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  1. The Flight Management part of the FMGEC includes the following elements :

    A. Navigation, flight planning and A/THR commands.
    B. Performance optimization, A/THR and AP commands.
    C. Navigation, flight planning, performance optimization and flight predictions.
    D. AP and FD commands and flight envelope computation.
  2. You are in cruise at FL330 and have on the FCU under the speed window the numbers 280. You can say that :

    A. The SPD pb has been pushed and the speed is selected.
    B. The HDG is selected by the pilot.
    C. The SPD and HDG pbs have been pushed.
    D. The SPD pb has been pulled and the speed is selected.
  3. In the second line on the FMA, What does it mean the ALT mode status in magenta color ?

    A. ALT is in active mode in armed mode
    B. ALT is in armed mode with a constraint on the FMGES.
    C. ALT is in armed mode with the altitude selected by the pilot.
  4. The aircraft is heavy. The thrust delivered by A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust (needle to the blue circle on the thrust gage). Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?

    A. No because the A/THR already delivers the maximum available thrust.
    B. Yes, by setting a higher speed target.
    C. Yes, by moving the thrust levers forward from the CLB detent.
  5. How can clear a discontinuity in your F-PLN ?

    A. Push the clear pb.
    B. Overwrite the discontinuity with the next waypoint.
    C. Push the clear pb and the associated LSK pb.
  6. ATC cleared you to FL 150. The PF set the new altitude on the FCU. What will happen if he pulls the ALT selection knob knowing the there is a ALT constraint at FL 60 in the FLT PLN ? 

    A. The aircraft will stop the climb at FL 60,  pass the constraint and then continue  to climb to FL 150
    B. The aircraft will disregard the constraint and climb to FL 150.
    C. The aircraft will level off at FL 60, the PF has to pull the ALT selection knob a  second time to climb to FL 150
  7. ATC cleared you to FL 150. What selections should you make to ensure that the aircraft complies with the lower constraints at FL 60 ? 

    A. Dial in the new cleared level FL 150 and push the ALT control knob.
    B. Dial in the new cleared level FL 150 and pull the ALT control knob.
    C. Pull the HDG control knob and then dial in the new cleared level FL 150 and pull the ALT control knob
  8. With regards to the SRS mode, during the takeoff phase :

    A. SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference up to the acceleration altitude.
    B. SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft AGL.
    C. SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.
  9. The FMA displays -FD2 in white in the fifth column :

    A. FD1 is not engaged
    B. FD1 has failed.
    C. FD1 has been replaced by FD2.
  10. An AP can be disengaged by :
    - using the AP take-over pb of a side stick,
    - using the AP pb in the FCU,
    - moving a side stick or a rudder pedal beyond a given threshold.

    A. True
    B. False
  11. You are flying  an approach in good weather and decide to fly the aircraft manually. After disconnecting the autopilot, what standard technique should you use to disconnect the A/THR?

    A. Press the instinctive disconnect button then retard THRUST LEVERS to match the required thrust. Cancel any CAUTION
    B. Press the instinctive disconnect button then retard THRUST LEVERS to match the required thrust. Press the A/THR pb
    C. Retard the THRUST LEVERS to match current thrust then press the instinctive disconnect button. Cancel any CAUTION
    D. Retard the THRUST LEVERS to match current thrust then press the instinctive disconnect button. Return THRUST LEVERs to CLB detent.  
  12. Selected HDG is active on an intercept heading. What happens if the HDG selector knob is pushed?

    A. The aircraft will fly to the next waypoint on the original F-PLN.
    B. The aircraft will continue on heading until intercepting the original F-PLN.
    C. The aircraft will continue on the selected HDG/TRK.
    D. The selection changes from HDG to TRK. 
  13. When A/THR is active, thrust levers :

    A. Move by themselves according to thrust demands.
    B. Move only when pilot moves them.
    C. It's impossible to move thrust levers, because A/THR is active.
  14. You can disengage the AP by :

    A. Moving the sidestick or extending the flaps.
    B. Moving the thrust levers or using the speed brakes.
    C. Pushing the Take Over p/b on the sidestick, pushing again the AP p/b on the FCU,
    or overriding the rudder pedals on ground only.
  15. To display localizer and glide slope indications on the PFD, you need to :

