CDC Volume 1 Self Test Questions

  1. what is your duty in maintenance
    to ensure assigned aircraft and equipment are safe, serviceable, and properly configured to meet mission needs.
  2. what types of actions are considered part of maintenance
    Inspection, repair, overhaul, modification, preservation, refurbishment, testing, and analyzing conditions and performance
  3. When performing maintenance, you must place emphasis on what factors
    safety, quality, and timeliness
  4. what is the purpose of the maintenance process
    to sustain a capability to support the flying and training missions
  5. what types of maintenance ensures equipment is ready and available at the time of need
  6. what is the deifference between on-equipment and off-equipment maintenance
    on-equipment is work performed on an aircraft or piece of support equipment, while off-equipment work is typically performed in a repair shop on components removed during on-equipment maintenance
  7. what are the three levels of maintenance capability
    Organizational, intermediate, and depot
  8. what is an example of organizational-level maintenance
    an operational check of the ALQ-131 pod while loaded on an aircraft
  9. primaraily, what is intermediate-level maintenance
    testing and either repairing or replacing component parts
  10. why would a component or equipment item be sent to depot for repair
    because it can't be fixed by personnel at wither the organizational or intermediate level
  11. what is the highest level of maintenance
  12. who allocates maintenance resources to meet mission requirements
  13. which AFI covers duties and responsibilities of key leadership within a maintenance organization
  14. who manages the wings QAPs
  15. who ensures compliance with the wing EPA program
    squadron commander
  16. who is responsible to the squadron commander for maintenance production
  17. who is the first-line manager and technical authority in their area of maintenance supervision
    Section Chief
  18. which three squadrons exist under the MXG
    MXS, AMXS, and MOS
  19. the MXS is comprised of which flights
    Propulsion, avionics, TMDE, accessory maintenance, AGE, fabrication, armament systems, maintenance, and munitions
  20. who maintains off-equipment aircraft and support equipment components, performs on-equipment maintenance of aircraft, and provides repair and calibration of TMDE
  21. for what is the AMXS responsible
    servicing, inspecting, maintaining, launching, and recovering assigned and transient aircraft
  22. for what is PMEL responsible
    maintaining, calibrating, and certifying TMDE
  23. the avionics flight primarily performs off equipment maintenance on what system/equipment
    Avionics components, EW systems and Sencor pods, airborne video tape recording systems, and airborne photographic systems
  24. who is responsible for quality maintenance
    individual maintenance technicians, supervisors, and commanders
  25. what is the role of QA
    to assess, analyze, and identify problem areas that may exist; assess the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition, and increase reliability and maintainability
  26. how does QA identify trends and problem areas
    by collecting performance data, performing inspections and special assessments, recommending possible corrective actions to supervisors, and providing on-the-spot assistance.
  27. what AFI covers maintenance management of aircraft
  28. what two factors determine the off base requisitioning priority
    UJC and FAD
  29. how is a due-out created
    When a rewuirment is placed on supply and insufficient assets are on hand to satisfy the request
  30. when is the customer not granted credit upon cancellation of an obligated memo due-out
    wjen the due-out was obligated in a prior year
  31. what does AFMAN 23-110, Volume 6 cover
    policies and procedures for Air Force participation in the DOD PRMP
  32. What code identifies an item as consumable
    ERRX XB3
  33. what are the three basic repair cycle action categories
    AWM, INW, and AWP
  34. what form is used for local purchase request
    DD Form 1348-6
  35. what form is used for requesting supplies in the even IMDS is down
    AF Form 2005
  36. how many alphanumeric characters make up a document number
  37. what's the purpose of the organization code within a document number
    identifies the unit or subordinate activity
  38. on an AF Form 2005, what field identifies the end item
  39. how would you annotate a DD form 1348-1a if you were reusing a delivery of an asset
    write "Organizational Refusal" on all copies of the DD form 1348-1A
  40. in what TO are the procedures for submitting deficiency reports found
  41. Define CAT I deficiency report
    It's a report of a production deficiency meeting one of the following criteria: 1) if uncorrected would cause death, sever injury, or sever occupational illness. 2) if uncorrected would cause major loss or damage to equipment or a system. 3) critically restricts combat readiness capability 4) results in a production line stoppage
  42. who is responcible for preparing the draft DR
    the originator
  43. what restrictions must be met when considering an item for a DR
    any item, regardless of ERRCD code, is subject to DR procedures
  44. what's a warranty
    A contract between the purchaser and manufacturer
  45. what does a warranty explain and identify
    the responsibilities of the purchaser and manufacturer; how long, by perating time or calendar period, the manufacturer is responsible for the equipment
  46. where can you find procedures and responsibilities for acquiring, administering, and reporting on WSW's
    AFMAN 64-110, Manual for Weapon System Warranties
  47. what are the four aircraft inspection concepts
    Periodic, phased, isochronical, and programmed depot maintenance
  48. when is an isochronical inspection completed? why is it done at this time
    on the date due, regardless of the hours flown. To accommodate aircraft scheduling.
