Name five types of sensory receptors and how they are stimulated.
1. Mechanoreceptors -stimulated by changes is pressure or body movement.
2. thermoreceptors - stimulated by changes in external or internal temperature.
3.Pain receptors - stimulated by damage or oxygen deprivation of tissue.
4. Chemoreceptors - stimulated by changes in chemical concentrations of substances
5. Photoreceptors - stimulated by light changes
What are Propriorecptors?
Mechanoreceptors involved in reflex actions.
What do the Proprioreceptors do?
maintain equilibrium and posture.
Muscle spindles increase the degree of muscle contraction.
Golgi tendon organs decrease the degree of muscle tendon contractions.
What are cutaneous receptors and what do they do?
located in the deepest layers of the epidermis and dermis.
makes skin sensitive to touch, pressure, pain, and temperature.
What three types of receptors are sensitive to fine touch?
Meissner corpuscles
Merkel discs
Root hair plexus
What three types of receptors are senstive to pressure?
Pacinian corpuscles
Raffian endings
Krause end bulbs
What are somatic nociceptors? Where are they located? what do they do?
Somatic nociceptors are pain receptors.
located in skin and skeletal muscle
respond to mechanical, thermal, electrical, or
chemical damage.
What are visceral nociceptors? Where are they located? what do they do?
Visceral nociceptors are pain receptors.
Located in organs.
respond to excessive stretching, oxygen deprivation, or chemicals released by damaged tissues.
What is meant by referred pain?
brains inability to distinguish between pain from somatic pain nociceptors and visceral nociceptors.
Where are taste chemoreceptors located?
Primarily on the tongue.
Also on the hard palate, pharynx, and epiglottis.
What types of taste sensations do we perceive?
Sweet
Sour
bitter
salty
umami (meat)
Where are the receptors for the sense of smell located?
olfactory epithelium in roof of nasal cavity.
What are the functions of the eyebrows?
Shade the eyes from the sun and protect the eyes from perspiration and debris.
What is the function of the eyelids
protect the eye from debris.
What are the functions of sebaceous glands around the eye.
help keep the eye lubricated.
The Superior rectus ______________.
rolls the eye upward.
the inferior rectus _____________.
Rolls the eye downward.
The Lateral rectus ______________
turns the eye outward.
The medial rectus ____________.
turns the eye inward.
The Superior rectus _____________--
rotates the eye counterclockwise.
The Inferior rectus _____________
rotates the eye clockwise.
What is the sclera?
White outer layer of the eye. Becomes the cornea which is transparent.
What is choroid layer.
vascular middle layer of the eye.
becomes the iris toward the front.
regulates the size of the pupil.
colored portion of the eye.
ciliary body behind the iris controls the shape of the lens.
What is the fluid behind the lens?
Aqueous humor
What is the fluid in front of the lens
vitreous humor
What is the retina?
contains photoreceptors.
What are the two kinds of photoreceptors?
Rods and cones
what is the purpose of the rods
see light and dark. Used in night vision and peripheral vision.
What is the purpose of cones?
distinguish colors.
What is the fovea centralis?
area of the retina where the cones are densely packed.
What is the lens and what is its function.
focuses images on the retina.
the image produced is smaller than the object.
is inverted and reversed.
Accomodation. maintaing focus on distant and then near objects
How does the ciliary muscle control the shape of the lens.
relaxes for distant objects
contracts for near objects.
Describe the function of photoreceptors
Rods absorb light and rhodopsin splits into opsin and retinal (light and dark). nerve impulses travel to the visual area of the cerebral cortex.
Color Vision
Depends on three kinds of cones.
What are the functions of the ear.
hearing
equilibrium
balance
The outer ear is also called the ______ and contains the _________
auricle, external auditory canal
The middle ear _______________.
amplifies sound.
The three bones of the middle ear are the _____, _____, and _____
malleus, incus, stapes
The auditory or _________ tube connects the middle ear to the _________
eustachian, throat.
the function of the inner ear is _______ and _________
hearing and equilibrium
The inner ear is made up of
bony labyrinth filled perilymph subdivided into vestibule, semicircular canals, and cochlea.
