1. Regarding temporary lodging facilities (TLF), how many priorities are guests divided into?2
  2. All eligible guests listed as Priority 2 are assigned rooms
    On a space-available (Space-A) basis
  3. How are Priority 1 and Priority 2 room assignments to visiting Airman quarters/visiting officer quarters/visiting quarters (VAQ/VOQ/VQ) and temporary lodging facilities (TLF) made?
    First-come first-served basis, reguardless of rank
  4. Transient enlisted aircrew members are entitled to
    Private room with a private or shared bath
  5. When you divide an aircrew into multiple buildings on base, the pick-up can’t exceed how many stops?
  6. Who appoints a base program manager and provides resources required for a viable Prime Knight program?
    Host installation commander
  7. Temporary lodging expense (TLE) allowance is an amount of money authorized
    To partially offset added living expenses incurred during permanent change of station (PCS) within the continental United States (CONUS)
  8. Which allowance is authorized to partially reimburse a member for the added living expense incurred when it is necessary to occupy temporary lodging outside the continental United States (OCONUS)
    Temporary lodging allowance (TLA)
  9. How many square feet of net living area are standard for renovation or new construction of visiting quarters (VQ)
  10. What is a consideration when determining the adequacy of lodging quarters?
    Furniture and equipment
  11. One aspect of basic housekeeping services is
    Replenishing supplies
  12. What should housekeepers do in addition to providing basic housekeeping service?
    Display courteous, helpful behavior toward guests and other lodging employees
  13. The lodging general manager is responsible for maintaining a record of all quarterly inspections including
    Dates, facilities visited, comment, and corrective action
  14. Who is required to maintain documentations of weekly guest room inspections for at least one year?
    General manager
  15. Who is required to conduct formal inspections of the common areas and at least 25 percent of the guest rooms each quarter?
    At least two members of the lodging management staff
  16. What modules are included in the Property Management System (PMS)?
    History Module
  17. What Epitome Property Management System (PMS) gives you a graphical look at the status of each room?
    Blocking Worksheet
  18. Where can you find information on the number of reservations, stays, cancellations, and no-shows for both individuals and groups?
    History Module
  19. What report has a composite listing of all reports required by the front desk in the event the computer system fails
    Front desk backup
  20. What report can you use to find out a guests balance in case your computers are down?
    Guest account balance report
  21. Why is the imperative that a backup report be generated every two hours?
    In case the lodging system goes down
  22. Why should you run the departure report once every hour or until normal checkout time?
    In case a guest due to checkout extended
  23. Who sends the unaccompanied personnel housing (UPH) inventory and utilization data to Headquarters Air Force Services Agency (HQ AFSVA)?
    Major Command (MAJCOM)