  49. which inspection concept applies to all aircraft
    programmed depot maintenance
  50. list the purpose and scope of the preflight inspection
    flight preparedness, this inspection is a thorough (visual and operational) check of specific equipment.
  51. when is a basic postflight inspection done
    After the last flight of the flying period
  52. what type of inspection determines if the aircraft is suitable for another flight
    basic post flight
  53. why was the phase inspection developed
    to reduce the time the aircraft is out of commission for any given inspection
  54. who has the responsibility of performing operator inspections
    the user
  55. who or what directs when special inspections are performed
  56. what is the purpose of an acceptance inspection
    to determine the equipment's serviceability and the condition of the equipment documents
  57. who performs the transfer inspection if more than 75% of the inspection interval has elapsed
    the transferring organization
  58. when are periodic inspections and lubrication requirements done
    Periodic inspections are performed on a recurring, scheduled basis. the intervals range from once a day to once every couple of years, depending on the particular inspection. the intervals, and what items are inspected, are carefully planned to try and catch malfunctions before they happen; hence, they're also known as preventative maintenance
  59. what three activities are normally done during a periodic inspection
    Corrosion control, cleaning, and lubrication
  60. why is it important to make sure the test station and work area are kept clean
    to ensure valid testing and prevent contamination of equipment
  61. why is it important to keep test station and LRU surfaces painted?
    paint prevents corrosion from starting.
  62. list six types of directive standard publications
  63. what are AFPDs and what do they contain
    Orders of the SAF, directive policy statements of the Office of the SAF and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by AF activities at any level.
  64. what are AFDDs and what do they provide
    Statements of officially sanctioned beliefs and warfighting principles that describe and guide the proper use of air and space forces in military action; the foundation for AF policies that guide our personnel as they plan, employ, organize, train, equip, and sustain AF forces
  65. what is the purpose of AFIs
    to direct action, ensure compliance, or give detailed procedures to standard actions across the Air Force
  66. what statment must AF instructions and manuals contain
    "Compliance with this publication is mandatory"
  67. what is the purpose of an AFS
    to extend or add material to publications issued by higher headquarters or agencies
  68. Describe requirements for complying with non directive publications
    typically expected, but not mandatory
  69. in what form(s) do TOs come
    Paper, digital, and computer or test station software
  70. what type of information do you find in O&M TOs
    installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, removing, calibration, servicing, or handling of AF systems and equipment end items
  71. in what type of TO do you find maintenance instruction or an IPB
    O&M TO
  72. what type of TO is the TO catalog
    Index TO
  73. what is an abbreviated TO and what is its purpose
    Excerpts from one or more basic TOs; give clear instructions, criteria, and safety warnings for performing inspections or tasks
  74. list three methods for updating TOs
    Changes, supplements, and Revisions
  75. Under what condition are pen-and-ink changes to the technical contents of a TO authorized
  76. when you receive a change to a TO page, what do you do with the original page
    Remove and discard
  77. list four types of TO supplements
    Operational, safety, TO page, and TCTO
  78. how are TOPS distinguished from other changes or supplements
    Printed on green paper and printed only on one side
  79. under what condition does a TO undergo revision
    when changed material affects more than 80 percent of the text
  80. what's the purpose of a MPTO
    to give generla information and instructions in various subject areas for supervisory and administrative personnel
  81. how does the number of a TO designate that it's of the methodsand procedures type
    begins with 00
  82. what;s the purpose of TCTO
    TCTO are the media through which extensive modifications and modernization programs are directed
  83. list three main categories of TCTOs
    Immediate action, Urgent action, and Routine action
  84. what's the major difference between an immediate action and an urgent action TCTO
    Immediate action TCTOs require immediate action to remove the aircraft or affected equipment from service, while the urgent action TCTOs do not.