    A. Press the APPR p/b on the FCU.
    B. Press the LS p/b on the EFIS control panel.
    C. Press the LOC pushbutton on the FCU.
  16. To level off immediately, you should :

    A. Push the altitude selector knob.
    B. Push the ALT p/b on the FCU.
    C. Pull the altitude selector knob.
  17. To switch from speed to Mach on FCU, you need to :

    A. Push the speed knob.
    B. Push the Speed/Mach p/b.
    C. Push the HDG-V/S / TRK-FPA p/b.
  18. Select the correct statement regarding the FMA :

    A. Green display an active mode.
    B. Amber display an armed mode.
    C. Amber is use for messages requiring special attention.
  19. MCDU failures are :

    A. Announced through the ECAM system.
    B. Self contained and reflected via announciators on the unit itself.
    C. Displayed as messages on the scratch pad line only.
  20. Select the true statement regarding the FMA :

    A. Green diplay an active mode and white diplay an engaged system.
    B. Cyan diplay an active mode armed.
    C. White diplay an armed mode.
  21. Fail annunciator is lighted on the left bottom side of the MCDU 2, MCDU 3 could be used :

    A. By using a switch on pedestal.
    B. By switching off the brightness knob on MCDU 2.
    C. Automaticaly as soon as MCDU 2 has failed.
  22. The A 330 thrust levers are not only used to supply thrust but also send input to the FMGEC :

    A. For extension and retraction of the landing gear.
    B. To command particular autoflight modes.
    C. To add back pressure to the sidestick.
  23. If requested information such as GW, CRZ FL, and COST INDEX are not set :

    A. The FMGEC managed speed is not available.
    B. You cannot select a speed on the FCU.
    C. The FMGEC cannot provide guidance commands.
  24. The flight management part of the FMGEC :

    A. Automatically extends flaps and slats when normally needed.
    B. Predicts time speed, altitude, and fuel along the flight plan.
    C. Will display a warning if you select an off course heading.
  25. On the MCDU, the PERF FACTOR is :

    A. Modifiable by the crew.
    B. Same as cost index.
    C. Accessible for the maintenance on status page.
  26. The NAV DATA BASE :

    A. Has to be loaded every AIRAC cycle.
    B. Can be changed in flight if needed without any effect.
    C. Change automatically at every AIRAC cycle.
  27. The PERF DATA BASE :

    A. Must be updated every 28 days.
    B. Is really accessible by the crew.
    C. Can only be modified by the manufacturer.
  28. In normal operation, interfacing with the FMGEC is carried out by :

    A. All three MCDU.
    B. MCDU 1and 3 while number 2 is used for data entries only.
    C. MCDU 1 and 2 while the third MCDU is used for other functions.
  29. On the MCDU screen, INDEPENDANT OPERATION is displayed in amber and IND amber on the upper part, according to these indications :

    A. MCDU entries need to be made independently on each MCDU.
    B. MCDU entries can be made only on MCDU 1.
    C. You need to select " both on 1 " on the FM switching panel.
  30. On the MCDU screen, PLEASE WAIT is displayed, according to these indications :

    A. The MCDU went into independant operation.
    B. One FMGC has failed and the pilot should select FMGC 3.
    C. A re-synchronization is in progress. The pilot should not use the MCDU until this message disappear.
  31. On the MCDU upper part, FM 1 amber annunciator is lighted, on the STATUS PAGE, you have INOP " FM1 AP1 ", the FM switching button is in " both on 2 " position ; according to these indications :

    A. You need to turn off MCDU 1 in order to activate MCDU 3.
    B. The aircraft can no longer auto-tune navaids.
    C. Either MCDU 1 or 2 can be used to select or enter data.
  32. MCDU 3 is a stand -by unit able to replacing MCDU one or two :

    A. Anytime MCDU 1 or 2 is switched to off, failed or not.
    B. Only when MCDU 1 or 2 has failure and then switched Off.
    C. Automatically when MCDU 1 or 2 fails.
  33. To select BACK-UP NAV on the MCDU :

    A. Set the FM switching panel " BOTH ON 2 ".
    B. Set your mode selector switch on the IRS panel to off.
    C. Select the BACK-UP NAV function on the MCDU menu page.
  34. According to the MCDU POSITION MONITOR page, the RADIO, and MIX IRS positions are slightly different. This is because :