The receptors for balance in the semicircular canal are called
cristae ampullaris
What is the organ of corti and how does it work
The organ of Corti is respnsible for the sense of hearing. In it are tiny hair cells which are vibrated as the sounds passes through the endolymph creating nerve impulses which are then passed to the brain.
Mechanoreceptors in the semicircular canals are responsible for ____________ equilibrium
rotational
Mechanoreceptors located in the vestibule are responsible for __________ equilibrium.
gravitational
Motion sickness is caused by
continuous movement of fluid within the semicircular canals
sensory input from the inner ear is different from visual sensations.
Vertigo is
dizziness and sense of rotation
The Gravitational Equilibrium Pathway is dependent on
utricle and saccule located in the vestibule.
The saccule is sensitive to
vertical movements.
The utricle is sensitive to
horizontal movements
What is a cataract?
The lens of the eye gets milky or cloudy and becomes hard do to UV light exposure.
Glaucoma is
excessive intraocular pressure.
An astigmatism is
an irregularly shaped lens or cornea.
Otitis media is
ear inflammation caused by infection.
Otosclerosis is
genetic disorder where the stapes is irregularly shaped.
anosmia is
inability to smell odors.
Endocrine glands are _________ glands.
ductless
Endocrine glands secrete ______ which are chemical signals that influence ________, __________, and ___________.
hormones, metabolism, growth and development, homeostasis.
There are two categories of hormones, _________ and ________.
peptides
steroid hormones.
the hypothalmus produces
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) which controls water absorption by the kidneys
Oxytocin which stimulates uterine contractions and milk letdown.
The pituitary gland releases
ADH and oxytocin produced by the hypothalmus
thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone which stimulates the adrenal cortex
Gonadotropic hormones (FSH, LH) which stimulates egg production in the female and sperm production in the male.
Prolactin which stimulates milk production
Growth hormone for bone growth, protein synthesis and cell division
The thyroid gland releases
Thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) which increase metabolic rate
Calcitonin which decreases blood calcium levels.
The parathyroid gland releases
Parathyroid hormone which increases blood calcium levels.
Thymus gland releases
thymosin which stimulates production and maturation of T lymphocytes.
The adrenal cortex of the adrenal glands secrete
Glucocorticoids which raises glucose levels and stimulates breakdown of proteins.
Mineralcorticoids (aldosterone) stimulates reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium
sex hormones
The adrenal medula of the adrenal glands secretes
epinephrine and norepinephrine which are active in emergency situations (fight or flight) and raises blood glucose levels.
The pancreas secretes
insulin which lowers blood glucose levels and stimulates formation of glycogen.
glucagon which raises blood glucose levels and stimulates breakdown of glycogen.
Testes release
androgens (testosterone) male sex characteristics
Ovaries release
estrogen and progesterone; female sex characteristics.
How do peptide hormones work?
binds to receptor protein on plasma membrane.
activates second messenger (cyclic AMP and calcium)
second messenger sets in motion an enzyme cascade that leads to a cellular response.
How do steroid hormones work?
steroid hormones diffuse accross the plasma membrane.
once inside the cells steroids bind to receptor proteins.
hormone-receptor complex binds to DNA particular genes
gene activation leads to production of cellular enzymes leading to cellular change.
pituitary dwarfism happens
when the pituitary gland does not produce enough growth hormone during childhood.
gigantism happens when
the pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone during childhood.
Acromegaly happens when
when too much GH is produced during adulthood.
Simple goiter
results from lack of iodine.
Congenital hypothyroidism results
when thyroid does not develop properly
undersecretion of thyroid hormone
individuals are short and stocky.
Myxedema is the result of
hypothyroidism in adulthood.
symptoms of hypothyroidism
lethargy
weight gain
loss of hair
slower pulse rate
lowered body temperature
thick, puffy skin
Hyperthyroid (Grave's Disease) results when
thyroid produces too much thyroid hormone.
Signs and symptoms of graves disease
exopthalmic goiter (swelling of tissues of eye sockets) forms
swelling of muscles that move the eyes.
hyperactivity
insominia
irritability and nervousness
Addison's disease is
hyposecretion of cortisol by adrenal glands.