  85. what;s the purpose of the routine action TCTO
    to cover conditions not covered by immediate action or urgent action TCTO's
  86. what is the maximum time allotted to comply with a routine TCTO that addresses a safety deficiency
    90 days
  87. what is the maximum time allotted to comply with a routine TCTO that does not address a safety deficiency
    270 days
  88. what condition warrants the issue of an interim TCTO
    when the urgency of conditions docent allow time for printing and distributing instructions in formal TO format
  89. what are the two levels where TCTOs are accomplished
    Depot and organizational/intermediate
  90. when can a depot-level TCTO be accomplished at the organizational/intermediate level
    only when current and specific authority is possessed by the activity's MAJCOM
  91. what for do you use when removing a TO from its storage location
    AF Form 614
  92. what precautions can you take to protect your classified TO
    Never leave it unattended, dedicate a co-worker to watch it, put it away promptly when not needed, and take a full inventory at the end of your shift
  93. what is the difference between a TO "warning" and "caution"
    warning- indicates an operation, procedure, or condition that, if not strictly observed, could result in injury, death, or long term heath hazard to personnel; Caution- indicated an operation, procedure, or condition that, if not strictly observed, could resut in damage/destruction of equipment or loss of mission effectiveness
  94. what types of diagrams and schematics can you find as part of TO illustration
    test equipment interconnection, pod-to-equipment interconnection, power distribution, and detailed wiring.
  95. what does the IPB assign to each part of a pod or equipment
    A figure and index
  96. what action must you take if you find a TO deficiency
    you ust submit an RC on an AFTO Form 22
  97. why cant you make pen-and-ink changes to carrect a technical deficiency in a TO
    official TO updates are the only valid authority for correcting technical deficiencies and implementing changes in a TO
  98. if you are submitting an AFTO 22, what is the role of your supervisor
    Must ensure the report is valid and warrants submittal
  99. list three categories of TO RCs
    Emergency, urgent, and routine
  100. why is immediate action required on an emergency RC
    if not corrected, the discrepancy would result in a fatality or seriuos injury to personnel; extensive damage or destruction to equipment or property; or inability to achieve or maintain operational posture
  101. an RC might be catergorized as urgent if the chage would result in an annual savings of that amount
    at least $25,000 or 1,000 man hours
  102. how are routine RCs typically published
    consolidated into a BCU for publication during periodic TO updates
  103. where do you find routine addresses and E-mails to submit and AFTO Form 22
    table 9-1 of TO 00-5-1
  104. how is all Air Force computer software managed
    as computer program configuration item (CPCI)
  105. list four types of major embedded computer system software
    in-place test, operational, UUT, or support programs
  106. name the two types of computer manuals and state their purpose
    operator manuals - these manuals instruct on how to load and operate computer programs. Reference manuals - these are usually commercial manuals containing general information on the operational check out
  107. what is the purpose of a CPIN compendium
    TO provide a consolidated index of embedded computer system (ECS) software within the Air Force.
  108. what information is contained in CPIN compendium cross-reference 80-0-2
    Equipment part numbers and CPINS
  109. what information is contained in command CPIN compendiums
    Listing peculiar to the major command
  110. state what part I and III of a CPIN compendium contain
    Part I list the current active software authorized for use. Part III is a listing of computer software that is no longer authorized for use.
  111. What does the First feild position indicate
    A CPIN category and the major function of the system or subsystem.
  112. what is a version of baseline software
    a variation or modification to the baseline software, not a revision
  113. what is the purpose of an asterisk preceding a CPIN
    it identifies new software announced since the last issue
  114. State the level of test software for each of these alpha codes A,B, and D
    A. Organizational B. Intermediate C. Depot
  115. Name four types of media units.
    card decks, tapes, reels, and disks
  116. what is maintenance data documentation
    the collection, storage, and retrieval of information concerning a maintenance action or involving personnel assigned to a maintenance organization.
  117. list the benefits that base-level maintenance activities can derive from the MDD process
    means of managing assigned equipment resources. Planning and scheduling maintenance. Validating and initiating corrective action on maintenance problems.
  118. how is data collected by the MDD process and made available to base-level maintenance
    through computer listing and video terminals
  119. name the two categories used to document production data
    on-equipment and off-equipment
  120. which documentation category is used to describe maintenance on end itmes
  121. what are the advantages of using MDD codes
    simplifies recording procedures and data retrieval and provides the required information while using a minimum amount of space on the forms
  122. which data code allows all phases of a job to be tied together for data analysis
    Job Control Number
  123. what are the four types of work centers that report data to the MDD process
    owning work center - performing work center - reporting work center - non reporting work center
  124. the identification number code consists of how many characters
  125. the standard equipment reporting designator is normally the first character of which MDD code
    Identification number
  126. what is the purpose of the work unit code
    to identify the system, subsystem, and/or components on which maintenance is required, or on which maintenance was done.