    A. The FMGEC is malfunctionning.
    B. The positions are calculated by the FMGEC, by using a blend of IRS position and RADIO position.
    C. The IRS positionning is not accurate without a current update.
  35. The MIX IRS position is :

    A. The FMGEC position and the radio position averaged together.
    B. An average of the bias and the radio position.
    C. The average of the IRS 1, IRS 2 and IRS 3 positions.
  36. In normal operation, to insert the latitude and the longitude of the departure airport into the 3 IRS, the pilot should :

    A. Type this data into the IRS keypad on the overhead panel.
    B. Depress the line select key next to the amber " ALIGN IRS " prompt.
    C. Start a short IRS realignement using the IR rotary selector.
  37. During descent FMA indicates :
    Pilot has to follow radar heading, when pulling the HDG pb on FCU, FMA indicates :

    A. SPEED  /  V/S xxx / HDG /  BLANK  / AP1
  38. On the MCDU upper part, FM 1 amber annunciator is lighted, so FM 1 has failed. Therefore :

    A. Autotuning of the " 1 " navaids (VOR1, DME 1, ILS 1, ADF 1) is not possible.
    B. Autotuning of radio navaids is not possible.
    C. Autotuning of all radio navaids is still available
  39. In order to manually tune the VOR on RMP, the pilot must :

    A. Deselect VHF on his RMP.
    B. Press the VOR p/b.
    C. Press the NAV p/b and then press the VOR p/b.
  40. In order to provide the ECON speed for cruise flight, the pilot must :

    A. Provide the GROSS WEIGHT and the COST INDEX.
    B. Provide the GROSS WEIGHT and the CENTER of GRAVITY.
  41. AP engaged in ALT CRZ mode, ATHR soft mode consist to :

    A. Maintain accurately the altitude and the speed +/- 3 kt.
    B. Maintain the altitude +/- 50 ft and precisely the speed.
    C. Maintain the altitude +/- 50 ft and the speed +/- 4 kt.
  42. The flight guidance performs :
    A. The AP function, the FD function and the A/THR function.
    B. Only the FD and cross track information.
    C. The flight enveloppe computation and flight path control.
  43. The FLIGHT GUIDANCE function displays information on :

    A. PFD - ND and ECAM displays.
    B. ECAM and FCU.
    C. FD - FCU and ECAM.
  44. The AP function :

    A. Is lost in case of both FM failure.
    B. Remains available in case of both FM failure.
    C. Remains available in case of both FG failure.
  45. In cruise, the FCU shows 300 on the SPD window and --- on the HDG window :

    A. Speed and lateral guidance to the AP is managed.
    B. Speed guidance is selected, lateral guidance is managed.
    C. Speed and lateral guidance to the AP are both selected.
  46. In cruise, the FCU shows 300 on the SPD window and 145 on the HDG window :

    A. Speed and lateral guidance to the AP is managed.
    B. Speed guidance is selected, lateral guidance is managed.
    C. Speed and lateral guidance to the AP are both selected.
  47. The FMA indicates in the first column SPEED in green and A/THR in white in the fifth column. The A/THR is :

    A. Active.
    B. Armed and not active.
    C. Disconnected and not armed.
  48. The FE part performs GW and CG calculations. These calculation are used :

    A. As back-up in case of dual FCMC failure to trigger after CG warning.
    B. To compare with crew entry.
    C. For display only on the ECAM page.
  49. The crew entry of the ZFW and the CG is :

    A. Mandatory on INIT B or FUEL PRED pages.
    B. Not necessary because defaulted on ground by the WBS.
    C. Not necessary because these informations are sent by FCMC.
  50. When performing an autoland, the red AUTO LAND flashing light means :

    A. Autoland status confirmed.
    B. Autoland must be engaged.
    C. The pilot must execute a GO AROUND.
  51. In case of FMGEC failure, the Flight Director :

    A. Is lost.
    B. Is transfered to the other FMGEC by pushing the F/D p/b Off then On.
    C. Is automaticaly transfered to the other FMGEC.
  52. During take off, the RUNWAY MODE makes you :