Cushings Syndrome is
hypersecretion of cortisol by adrenal glands.
Diabetes Mellitus is
insulin-sensitive body cells are unable to take up or metabolize glucose.
results in hyperglycemia
Symptoms of Diabetes Mellitus
Polyphagia - extreme hunger
glycosuria - glucose in urine
polyuria - excessive urination
polydipsia - extreme thirst
The Pineal gland produces
melatonin which regulates sleep cycle.
Three functions of blood
transport
defense
regulation
The blood transports
oxygen to the cells
carbon dioxide and other wastes away from the cells
hormones
The blood acts as a defense by
defending the body against pathogens
removing dead and dying cells.
The blood helps regulate
body temperature
water-salt balance
ph balance
Plasma is composed of
92% water
8% various salts and organic molecules
What proteins are present in plasma?
albumins which control osmotic pressure
Globulins- alpha and beta which are produced by the liver and gamma- antibodies
fibrinogens functions in blood clotting
What are the elements of a hematocrit
55% plasma
45% formed elements
eurythrocytes (RBC)
leukocytes (WBC)
thrombocytes (platelets)
Normal blood ph is
7.35 - 7.45
Hemopoesis is
production of blood cells
Myeloid homopoesis occurs in
red bone marrow
lymphoid hemopoesis occurs in
lymphoid tissue
Polycythemia is
overproduction of red blood cells
What are the effects of Polycyemia vera?
overburdens the heart
overwhelms the clotting system
causes beet-red hands and face.
Two types of WBC
granulocytes
agranulocytes
three types of granulocytes
Neutrophils - phagocytosis
eosinophils - response to parasitic infections and allergies
basophils - release of heparin (anticoagulant)
Two types of agranulocytes
lymphocytes - immunity
Monocytes - phagocytosis
Four steps to blood-clotting and hemostasis
prothrombin activator is formed.
prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin.
thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
fibrin thread wraps around platelet plug and traps RBC's.
Name three antiplatelet drugs
aspirn, NSAIDS, clopidogrel
name two anticoagulants
heparin (antithrombin)
coumadin (prevents formation of prothrombin)
Name one fibrinolytic or clot busting drug
tissue plasmonogen activator (TPA)
4 types of blood
Type A - A antigen is on the RBC and Anti-B antibodies in plasma
Type B - B antigen is on the RBC and Anti-A antibodies are in plasma
Type AB- both A and B antigens are on RBC and noAnti-A or Anti-B antibodies are in plasma
Type O - neither A nor B antigens is on RBC and both anti-A and Anti-B antibodies are in plasma
What type is the universal blood donor
Type O
What blood type is the universal recipient?
Type AB
What is eurythroblastosis fatalis
Occurs when mother is Rh- and baby is Rh positive.
first baby is ok. In subsequent pregnancies the mother develops Anti Rh antibodies which move into fetus causing
agglutination and hemolysis.
Name and describe five disorders of hemostasis.
thrombocytopenia- low platelet count
hemophelias - clotting disorders caused by deficiencies of clotting factors.
thrombus - stationary blood clot
embolus - dislodged blood clot
thromboembolism - dislodged blood clot blocks a blood vessel.
What is leukemia?
abnormal high production of immature leukocytes due to neoplasm formation in bone marrow, spleen, or lymph nodes.
the heart is located in the
thoracic cavity within the mediastinum
What are the four functions of the heart
Keeps O2 poor blood separate from O2 rich blood
Keeps blood flowing in one direction
Creates blood pressure
Serves as an endocrine gland
Blood returns from the body to the _____ right side of the heart and then is pumped to the _______
right, lungs
The _____ side of the heart receives blood from the lungs and pumps it to the body
left
Where is the Bicuspid (Mitrial) valve located
between the left atrium and left ventricle.
Where is the Triscuspid valve located?
between the right atrium and the right ventricle
What are the cordae tendoneae?
attaches cusps to the ventricular wall
Where is the pulmonic valve located?
between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery
Where is the aortic valve located
between the left ventricle and the aorta
What is ischemia
diminished blood flow and lack of oxygen to heart
Define angina
chest pain
What happens in a myocardial infarction
plague ruptures then blocks blood flow to the heart
What are four diagnostic tests used to diagnosis an MI
Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)
aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)
troponin
What is cardiac output?
the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle in one minute.
