3M071B Vol. 3

  1. Which publication provides more detailed guidance for near-term support forces to aid Air Force planners in developing war and contingency plans?
    War and Mobilization Plan 1 functional supplements
  2. Which publication delineates the doctrinal concept, its broad policies, and planning guidance for worldwide Air Force Services combat support throughout the spectrum of conflict?
    Services Supplement to the War and Mobilization Plan 1
  3. Where will limiting factors (LIMFAC) to assess the ability to support the operation be found?
    The IGESP part 2
  4. Who ensures that all units operating out of a location become familiar with the existing resource allocations and key tactics, techniques, and procedures that their unit may be tasked with?
    The in-garrison expeditionary support planning comittee (IGESP)
  5. What must Services functions using automated systems in peacetime be able to convert to in wartime?
    Field automation methods of operation
  6. Who has administrative control when Air Force Services personnel are assigned to a jointly manned activity?
    The parent service
  7. Who operates collocated and austere bare base operations during wartime?
    The same personnel who operate from fixed facilities during peacetime
  8. Who helps erect dining, lodging, recreation and fitness, field exchange, morturary, and laundry facilities?
    Civil engineers
  9. What is Services’ first priority during wartime combat support?
    Strategic offensive and defensive missions
  10. In a wartime environment, when will levels of service be increased commensurate with quality of life programs where possible?
    After M+30
  11. What critical information does the time-phased force development data (TPFDD) contain?
    Time-phased force data
  12. What does the standard AF unit line number (ULN) consist of?
    Force requirement number (FRN) and a two-character fragmentation code 
  13. Why would a force requirement require more than one time-phased force development data (TPFDD) entry?
    Split sourcing of the requirement
  14. What essential piece of personnel development tasking information is in the deployment requirements manning document (DRMD)?
    Unit line number (ULN)
  15. What cook-to-customer ratio should food service operations maintain?
  16. At collocated operating bases (COB), what document defines if the host base is to provide food, dining facilities, equipment, and mandpower?
    In-garrison expeditionary support plan (IGESP)
  17. What percentage is the estimated feeding rate that all ration computation are based on?
  18. By what day in your food service operation should you be able to serve four meals per day, and integrate fresh foods into your menus?
  19. The unit deployment manager (UDM) ensures the squadron’s readiness through the
    Services commander and their leadership
  20. How many tiers make up home station training (HST)?
  21. What is the minimum percentage of personnel on the RFSR1, RFSRB, and RFLO6 teams that need to be trained on the operation of 2 ½ ton truck, 1 ½ ton truck, and 10K forklift?
  22. How many days prior to deployment are deployable unit type codes (UTC) required to attend services combat training (SCT)?
  23. When must commanders new to the Services career field attend services combat training (SCT)?
    Within six months
  24. What is the single automated reporting system within the Department of Defense (DOD), functioning as the central registry of all operational units of the US Armed Forces and certain foreign organizations
    Status of resources and traning system
  25. What is a fundamental premise of status of resource and training system (SORTS)?
  26. What type of unit type code (UTC) marries up with other UTCs to increase capabilities
    Follow-on UTC
  27. Within how many hours notice must the RFSR7 unit type code (UTC) for active forces be capable of deploying
  28. Which Force module sets are being phased out?
    Harvest Eagle & Harvest Falcon
  29. What concept improves the overall Air Force combat capability by providing a consistent, coherent, and readily identifiable force structure to deliver combat support?
    Force module unit type code (FM UTC)
  30. How many force modules (FM) does the FM concept employ?
  31. Which force module contains functional management teams to support the emergency operations center (EOC) and to plan services beddown and mission establishment and sustainment?
    Command and control (C2)
  32. Which force module includes unity type codes (UTC) that bring the beddown to initial operational capability and Services life-sustaining functions of food service, lodging, laundry and mortuary affairs?
    Establish the base
  33. Which force module introduces quality-of-life programs such as fitness, recreation, and field exchange support?
    Operate the base
  34. How often does the war fighting requirements review (WFRR) meet?
  35. To whom does the war fighting requirements review (WFRR) working group make recommendations on policy, training, and resource allocation issues?
    Readiness, Training, Education, and Manpower (RTEAM)
  36. In continental United States (CONUS), how many copies of a certified state death certificate are provided to the person authorized direct disposition (PADD)?
  37. For active duty members, how many escorts will accompany the remains from the shipping facility final destination when the two places are NOT located in the same locale?
  38. Who furnishes an appropriate government headstone or marker at the expense of the US for the grave of a member?
    Veteran Affairs
  39. Under what program are eligible personnel provided with professional mortuary services, and related services during peacetime, contingency, or wartime operations?
    Current death program
  40. What is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?
    Concurrent return program
  41. What program do we only use as a last resort to protect the health and safety of personnel and is only initiated when the tactical situation precludes the return of remains?
    Temporary interment program
  42. What programs are integral parts of the mortuary affairs program?
    The Honor Guard and survivor assistance programs
  43. Why was the family liaison program created?
    To assist the families of the deceased person
  44. Who appoints the family liaison officer (FLO)?
    Installation commander
  45. Who acts as the family’s focal point for direction to various Air Force agencies and others for assistance?
    Family Liasion Officer (FLO)
  46. Who maintains close contact with medical, legal, and mental health, for continued long term assistance to family members?