  24. Current standards state guests with a reservation should be checked in within
    3 Minutes
  25. What is normal check-in time for lodging?
    Any time rooms are available
  26. Normal check-out time for lodging is?
  27. What base agency do you refer guests to when they need to store weapons?
    Security forces
  28. What base agency do you refer guests to who request storage for classified material?
    The command post
  29. The housekeeping staff must maintain a log annotating all found property by
    Building, date found, room, by whom, and disposition of the property
  30. Where is lost and found stored?
    In a secure area
  31. All guests checking in will sign the guest registration form that advises them lodging is authorized to
    Apply any unpaid charges to their credit card
  32. For personnel whose organization will be billed, how many days does the guest’s organization have to make payment?
  33. What guests are required to pay in advance for up to 30 days?
    VQ guests paying by cash or check
  34. Who will establish procedures and guidance for shift change procedures?
    General manager
  35. General managers may approve cash refunds that do not exceed
  36. Before performing lodging cashier functions, what must you do first?
    Open your bank
  37. At a minimum, an inventory stock record should contain name, unit cost,
    ending balance, and selling price
  38. How should sundry items be issued from the storage room?
    Issue older stock first
  39. What should you consider when establishing stock reorder levels?
    Shipping time, supply sources, and consumption history
  40. How often should you review inventories to identify slow moving items?
  41. Who may authorize below-cost sales to move dead stock or slow moving items?
    Force support squadron commander
  42. When you are designated to conduct an inventory, what is your duty?
    Counting, weighing, or estimating physical quantities
  43. Why is protection of the inventory important?
    Invetories represent a significant portion of assets
  44. Who is responsible for proper investigation, and corrective action concerning inventory losses
  45. At automated lodging operations, the physical inventory count should match the
    Master inventory balance sheet
  46. Who is responsible for establishing inventory schedules?
    Resorue management flight chief (RMFC) and section manager
  47. What is the inventory frequency schedules for a pro-shop activity?
  48. The Force Support Squadron commander may establish central storerooms to
    make receiving and distributing inventory easier
  49. What type of inventory consists of merchandise for resale, such as lodging sundry sales?
  50. Who examines all transactions involving donated items to ensure proper accountability?
    Resource management flight chief (RMFC)
  51. Who schedules mandatory annual impartial inventories of sundry items?
    Nonappropriated fund financiual analyst (NAFFA)
  52. Items sold in lodging rooms must also be available
    At the lodging front desk
  53. When setting prices on retail items, who can lodging not undercut?
    Army and Air Force Exchange Service (AAFES)
  54. Price Gouging is
    Pricing an item above the market when no alternative retailer is available
  55. What officials provide written reports and assessments on each commercial lodge (CL) inspected?
    Contracting, public health, and fire protection
  56. Why should you make customer comment forms available to guests assigned to commercial lodging (CL)?
    To obtain feedback on the service provided by the establishment
  57. What should you do with commercial lodging (CL) authorization letters?
    Send the CL authorization letter to the CL before the guest arrives
  58. Who develops contingency lodging plans?
    General manager
  59. What is the space available (Space-A) policy when lodging operations are converted in direct support of contingency operations?
    Space-A is not authorized
  60. What type of funds may not be used in support of contingency lodging operations?
    Nonappropriated Funds (NAF)
  61. What is required to make the deployed lodging locator system work?
    The strong backing of the first sergeants
  62. Who plans for the required quantities of supplies, washers, and dryers for self-help laundry operations?
  63. What is a planning factor for laundry facilities?
    Personnel are allowed 10 pounds of organizational clothes per week
  64. If you are using commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) laundry equipment, what is the planning factor for machine requirements?
    1 wahwer and 1.5 (commercial type) dryers for each 20 people
  65. Who prepares the income and expense (I&E) budget for the facility?
    Activity managers
  66. Who makes payment to the vendor to clear the accounts payable?
    Nonappropriated fund accounting office (NAF AO)
  67. Who certifies AF Form 1735, NAF Interfund Purchase Order?
  68. What documents are required to substantiate payment to a vendor?
    Contract, a receiving report, and a vendor invoice
  69. When editing rate plans, how many rate plans can be saved at once?
  70. How often are rate packages reviewed?
    • Annually
    • As a minimum, how many hours a week will fitness centers remain open on active duty bases?
    • 112
  71. Hours of operation should be predicted based on the
    Customer's needs and demands
  72. Who has the authority to alter the fitness center’s hours of operation?
    Installation commander
  73. Who can use the fitness center after normal hours of operation?
    No one
  74. What is the minimum number of hours of operation for a satellite fitness facility
    30 hours per week
  75. Who funds and maintains unit physical training facilities?
    The using unit
  76. Who may authorize additional categories of participants
    Installation commander
  77. When should latrines, showers, and locker rooms be cleanded?
    After peak periods
  78. Which areas demand constant monitoring to maintain the highest degree of health and sanitation standards?
    Latrines, locker rooms, and showers
  79. How can you prevent illness associated with whirlpools?
    Drain the water and disinfect weekly
  80. How long should it take the water film to dry up after you damp mop on a wood floor?
    Few seconds
  81. Who is responsible for developing annual grounds maintenance plan for the upkeep and maintenance of all outdoor facilities?
    Fitness center director
  82. Who must the fitness center director provide updated operational information to Headquarters Air Force Services Agency?
    Base civil engineers, wing safety, and public health
  83. How often must the fitness center director provide updated operational information to Headquarters Air Force Service Agency?
  84. What two things does a daily inspection of the fitness center ensure?
    Longevity and that no one will be hurt from using defective equipment
  85. Who is involved in the ongoing inspection process of the fitness center?
  86. When can you use a handwritten “Out of Order” sign for broken equipment?
    As an interim emergency measure only 
  87. What areas of fitness centers are recognized for excellence by the 5-Star Program?
    Training, operations, and facilities
  88. What is the Fitness 5-Star Program?
    Annual recognition of superior achievement for fitness centers
  89. What is the 5-Star Program used for?
    A tool as an incentive to exceed standards and reach excellence
  90. What establishes mandatory technical material and operational specifications for all Services programs and activities?