    A. Follow the runway heading.
    B. Keep the LOC axis.
    C. Follow the track of the runway.
  53. The ROLL OUT mode make you keep the heading of the runway and :

    A. You read ROLL OUT green on FMA.
    B. This mode uses the LOC signal to guide the aircraft on the runway center line.
    C. Both answers are correct.
  54. Performing a manual ILS approach (AP off, FD ATHR On), the thrust reduction on landing :

    A. Is manually performed.
    B. Is always automatic.
    C. Is automatic with A/THR On.
  55. During landing, the IDLE MODE of the A/THR reduce thrust :

    A. When A/THR is engaged.
    B. Always during ILS approach.
    C. Only during autoland procedure.

    A. Is selected by pushing or pulling the SPD/MACH p/b, HDG/TRACK p/b on FCU.
    B. Is always automatically selected by FMGEC.
    C. Depends on pilot's action :
    - the Managed Mode is activated when flying under AP
    - the Selected Mode is activate when flying manually.
  57. During ILS approach with FD On, when losing the GLIDE signal under LAND MODE, the FD pitch bar :

    A. Flashes, then remains steady.
    B. Disapears.
    C. Remains steady.
  58. 528. During ILS approach with FD On, when losing the LOC signal under LAND MODE, the FD roll bar :

    A. Disapears.
    B. Flashes, then remains steady.
    C. Remains steady.
  59. During normal operation, both FMGEC are working :

    A. One master, one slave.
    B. One is on active mode, the other is on stand-by mode.
    C. On independent mode.
  60. You can engage AP :

    A. At 100 ft and at least 5 seconds after lift-off.
    B. As soon as one FD is engaged.
    C. At 160 ft.
  61. You can engage both AP :

    A. Anytime during flight.
    B. Only when LOC and G/S are engaged or armed or GO AROUND engaged.
    C. As soon as the NAV MODE is engaged, on ground, engines running.
  62. During approach, the FMGEC target speed is :

    A. Vapp + 5 kt.
    B. GS mini + real wind effect (ADIRS).
    C. VLS + 5 + wind effect inserted on MCDU.
  63. The ALT mode is engaged :

    A. When reaching the altitude selected on FCU.
    B. By pushing the ALT p/b.
    C. Both answers are correct.
  64. During descent, V/S mode has been activated with AP/FD/ATHR On; with selected speed on FCU, the target of AP is :

    A. V/S.
    B. Selected speed.
    C. V/S if less than 1000ft/mn.
  65. Flying under NAV MODE, the airplane is reaching a flight plan discontinuity :

    A. Lateral guidance reverts to HDG.
    B. The AP is disconnected with alarms.
    C. The next WPT will be the next flight plan WPT inserted on MCDU.
  66. During take off, to leave SRS MODE :

    A. You have to reach the inserted acceleration altitude on MCDU.
    B. You have to select speed.
    C. Both answers are correct.
  67. During approach (AP/FD ON), the APPR p/b is green on FCU :

    A. FD intercept LOC then G/S.
    B. AP intercept LOC then G/S.
    C. Both answers are correct.
  68. Below 400 ft during ILS approach, LAND MODE :

    A. Could be disengaged by pulling HDG/TRK p/b.
    B. Could be disengaged only by performing a GO AROUND procedure.
    C. Could be disengaged by pushing APPR p/b.
  69. In flight A/THR On, you set the thrust lever to IDLE detent then to CL detent :

    A. A/THR remains active and thrust is selected to CLIMB.
    B. A/THR remains active and controls speed.
    C. A/THR is disengaged and thrust is selected to CLIMB.
  70. In flight, A/THR On, thrust levers in CL detent, pilot disconnects A/THR by pushing
    the A/THR p/b on FCU :

    A. Thrust remains locked and "THR LK" flashes in the FMA.
    B. Thrust increses slowly to CL.
    C. Thrust increases rapidly to CL.
  71. In flight A/THR On, thrust levers between CL detent and MCT detent, pilot disconnects A/THR by FCU p/b or A/THR failure occures :

    A. Thrust is slowly increasing to CL.
    B. Thrust is increasing to thrust corresponding to levers position.
    C. Thrust is locked.
  72. A/THR is armed :