What is the formula for calculating CO?
heart rate x stroke volume
What is the CO of a normal adult?
5L per minute
What is stenosis
narrowing of the heart valve
What is atherosclerosis?
hardening and narrowing of the arteries
Another name for a mycardial infarction is
heart attack
What is pulmonary edema
accumulation of fluid in the lungs
What is carditis?
general inflammation of the heart
What is angina pectoris?
chest pain caused by lack of oxygen to the myocardium
The umbilical vein
brings oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus
What is the ductus venosus?
bypasses the liver of the fetus and delivers blood to the inferior vena cava of the fetus
what is the foramen ovale
shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium of the fetus.
What is the Ductus arteriosus?
connection between the pulmonary artery and the descending aorta in the fetus.
What is Patent Ductus arteriosus?
failure of the ductus arteriosus to shut creating creating a right to left shunt
What is an aneurysm?
bulging of a weakened arterial wall
What is phlebitis?
inflammation of a vein
What is shock?
inadequate blood flow to tissues
What are the functions of the lymphatic system?
lymph is clear fluid made up of mostly water, electrolytes, and waste.
returns interstitial fluid to blood
absorbs fats and fat soluble vitamins.
helps body defend against infection
How do lymph vessels and lymph nodes work
lymph vessels travel with veins and help with drainage.
lymph travels through vessels to nodes
Nodes: site of phagocytosis and immune response
filters out pathogens and cancer cells.
what makes lymph move?
milking action of skeletal muscles
movement of chest during respiration
rythmic contraction of lymphatic smooth muscle
Name the lymphoid organs
Red bone marrow
lymph nodes
tonsils
thymus gland
spleen
MALT (mucosal associated lymph tissue)
What are the two compartments of the lymph node and what do they do?
lymph nodules - lymphocytes and macrophages responsible for phagocytosis and immunity
lymph sinuses - lymph filled spaces that bathe lymph nodes.
What is the function of red bone marrow?
site where stem cells are made
Where is red bone marrow found in an adult?
sternum
vertebrae
ribs
skull
part of pelvic girdle
proximal head of humerus and femur
What are two types of lymphocytes and where do they mature?
B lymphocytes mature in red bone marrow
T lymphocytes mature in thymus gland.
What is the function of the spleen?
filters blood, not lymph
red pulp: venous sinuses filled with blood and phagocytes
white pulp: contains lymphocytes
stores RBC's and platelets
removes old RBC's and platelets
What is meant by inate immunity?
general defense against invasions in a nonspecific manner
What is the first line of defense against initial infection?
skin, mucosal membranes, tears, stomach acid
What is the second line of defense against initial infection?
macrophages, dendritic cells
fever and inflammation
interferons which are secreted by infected cells and prevent neighboring cells from being infected.
What is adaptive immunity?
3rd line of defense.
cellular immunity (t cells and b cells)
generates memory against repeat and future infections, vaccines.
What are natural killer cells?
kill virus infected cells and tumor cells
large granular lymphocytes
no specificity or memory
What is interferon?
produced by virus infected cells.
produces substances that interfere with viral replication.
What is an antigen?
a substance that causes the body to produce specific antibodies or specialized T cells.
What do antibodies do?
cause the body to recognize and interact with specific epitopes or antigens.
What are IgG antibodies
respond to infections
able to cross the placenta
enhances phagocytosis; neutralizes toxins and viruses; protects fetus and newborn.
What are IgM antibodies.
Pentamer structure.
responds to infections.
found in blood, in lymph and on B cells
agglutinates microbes, first antibody produced in response to infetion
half-life of 5 days, presence can be used to determine recent immune response.
What are IgA antibodies?
found in secretions, mucous tears, breast milk.
prevents bacterial attachment on mucosal surfaces
What are IgD antibodies?
found in blood, in lymph, and on B cells
On B cells they initiate immune response
Half-life 3 days
no well defined function.