    Golden Eagle Standards
  91. What individual must be on duty at all times in the fitness center?
    Trained individual that can conduct equipment orientation
  92. Once assigned, within how many days do fitness center staff members have to be trained on equipment
  93. Once assigned, within how many days do fitness center staff members have to attend the physical training leader course given by the HAWC fitness program manager
  94. At a minimum, how many members of the fitness center (FC) must successfully complete an enhanced fitness course?
    Two FCS members and the FCD
  95. What can a good emergency plan do?
    Save money
  96. What does a good emergency plan include?
    Checklist detailing specific duties for each staff member
  97. What can a good emergency plan do?
    Save money
  98. How often should managers document emergency plan and procedures training?
    Quarterly and as new members are assigned
  99. Which tournament is the most desirable tournament if time and facilities are available?
  100. What is the disadvantage of the single elimination tournament
    50 percent of the players are eliminatedc in each round of the tournament
  101. When should you order the awards and prizes for the special sporting events?
    in the initial planning stages
  102. What must you keep in mind when developing schedules for sports tournaments?
    Holidays, exercises, or down-days
  103. What program is recreational in nature and usually includes DOD civilians and family members
  104. Which aspects do bylaws deal with?
    Protests and postponements
  105. Who serves as nonvoting members on the fitness and sports advisory council?
    Combat support flight commander and fitness centter director
  106. What merchandise does Service retail operations provide until Army Air Force Exchange Service is able to deploy a direct operation exchange-tactical (DOX-T)?
    Basic health, hygiene, and personal care items
  107. Where should you initially consider establishing resale operation?
  108. What should you implement to monitor your activities ability to manage resources?
    Control measures
  109. Who can be held liable for damages when alcoholic beverages are served to a customer who appears to be reaching the point of intoxication?
  110. Who prescribes the Dram Shop statement that is to be signed by all AAFES employees?
    AAFES commander
  111. Who is responsible for setting proper safeguards or controls to protect the welfare of an intoxicated patron?
    Activity manager
  112. Who plans, coordinates, organizes, and maintains recreational activities throughout the deployment process?
    Services professionals
  113. For what Prime Readiness in Base Services program does Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-214, Air Force Prime RIBS Program, identify appropriated funds to be used at forward deployed locations?
    Basic recreational programs
  114. Recreation volunteers can literally keep your recreational activities going. As a manager you should remember to
    Reward your volunteers through recognition programs in the Area of Responsibility
  115. Nonappropriated funds revenues at some deployed locations
    May face numerous restrictions
  116. After Action reports provide a
    Method to identify and correct problims and disseminate results to improve the activity
  117. Which recreation support do we establish during an environment of low hostilities?
    Recreation tent, library, resale, and movie operation
  118. A softball league is an example of what type of activity?
  119. What organization will you coordinate with to schedule distinguished visitor appearances and entertainment?
    Armed Forces Entertainment
  120. Regarding putting on a show, what do deployed Services planners have to be concerned with?
    Where entertainers will be set-up and stage their show
  121. How many days after the beddown has been opened is the learning resource center’s force module typically sourced?
    180 or more
  122. Who provides library kits a deployed locations?
    Command librarian or designated support command librarian
  123. Which publication provides more detailed guidance for near-term support forces to aid Air Force planners in developing war and contingency plans?
    War and Mobilization Plan 1 functional supplements
  124. Which publication delineates the doctrinal concept, its broad policies, and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict?
    Services Supplement to the War and Mobilization Plan 1
  125. Where will limiting factors (LIMFAC) to assess the ability to support the operation be found?
    The IGESP part 2
  126. Who ensures that all units operating out of a location become familiar with the existing resource allocations and key tactics, techniques, and procedures that their unit may be tasked with?
    The in-garrison expeditionary support planning comittee (IGESP)
  127. What must Services functions using automated systems in peacetime be able to convert to in wartime?
    Field automation methods of operation
  128. Who has administrative control when Air Force Services personnel are assigned to a jointly manned activity?
    The parent service
  129. Who operates collocated and austere bare base operations during wartime?
    The same personnel who operate from fixed facilities during peacetime
  130. Who helps erect dining, lodging, recreation and fitness, field exchange, morturary, and laundry facilities?
    Civil engineers
  131. What is Services� first priority during wartime combat support?
    Strategic offensive and defensive missions
  132. In a wartime environment, when will levels of service be increased commensurate with quality of life programs where possible?