  127. what form is used to document maintenance when an organization does not have the capability to enter data into an automated system such as IMDS
    form 349
  128. where can you find the instructions for using AFTO Form 349
    TO 00-20-2
  129. what form provides a means of controlling items flowing to and from intermediate maintenance shops
    AFTO Form 350
  130. what form is used to ensure identification of reparable items
    AFTO Form 350
  131. how is the AFTO Form 350 used as a source document
    to complete the AFTO 349 for off-equipment (shop) repair actions
  132. what is the purpose of symbols
    to bring immediate attention to equipment status
  133. name the three status symbols
    Red X, Red Dash, and Red Diagonal
  134. what form is used to document status of off-equipment
    AFTO Form 244
  135. what symbol indicates that a special inspection is past due
    Red Dash
  136. what does a red X symbol mean
    An equipment item is considered unsafe
  137. what symbol indicates that an unsatisfacoty condition exist but is not dangerous enough to warrant discontinuing use of equipment
    Red diagonal
  138. what is IMDS
    An on-line computer system for collection, storage, and retrieval of maintenance data
  139. what is the main objective of IMDS
    To provide the maintenance community with instant access to a database of information about maintenance resources.
  140. About what types of maintenance resources does IMDS provide information
    Aircraft, aircraft subsystems, support equipment, supplies, and personnel
  141. list four of the IMDS subsystems
    Maintenance events, data collection, inquiries, and ATERS
  142. which IMDS subsystem provides automatic reporting of inventory, status, utilization, and assigned test station production
  143. what is IMDS information used for at the base level
    to more effectively utilize maintenance, personnel and equipment resources
  144. in which AFCSM and volume can you find an introduction to IMDS
    21-556; 2
  145. what is the simplest security measures to limit access to IMDS
    keep the remote terminal in your work area off-line from the base computer
  146. how can you record your maintenance data if the IMDS system is down?
    use manual backup system, such as the AFTO From 349
  147. entering inaccurate data into IMDS can cause what long-term difficulties
    supply shortages, ineffective support contracts, and insufficient inventories
  148. list three parts of a basic event number
    the first two digits represent the year, the middle three represent the Julian day, and the last four are sequentially assigned throughout the 24 hour day
  149. what is a WCE
    three digit numerical code added at the end of an event ID to differentiate between different maintenance actions required to complete a particular job.
  150. what can be assigned to a specific equipment item for recurring maintenance or inspections
    A JST
  151. which IMDS tool (screen) provides you with a list of deferred, unscheduled, and scheduled events by equipment ID, work center, or part/serial number
    Documented maintenance inquiry, screen 380
  152. your shift supervisor might use screen 380 for what
    to keep track of open jobs and assign those jobs to personnel
  153. explain what "taking time" means
    entering into IMDS the number of hours spent by each technician on the specific jobs performed that day
  154. what is "event maintenance" and why is it important
    Maintaining data and status on Event ID's and WCEs' ensures real-time information is presented in IMDS and helps maintain error free histories on all job record data.
  155. describe the inquiry capability of screen 122
    displays all maintenance data performed against a particular Event ID, regardless of whether the work action is complete
  156. what feedback do you get when you use IMDS to request an item from supply
    a management notice that assigns a document number and indicates either a FILL or a KILL status
  157. what is a kill notice and how should you respond to one
    indicates a part is not available in supply; backorder the part using screen 407
  158. which IMDS screen is used to order parts
    Screen 72, SBBS Issue Request Transaction
  159. what AFI requires that supervisors provide specialized safety, fire protection, and health OJT to all assigned Air Force personnel
    AFI 91-301
  160. what form can a supervisor use to document safety, fire protection, and health training?