What are IgE antibodies?
found on mast cells, basophils, and in blood
Allergic reactions; lysis of parasitic worms
half-life 2 days
What are antigen presenting cells (APC)
digest the antigen and present it on the cell surface
Ag fragments on APC surface with MHC (major histocompatibility complex)
found on B cells
dendritic cells
activated macrophages
How are T cells activated?
Macrophage ingest antigen
Antigen presentation activates T cell
clones produced: Killer T cells, helper T cells, Suppressor T cells, and Memory T cells
What do the killer T cells do?
destroys antigen
What do helper T cells do?
secrete chemicals to help immune system. response
What do supressor T cells do?
dampen response when antigen is cleared.
What do memory T cells do?
remember the antigen and have a faster more robust response later.
Sensory receptors for sensing pain are called.
C. nocireceptors
Which of the following is a receptor for fine touch?
D. Meisner corpuscles
Follwing are pairs of sensory receptors and stimuli to which they responde. Choose the correct pair(s).
D. a & b
Which of the following statements about the sensation of taste is correct?
E. all of the above
Select a correct statement about the sense of smell
a. Taste and smell sensations travel through some of the
same brain areas
b. Olfactory epithelium is located right at the entrance to to the nasal cavity
c. An order is made by a single type of odor molecule
d. a and c
e. all of the above
a. taste and smell sensations travel though some of the same areas of the brain.
Complte this statement correctly: The gustatory (taste) control center is located in the ______ lobe, and the olfactory (smell) area is located in the _______ lobe of the brain
.a. insula, temporal
b. temporal, parietal
c. frontal, temporal
d. occipital, frontal
a. insula, temporal
Which of the following structures is a part of the choroid layer of the eye?
D. iris
The posterior compartment of the eye is filled with
C. vitreous humor
Which statement is true?
A. light stimulus to rod cells stop the release of neurotransmitters from the rods.
Choose the pathway for a sound wave to travel to the inner ear.
a. auditory canal; oval window; malleus, stapes, incus, tympanic membrane
b. auditory canal; tympanic membrane; stapes, incus, malleus; auditory tube
c. auditory canal; tympanic membrane; malleus, incus, stapes, oval window
d. auditory canal, tympanic membrane,incus, stapes, malleus, oval window
c. auditory canal; tympanic membrane; malleus, incus, stapes, oval window
Which structure allows aire pressure to equalize in the middle ear?
D. auditory tube
Which of the following are found in the semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule?
C. mechanoreceptors
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), a peptide works by
a. binding to a receptor outside the cell and activating a second messenger
b. diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the celll and activating a second messenger.
c. diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the cell and activating genes in DNA
a. binding to a receptor outside the cell and activating a second messenger
Testosterone, a steroid hormone, works by
a. binding to a receptor outside the cell and activating a second messenger
b. diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the cell and activating a second messenger
c. diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the cell and activating genes in DNA
c. diffusing into the cell, binding to a receptor inside the cell and activating genes in DNA
Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water and return it to the blood plasma. ADH release is controlled by a negative feedback system. Which action causes ADH to be released?
a. drinking a big bottle of water
b. finishing a marathon race and becoming dehydrated.
b. finishing a marathon race and becoming dehydrated.
Name three anterior pituitary hormones that cause the release of another hormone.
FSH, LH, and/or TH, and or ACTH
Oxytocin release from the hypothalmus during labor and delivery is a mechanism that works by
a. positive feedback
b. negative feedback
a. positive feedback
Which of the following is an effect of growth hormone?
D. all of the above.
Which of the following conditions is caused by excessive thyroid homrone.
B. Graves disease
Which mineral is necessary to manufacture thyroid hormone.
A. iodine.
The target organs for parathyroid hormone are
C. kidney, bone, small intestine
From the following list of hormones of the adrendal cortex and their corresponding effects, choose the pair, or pairs, that are correct.
B. all are correct
Which hormone opposes the effect of aldosterone in the body?
D. atrial natriuretic hormone
Aldosterone returns blood pressure to normal by causing the kidneys to reabsorb water and sodium. Because it works by negative feedback mechanism, which of the following actions could cause aldosterone to be released.
