DCFD SOP

  1.  What procedure is done daily on the Q-Rae
    Fresh air calibration
  2. SCBA's shall be worn when:
    Any time personnel are working in or around possible or suspected hazardous/toxic gases or atmospheres
  3. SCBA's shall be worn continuously until
    Personnel are removed from the hazardous/toxic gases or atmospheres
  4. All personnel shall recieve training on the correct methods for donning and opperating SCBA's within:
    two weeks of being hired and before being placed on  shift.
  5. Re-occurring training shall take place through out the year:
    as deemed necessary by the training officer and or Shift Captain
  6. What are the seven steps in checking out the multi gas detector?
    • 1. remove from case
    • 2. inspect for physical damage
    • 3. turn unit on in safe well ventilated clean environment
    • 4. let unit warm up for 5 min
    • 5. Oxygen level should read 20.9 and all sensors should read zero
    • 6. perform fresh air calibration
    • 7. turn off unit and replace in case
    • (if unit does not function properly report deficiency to supervisor and log in daily checkout sheet)
  7. How often will personnel recieve training in use of the multi gas detector?
    • 1. Within 90 days of being hired.
    • 2. Annually by training officer/shift captain
    • 3. Quarterly updates and in-services. (to be signed by shift captains and maintained by training officer)
  8. How long will records be maintained on the multi gas detector useage and maintenace.
    two years
  9. define: interior structural firefighting
    physical activity of fire suppression inside of a burning building or enclosed structures which are involved in a fire situation beyond the incipient stage
  10. define: Incipient stage
    means a fire which is in the initial stage and which can be controlled or extinguished by portable fire extinguisher, class II standpipe or small hose system without the need for protective clothing or breathing apparatus
  11. What is IDLH?
    Immediately dangerous to life and health.  (any structural fire beyond the incipient stage)
  12. Define: Imminent danger
    a hazard that could cause death or serious physical harm immediately, or before the danger can be eliminated through normal enforcement procedures
  13. OSHA's 29 CFR 1910 and 1926 addressed what?
    two in/two out
  14. two in/two out shall be applied when?
    at any fire that is beyond the incipient stage
  15. Interior attack is to be undertaken only after what?
    only after sufficient personnel are assembled consisting of a 2 person attack team using the buddy method, and a RIT of at least 2 members
  16. RIT members must remain
    outside the IDLH atmosphere in standby mode.
  17. RIT members must have proper equipment:
    readily available to conduct a rescue of the attack team if needed.
  18. A member of the RIT may be incident commander or safety officer true or false?
    true.  After initial size up if more personnel havent arrived the incident comander will don a SCBA and perform rescue if necessary.
  19. The pump operator may be considered part of the RIT true or false?
    False.  The pump operator's main responsibility will be to ensure the proper operation of the pump
  20. The pump operator may temporarily assume the role of incident comander true or false?
    True.  If the incident comander is required to perform rescue as part of the RIT.
  21. True or false.  Unlocks will be performed while the vehicle is running.
    True.  If the vehicle is running in a confined space.
  22. True or false.  On days the fire dept is notified of an Ozone Alert hydrant testing will be postponed
    true
  23. The incident commander shall request that the gas company respond to the scene of a carbon monoxide response if the following conditions are met.
    • 1. A CO level of over 9ppm
    • 2. An appliance is turned off by the fire dept
    • 3. Someone is showing signs of being ill due to CO
    • 4. The IC feels the gas company should be notified   
  24. For nighttime opperations turn off fire apparatus _______ and ________. This will help reduce the blinding effect to approaching vehicle traffic.  Other emergency lighting should be reduced to yellow lights and emergency flashers when possible
    headlights, wig wag lights
  25. True or false.  When an emt encounters a situation where they cannot arouse anyone at the scene, it is necessary for a police officer to be on scene while forcible entry is being performed.
    false.  Police will be summoned but are not required to be on scene to begin forcible entry.
