, Mystic Star and System of Inter-American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA) missions?
    Global High Frequency Network (A.K.A. High Frequency-Global Communications System) (HF-GCS)
  97. Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite commubnications to the President, Vice President, cabinet members and other senior government and military official while aboard special airlift mission (SAM) aircraft?
    Mystic Star
  98. Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support?
    Ground Theater Air Control System (GTACS)
  99. Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations?
    Ground Theater Air Control System (GTACS)
  100. What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers (PC), personal digital assistants (PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant vioce systems in real-time?
    AtHoc's solutions
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