    After M+30
  133. What critical information does the time-phased force development data (TPFDD) contain?
    Time-phased force data
  134. What does the standard AF unit line number (ULN) consist of?
    Force requirement number (FRN) and a two-character fragmentation code�
  135. Why would a force requirement require more than one time-phased force development data (TPFDD) entry?
    Split sourcing of the requirement
  136. What essential piece of personnel development tasking information is in the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?
    Unit line number (ULN)
  137. What cook-to-customer ratio should food service operations maintain?
  138. At collocated operating bases (COB), what document defines if the host base is to provide food, dining facilities, equipment, and mandpower?
    In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP)
  139. What percentage is the estimated feeding rate that all ration computation are based on?
  140. By what day in your food service operation should you be able to serve four meals per day, and integrate fresh foods into your menus?
  141. The unit deployment manager (UDM) ensures the squadron�s readiness through the
    Services commander and their leadership
  142. How many tiers make up home station training (HST)?
  143. What is the minimum percentage of personnel on the RFSR1, RFSRB, and RFLO6 teams that need to be trained on the operation of 2 � ton truck, 1 � ton truck, and 10K forklift?
  144. How many days prior to deployment are deployable unit type codes (UTC) required to attend services combat training (SCT)?
  145. When must commanders new to the Services career field attend services combat training (SCT)?
    Within six months
  146. What is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD), functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US Armed Forces and certain foreign organizations
    Status of resources and traning system
  147. What is a fundamental premise of status of resource and training system (SORTS)?
  148. What type of unit type code (UTC) marries up with other UTCs to increase capabilities
    Follow-on UTC
  149. Within how many hours notice must the RFSR7 unit type code (UTC) for active forces be capable of deploying
  150. Which Force module sets are being phased out?
    Harvest Eagle & Harvest Falcon
  151. What concept improves the overall Air Force combat capability by providing a consistent, coherent, and readily identifiable force structure to deliver combat support?
    Force module unit type code (FM UTC)
  152. How many force modules (FM) does the FM concept employ?
  153. Which force module contains functional management teams to support the emergency operations center (EOC) and to plan services beddown and mission establishment and sustainment?
    Command and control (C2)
  154. Which force module includes unity type codes (UTC) that bring the beddown to initial operational capability and Services life-sustaining functions of food service, lodging, laundry and mortuary affairs?
    Establish the base
  155. Which force module introduces quality-of-life programs such as fitness, recreation, and field exchange support?
    Operate the base
  156. How often does the war fighting requirements review (WFRR) meet?
  157. To whom does the war fighting requirements review (WFRR) working group make recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues?
    Readiness, Training, Education, and Manpower (RTEAM)
  158. In continental United States (CONUS), how many copies of a certified state death certificate are provided to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)?
  159. For active duty members, how many escorts will accompany the remains from the shipping facility final destination when the two places are NOT located in the same locale?
  160. Who furnishes an appropriate government headstone or marker at the expense of the US for the grave of a member?
    Veteran Affairs
  161. Under what program are eligible personnel provided with professional mortuary services, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations?
    Current death program
  162. What is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?
    Concurrent return program
  163. What program do we only use as a last resort to protect the health and safety of personnel and is only initiated when the tactical situation precludes the return of remains?
    Temporary interment program
  164. What programs are integral parts of the mortuary affairs program?
    The Honor Guard and survivor assistance programs
  165. Why was the family liaison program created?
    To assist the families of the deceased person
  166. Who appoints the family liaison officer (FLO)?
    Installation commander
  167. Who acts as the family�s focal point for direction to various Air Force agencies and others for assistance?
    Family Liasion Officer (FLO)
  168. Who maintains close contact with medical, legal, and mental health, for continued long term assistance to family members?
    Family Liason Officer (FLO)
  169. Who or what overseas assistance provided to families by the family liaison officer (FLO)?
    The Air Force survivor assistance program
  170. According to the Air Force survivor assistance program the information the decedent�s family needs is divided into how many board categories
  171. Air Force appointed escorts are
    Always of equal or higher rank
  172. Which is NOT an authorized way to transport a body?
    Certified defense attache
  173. If feasible, remains must be shipped to the final destination within how many hours after arrival at the port mortuary?