D. both a and c
Insulin-sensitive cells in the human body include
D. a & b
Which of the following is the effect of glucagon?
C. causes the liver to break down glycogen
Glucagon release is controlled by a negative feedback system. Which action causes glucagon to be released?
a. skipping breakfast and going to morning classes without an empty stomach
b. eating a big holiday meal
c. running a marathon race for seveal hours without pausing for food.
d. a and c
e. b and c
d. a and c
From the following list of endocrine glands and hormones choose the pair that is correct
B. adipose tissue -- leptin
Which of the following is a local tissue messenger that stimulates nearby cells?
D. prostaglandin
Which of the following are defense mechanisms of the blood?
D. all of the above are defense mechanisms of the blood.
Which of the following might stimulate the release of erythropoietin (EPO)
A. both b & c can be stimuli
Which of the following
Which of the following is/are bile pigments?
D. b and c
Granular white blood cells include all of the following except
C. macrophages
The parent cell that fragments to form thrombocytes is called a
D. megakaryocyte
Choose the correct sequence for hemostasis (first to last)
a. coagulation -- vascular spasm --platelet plug formation
b. vascular spasm -- coagulation, platelet plug formation
c. vascular spasm == platelet plug formation -- coagulation
d. coagulation -- platelet plug formation --vascular spasm
c. vascular spasm == platelet plug formation -- coagulation
Which vitamin is necessary to form prothrombin?
A. K
Which of the following correctly describes type AB blood?
a. A antigen and B antigen are on the red cell membrane, anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma
b. A antigen and B antigen on the red cell membrane, no antibodies in plasma
c. A antigen on the red cell membrane, anti-B antibodies in plasma
d. B antigen on the red cell membrane, anti-A antibodies in plasma
b. A antigen and B antigen on the red cell membrane, no antibodies in plasma
Which of the following transfusions would most likely be safe to adminster?
D. type B blood to a type AB blood recipient
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs in which situation
C. Rh- mother, Rh+ father, + fetus
Which of the following is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?
B. tricuspid
The first heart sound is caused by the closure of the
a. Av valves (tricuspid and bicuspid)
b. semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary)
a. Av valves (tricuspid and bicuspid)
Conical estensions of the mycardium are called the
B. papillary muscles
The SA node is the pacemaker of the heart and controls the heart rate because
D. it has the fastest intrinsic rate.
The semilunar valves are open during which phase of the cardiac cycle
B. ventricular systole
Cardiac output is equal to
C. heart rate times stroke volume
The order for the three layers of a blood vessel superficial to deep is
B. tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima
If you described the differences between arteris and veins you could say
B. all of these statements are true.
Bloood pressure is greatest at
D. the arterial end of the capillary bed
Blood flow is slowest through which blood vessels
a. arterioles
b. veins
c. capillaries
d. venules
capillaries
Mean arterial blood pressue is equal to
D. cardiac output times peripheral resistance
Which of the following would increase mean arterial blood pressure?
C. Any of these would increase mean arterial resistance
The superior and inferior venae cavae return their blood to the
A. right atrium
In the adult heart, the oxygen content is highest in blood found in
a. pulmonary arteries
b. pumonary trunk
c. pulmonary veins
d right ventricle
c. pulmonary veins
From the follwing list of pairs of major arteries and the smaller arteries that branch from them, choose the correct pairs
E. a and c are correct
If you wanted to describe the lymphatic system, which statements would you use.
a. it takes up excess fluid and returns it to the circulation.
b. it houses white blood cells
c. Lacteals in the intestines absorb dietary lipids
d. All of these statements are correct.
d all of these statements are correct.
Imagine that lymph is draining from your right arm to return to the heart. What is the correct pathway for it to take?
a. lymphatic capillaries-larger lymphatic vessels-- right lymphatic duct- right subclavian vein - superior vena cava
b. lymphatic capillaries -- larger lymphatic vessels -- thoracic duct-- right subclavian vein-- superior vena cava
c. lymphatic capillaries--larger lymphatic vessels-- thoracic duct-- left subclavian vein-- superior vena cava