  26. Type of priming oil for L-1
    water
  27. Type of primer oil for E-3
    10w30 oil
  28. Type of priming oil for E-2
    propalene glycol
  29. Running an engine higher than _____ rpm during priming is not recommended
    1200
  30. Never prime a pump longer than _____
    30 seconds
  31. Pto must be at less than ______ rpm before being engaged
    1000
  32. Four things that influence a fire stream
    Velocity Gravity Friction and Wind
  33. How many gallons of water must a apparatus have to be considered a pumer
    500 gallons
  34. What does NFPA 1901 cover?
    Automotive Fire Apparatus
  35. What is the first tactical priority on all fires?
    Life Safety
  36. What do ornamental stars on the outside of building mean?
    It shows a building in a deteriorating state
  37. How does one prevent kinks in hose?
    two full twists
  38. What is tandem pumping?
    two apparatus in a line pumping
  39. What does duel pumping involve?
    two apparatus pumping off a hydrant
  40. Atmospheric pressure ________ ____ for every 1000 ft.
    decreases .5 psi
  41. What is the pressure loss for master stream devices?
    25 psi
  42. What are the three steps and times for pumper service testing?
    • 100%  150 psi  for 20 min
    • 70%    200 psi for 10 min
    • 50%    250 psi for 10 min
  43. List the 12 command responsibilities
    • A assume effective command
    • R rapidly evaluated the situation
    • T transmit brief initial radio report
    • D develop a plan of attack
    • A assign units as required
    • A assume/delegate role of safety officer
    • A accountability guidelines
    • P provide continuing command of progress reports
    • A assign tactical objective
    • R review and evaluated attack efforts
    • R request additional units as needed
    • P provide orderly return to service
  44. If L-1 does not start within ____ sec allow motor to cool for ____ before restarting
    15 seconds, 1 minute
  45. Position L-1 aerial device ____ above structure
    6 to 12 inches
  46. L-1 aerial must be raised ____ before tilting the cab.
    20 degrees
  47. The vertical height of aerial is _____.  The horizontal reach is _____.
    75 feet, 67.8 feet.
  48. L-1 outriggers are mounted under the frame with a ____ ground clearance.
    14 foot.
  49. L-1 aerial sections are base____, mid ____, fly ____
    27.7 feet, 27.5 feet, 30.11 feet.
  50. L-1 monitor nozzle has a max vertical travel of ____ and a horizontal travel of ______.
    135 degrees, 90 degrees.
  51. Bring L-1aerial to _____ psi to maintain 1000 gpm
    90
  52. L-1 hydrolic system includes the following four items.
    • 52gallon resovoir
    • suction strainer
    • pressure filter
    • return filter
  53. L-1 turntableplatform diameter is ____ with a _____ thickness
    96 inches, 3/8 inch
  54. L-1 has __________ to supply hydrolic flow to prevent catastrophic malfuctions of engine or hydrolic pump.
    dual electric 12 volt pumps
  55. Before pinning L-1 waterway to its alternate position, waterway must be ____  ladder _____ and aerial at ____ elevation.
    drained, retracted, 0 degrees.
  56. True or false, never unlock water way pin when L-1 aerial waterway is in use.
    True
  57. Running L-1 engine at higher than _____ rpm during priming is not recommended.
    1200
  58. L-1 pump should not be primed longer than ____ seconds
    30
  59. The pump cooler _______ water through a ___ line from the tank to the pump.
    recirculates, 1/4 inch.
  60. L-1 is a ______ gpm pumper with a ____ gallon water tank.
    1500, 500
  61. Under ideal conditions L-1 master intake should not be below ____
    5 psi
  62. How much supply hose is on L-1?
    • 500 feet of 3 inch
    • 1200 feet of 4 inch
  63. How much hose is on E-2?
    • 300 1 3/4 attack lines + 150 1 3/4 in compartments 450 total.
    • 600 3' supply
  64. What activities are not allowed on Ozone alert days?
    • Burns Permits
    • Lawn Maintenance
    • Outdoor Training
    • Hydrant Testing

    Only fuel in the morning or evening
  65. Does an 80 gal LPG tank require a permit?
    No.
  66. All hydrants must have a ____ inch steamer, and _____ inch male couplings and must flow ______ gpm.
    4 1/2, 2 1/2, 1000.
Author
nolan52
ID
162116
Card Set
DCFD SOP
Description
SOPS INFECTION CONTROL MEMOS
Updated