  174. Who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information when notified of an active duty death?
    Mortuary officer
  175. Who determines who has jurisdiction over the remains in case of an active duty death?
    Mortuary officer
  176. Where can you get a template for a mortuary service performance work statement?
    HQ AFSVA mortuary affairs office
  177. What is included in the preaward survey plan for mortuary?
    Facilities, vehicles, and personnel
  178. Which is NOT a responsibility of the MAJCOM/SV?
    Justify and manage the mortuary allotment
  179. Who maintains a government purchase card account to cover primary mortuary expenses for each area of responsibility?
    Each installation mortuary officer
  180. How many times are eligible personnel entitled to military funeral honors?
  181. Who ensures that eligible personnel entitled to military funeral honors are only receiving honors once?
    The honor guard officer in charge (OIC) performing the honors
  182. How many members of the funeral honors detail must be active duty members of the armed services?
  183. Who may waive the requirement to provide honors, if it is necessary due to requirements of war, national emergency, contingency operations, or other military requirement?
    Services commander
  184. Who should NOT be contacted if an Air force base Honor Guard cannot support a funeral honors request?
    Department of Veterans Affairs
  185. When can a funeral honors detail for active duty personnel authorized be reduced to the minimum honors allowed by the law?
    Member is accused of a felony and dies before outcome
  186. Who is in charge of the overall performance and the discipline, appearance, and competence of honor guard members?
    Officer in charge (OIC)
  187. How many Airmen make up the color guard?
  188. Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)?
    Competent medical authority
  189. What should you do when remains arrive at the mortuary affairs collection point (MACP) without a death certificate?
    Call a competent medical authority to pronounce death
  190. When can remains be shipped without processing?
    Only when an aircraft leaving within two hours
  191. At what base do port mortuary Services specialty teams receive remains?
  192. Who grants permission for temporary interment?
    Geographic combatant commander
  193. Who determines what equipment is available on station that is adequate to the task, given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site
    Base civil engineer
  194. What are the normal dimensions for a temporary interment ant site?
    70 feet long, 3 1/2 feet deep, and 3 feet wide, with 3 feet between trenches
  195. What are the normal dimensions for a temporary internment site used for contaminated remains
    80 feet long, 6 1/2 feet deep, and 3 feet wide, with 3 feet between trenches
  196. Who is responsible for planning the opening of trench graves and ensuring the accountability of remains
    On-scene commander
  197. Diring wartime, who manages search and recovery (S&R) operations and tasks members of other organizations and augmentees?
    Services personnel
  198. Who evaluates the performance of the search and recovery team during base-level exercises or training exercises?
    Installation commander
  199. Who coordinates with the civil engineers to determine search areas?
    Searc and recover (S&R) team leader
  200. Who agency provides global positioning systems and/or optical survey equipment and trained personnel to plot remains, personal effects, and aircraft wreckage?
    Civil engineers
  201. What does the use of the letter �E� on a remains tag denote?
    Personal effects
  202. Who determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction?
    The commander
  203. What is one of the newest Air Force traditions
    The Airman's Creed�
  204. What does tradition calls for at all military ceremonies?
  205. Who determines precedence for US officials?
    The President of the United States
  206. Who maintains the official precedence list used by all agencies and departments of the Federal Government?
    There is no offical precedence
  207. What is the first factor when determining precedence among officers on active duty?
  208. What is NOT a reason to break precedence when planning seating for an event
    Placing the host and distingused guest(s) where they can be seen by the dinner staff
  209. Who sits to the right of the hostess (or host at an all male event)?
    The most senior guest
  210. What are receiving lines frequently used for in the Air Force?
    Greet a new commander and spouse
  211. What is used to follow up a telephone invitation?
    Written "to remind" invitation
  212. In a deployed situation who does the protocol officer works for?
    The wing commander
  213. What are protocol authorizations for the deployed unit based on?
    Distinguished visitor visits
  214. What may cause a distinguished visitor (DV) visit to be postponed or canceled?
    Force protection condition (FPCON)
  215. What are funds from the government and given from Congress?
    Appropriated funds (APF)
  216. What is the spending limit for mementos when authorized from nonappropriated funds (NAF) special morale and welfare (SM&W) expenditures?
  217. What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs Gifts to the Department of the Air Force
    AFI 51-601
  218. What is the most embedded items in the military culture?
  219. The place of honor in Air Force official ceremonies is on the
  220. When flight line access is permitted, vehicles should approach an aircraft on the
    left side of the aircraft from the rear
  221. Why do you send out invitations early for a military ceremony?
    to allow sufficient time to R.S.V.P.
  222. What is the primary rule regarding government vehicles?
    for official business only
Card Set
3M071B CDC TEST. All 3 books together