    A. When taking off by setting levers to FLX/MCT or TO/GA detent.
    B. Manually by pushing A/THR p/b on FCU.
    C. Both anwers are true.
  73. When flying with one engine out, A/THR is active between :

    A. IDLE-TO/GA.
    C. IDLE-CL.
  74. Alpha Floor protection is available :

    A. A/THR engaged or not engaged in any thrust levers positions.
    B. A/THR active only.
    C. Only if A/THR p/b has been set on FCU.
  75. LVR ASYM on FMA means :

    A. Thrust is asymetric.
    B. Only one thrust lever is set to FLEX/MCT or CL detent.
    C. Abnormal lateral acceleration is detected by ADIRS.
  76. To check accuracy of FMS navigation :

    A. Each Pilot has to compare VOR/DME position and BRG/DIST to this VOR on PROG MCDU page.
    B. Each Pilot has to compare WPT BRG/DIST on PROG MCDU page and NEXT WPT on upper right side on ND.
    C. Both answers are true.
  77. The target speed on PFD is blue when :

    A. Speed is managed by FMGS.
    B. Speed is selected by pilot.
    C. Speed is not selectable.
  78. On FMA, pilot can read on the fifth column 1FD-. That's mean :

    A. FD 2 is not set.
    B. FD 1 has failed.
    C. FD 2 has failed.
  79. By pushing the APPR p/b on FCU, pilot :

    A. Switches on the approach mode when performing ILS.
    B. Switches on the approach phase.
    C. Reduces speed to approach speed automatically.
  80. When A/THR is active, by pushing the A/THR p/b on thrust levers :

    A. Thrust lock mode is activated.
    B. TO GA LOCK mode is activated.
    C. N1 is increasing or decreasing to thrust corresponding to thrust levers angle.
  81. During descent under OPEN DES mode, pilot selects altitude greater than aircraft altitude :

    A. Vertical mode switches to V/S (present V/S of aircraft).
    B. Vertical mode switches to OP CLB.
    C. Vertical mode remains OPEN DES.
  82. Below 300 ft LAND mode is active, pilot disconnects AP, FMA becomes :

  83. After take off, NAV mode engaged, CLB mode becomes active :

    A. At thrust acceleration altitude (THR ACC).
    B. At thrust reduction altitude (THR RED).
    C. By pushing ALT p/b.
  84. After start up, to update weight, pilot uses :

    A. INIT B page on MCDU.
    B. PROGRESS page on MCDU.
    C. FUEL PRED page on MCDU.
  85. DECEL point is :

    A. Top of descent point.
    B. Calculated point of deceleration to get VAPP at 1000 ft.
    C. Start of deceleration to satisfy Speed limit.
  86. If approach phase is activated and confirmed on PERF page :

    A. Speed is reducing to 250 kt.
    B. ILS capture mode is engaged.
    C. Speed is reducing to Green Dot if managed.
  87. Using " Update function " on PROG page, pilot can modify :

    A. MIX IRS.
    B. Hour.
    C. FMGS position.
  88. SPD CSTR is a constraint associated to :

    A. An altitude.
    B. A waypoint.
    C. A constraint inserted manually on PERF page.
  89. The FMA indicates : THR IDLE, DES, NAV and vertical deviation is (VDEV = +500 ft). Pilot wants to increase the rate of descent :

    A. Pilot selects Full speed brakes.
    B. Pilot selects higher speed than present speed, then 1/2 speed brakes if necessary.
    C. Pilot switches from DES to OPEN DES.
  90. What are the Autopilot functions?

    A. Automatic landing and go around.
    B. Stabilization of the aircraft around its center of gravity.
    C. Acquisition and tracking of a flight path.
    D. All of the above.
  91. A/THR in white means that A/THR is:

    A. Disconnected.
    B. Armed.
    C. Active
  92. What is the difference between -FD2 and 2FD- on the FMA?

    A. 1 inop, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 off.
    B. 1 off, 2 engaged. 2 engaged, 1 inop.
  93. Can the autopilot be used for a single engine approach and autoland?

    A. Yes.
    B. No.
  94. During the takeoff phase:

    A. SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference
    B. SRS mode is available up to 1500 ft.
    C. SRS mode will not engage if TOGA is selected.
  95. On an autoland approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?

    A. FMGC 1
    B. FMGC 2
    C. Both
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