    Family Liason Officer (FLO)
  47. Who or what overseas assistance provided to families by the family liaison officer (FLO)?
    The Air Force survivor assistance program
  48. According to the Air Force survivor assistance program the information the decedent’s family needs is divided into how many board categories
  49. Air Force appointed escorts are
    Always of equal or higher rank
  50. Which is NOT an authorized way to transport a body?
    Certified defense attache
  51. If feasible, remains must be shipped to the final destination within how many hours after arrival at the port mortuary?
  52. Who opens a new case file and documents pertinent information when notified of an active duty death?
    Mortuary officer
  53. Who determines who has jurisdiction over the remains in case of an active duty death?
    Mortuary officer
  54. Where can you get a template for a mortuary service performance work statement?
    HQ AFSVA mortuary affairs office
  55. What is included in the preaward survey plan for mortuary?
    Facilities, vehicles, and personnel
  56. Which is NOT a responsibility of the MAJCOM/SV?
    Justify and manage the mortuary allotment
  57. Who maintains a government purchase card account to cover primary mortuary expenses for each area of responsibility?
    Each installation mortuary officer
  58. How many times are eligible personnel entitled to military funeral honors?
  59. Who ensures that eligible personnel entitled to military funeral honors are only receiving honors once?
    The honor guard officer in charge (OIC) performing the honors
  60. How many members of the funeral honors detail must be active duty members of the armed services?
  61. Who may waive the requirement to provide honors, if it is necessary due to requirements of war, national emergency, contingency operations, or other military requirement?
    Services commander
  62. Who should NOT be contacted if an Air force base Honor Guard cannot support a funeral honors request?
    Department of Veterans Affairs
  63. When can a funeral honors detail for active duty personnel authorized be reduced to the minimum honors allowed by the law?
    Member is accused of a felony and dies before outcome
  64. Who is in charge of the overall performance and the discipline, appearance, and competence of honor guard members?
    Officer in charge (OIC)
  65. How many Airmen make up the color guard?
  66. Who is required to declare death at the casualty collection point (CCP)?
    Competent medical authority
  67. What should you do when remains arrive at the mortuary affairs collection point (MACP) without a death certificate?
    Call a competent medical authority to pronounce death
  68. When can remains be shipped without processing?
    Only when an aircraft leaving within two hours
  69. At what base do port mortuary Services specialty teams receive remains?
  70. Who grants permission for temporary interment?
    Geographic combatant commander
  71. Who determines what equipment is available on station that is adequate to the task, given the types of soil and local conditions for the temporary interment site
    Base civil engineer
  72. What are the normal dimensions for a temporary interment ant site?
    70 feet long, 3 1/2 feet deep, and 3 feet wide, with 3 feet between trenches
  73. What are the normal dimensions for a temporary internment site used for contaminated remains
    80 feet long, 6 1/2 feet deep, and 3 feet wide, with 3 feet between trenches
  74. Who is responsible for planning the opening of trench graves and ensuring the accountability of remains
    On-scene commander
  75. Diring wartime, who manages search and recovery (S&R) operations and tasks members of other organizations and augmentees?
    Services personnel
  76. Who evaluates the performance of the search and recovery team during base-level exercises or training exercises?
    Installation commander
  77. Who coordinates with the civil engineers to determine search areas?
    Searc and recover (S&R) team leader
  78. Who agency provides global positioning systems and/or optical survey equipment and trained personnel to plot remains, personal effects, and aircraft wreckage?
    Civil engineers
  79. What does the use of the letter “E” on a remains tag denote?
    Personal effects
  80. Who determines the distinguished visitor (DV) distinction?
    The commander
  81. What is one of the newest Air Force traditions
    The Airman's Creed 
  82. What does tradition calls for at all military ceremonies?
  83. Who determines precedence for US officials?
    The President of the United States
  84. Who maintains the official precedence list used by all agencies and departments of the Federal Government?
    There is no offical precedence
  85. What is the first factor when determining precedence among officers on active duty?
  86. What is NOT a reason to break precedence when planning seating for an event
    Placing the host and distingused guest(s) where they can be seen by the dinner staff
  87. Who sits to the right of the hostess (or host at an all male event)?
    The most senior guest
  88. What are receiving lines frequently used for in the Air Force?
    Greet a new commander and spouse
  89. What is used to follow up a telephone invitation?
    Written "to remind" invitation
  90. In a deployed situation who does the protocol officer works for?
    The wing commander
  91. What are protocol authorizations for the deployed unit based on?
    Distinguished visitor visits
  92. What may cause a distinguished visitor (DV) visit to be postponed or canceled?
    Force protection condition (FPCON)
  93. What are funds from the government and given from Congress?
    Appropriated funds (APF)
  94. What is the spending limit for mementos when authorized from nonappropriated funds (NAF) special morale and welfare (SM&W) expenditures?
  95. What Air Force instruction (AFI) governs Gifts to the Department of the Air Force
    AFI 51-601
  96. What is the most embedded items in the military culture?
  97. The place of honor in Air Force official ceremonies is on the
  98. When flight line access is permitted, vehicles should approach an aircraft on the
    left side of the aircraft from the rear
  99. Why do you send out invitations early for a military ceremony?
    to allow sufficient time to R.S.V.P.
  100. What is the primary rule regarding government vehicles?
    for official business only
Card Set
3M071B Vol. 3
3M071B Vol. 3 CDC