    AF Form 55
  161. What's the purpose of the AFOSH program
    To prevent or reduce the severity of personal injuries and property damage
  162. what does AFOSH STD 48-8 establish
    The OELs for airborne chemical concentrations to which nearly all AF personnel may be exposed throughtout their careers without adverse health effects
  163. which AFOSH STD covers RFR
  164. which AFOSH STD covers safe operations of laser systems
  165. what does AFOSH STD 91-68 address
    USAF chemical storage, handling, use, and disposal operations
  166. what AFI outlines your personal rights and responsibilities under the AFOSH program
  167. Which AFOSH STD covers general housekeeping and electrical safety in shops
  168. Which AFI currently contains guidance pertaining to the HAZCOM program
  169. what TO covers the use and care of hand tools
  170. why should you put your tools where they belong when you complete a job
    to make your job easier and ensure each tool is where it's supposed to be the next time it's needed
  171. name two things you should check before plugging in a power tool
    ensure the power switch is off and verify the voltage, hertz, and current of the source of electricity
  172. define high voltage
    electrically defined as 600volts or greater
  173. when can an interlock be disconnected or bypassed
    during maintenance or adjustments only when prescribed by applicable TOs
  174. when is it acceptable to work alone around high voltages
  175. when do you require a safety observer when you're repairing electronic equipment
    when you'reworking with or repairing electronic systems that may expose you to hazards associated with energized equipment or high-voltage circuits
  176. when is a grounding or shorting stick required
    when electronic equipment uses high voltages
  177. what TO covers gas cylinder use, handling, and maintenance
  178. when can color coding be relied upon to identify the cylinder's contents
    Never rely on color coding to identify cylinder contents
  179. what should you do with a cylinder when the contents can't be identified
    cylinders that don't bear a legibly written, stamped, or stenciled identificaton of the contents shouldn't be used; instead they should be segregated and returned to the vendor as soon as possible
  180. what is the maximum allowable atmospheric temperature that a cylinder may be exposed
    130 F
  181. when should a gas cylinder be considered empty? How would you mark it?
    When there's at least 25psi remaining; so others will know that it's nearly empty write MT to signify it is empty
  182. which AFOSH STD deals with the RFR safety program
  183. what are the three classifications of RF hazard
    direct biological, indirect biological, and indirect hazard
  184. list your individual responsibilities when you're working with and around RFR
    Follow procedures for safe work, follow procedures established by the supervisors, ensure required warning signs and safety devices are in place, promptly report and suspected overexposure and unsafe work conditions
  185. if you suspect that you have been overexposed to RFR, how soon should you seek medical attention and where should your medical examination be performed
    within 72 hours at the flight surgeons office
  186. list your individual responsibility regarding hazardous noise
  187. what's the purpose of hearing protection devices
    to reduce the at-the-ear noise exposure to less than 85dB
  188. what is meant by the ALARA principle
    personnel exposures to high intensity noise must be maintained as low as possible consistent with existing technology, cost, and operational requirement
  189. What actions must be performed in the case of a broken or damaged container of radioactive material
    the area must be cleared of all personnel not required to evaluate the condition, recover the radioisotope, or decontaminate the area of material. the area must be secures. in cases of air suspension of contamination by ingestible radioactive material, door and windows must be closed and ventilation systems/equipment must be turned off
  190. what five methods are permitted by an authorized recipient to dispose of radioactive materials
    treatment prior to disposal, treatment or disposal by incineration, decay in storage, disposal at an appropriately licensed land disposal facility, and disposal at a geological repository.
  191. what must be performed to preclude falsely identity a container that no loner contains radioactive materials
    Remove or obliterate affixed labels
  192. which AFOSH STD details all sorts of safety and procedural requirements for many types of lifting devices
  193. when can cheater bars be used to increase leverage
  194. when can the rated load of a lifting device be exceeded
    During authorized proof test
  195. describe a class IV laser with respect to its ability to cause biological damage
    a hazard to the eye and/or skin from the direct beam and sometimes from a diffuse reflection; it can also be a fire hazard
  196. what are the responsibilities of an LSO
    approved SOPs, train personnel, select alternate controls, establish an NHZ, avoid unnecessary or duplicate controls, and conduct periodic facility and equipment audits
  197. what must laser protective eye wear be capable of withstanding?
    direct or diffusely scattered laser energy
  198. who is your primary point of contact when you have security questions
    unit security manager
  199. what is JPAS and what information does it contain
    a record of security clearance information by unit; each member's clearance, type of clearance, and date of most recent clearance investigation
  200. who is responsible for protecting classifies information and material
    Everyone who has been granted access to the information/material and has it in his or her possession or control
  201. what three elements must be present for you to release or share access to classified information
    mission-essential purpose, the proper clearance level, and a need to know
  202. what must a visitor to a classified workcenter provide to the security manager
    a visit request or official military orders
  203. whith what classification level should a classified removable hard drive be marked
    with the highest classification level of the information stored on it
  204. what forms need to documented during the end of day security check
    SF Form 701, activity security check list, and SF form 702 security container check sheet
  205. when should you familiarize yourself with your work center's emergency plan
    before you need it
  206. what are the three levels of classified information and equipment
    confidential, secret, and top secret
  207. where must the overall classification of a document be marked
    top and bottom of front cover, title page, first page, and outside back cover
  208. besides overall classification, what information must the front cover of a classified document contain
    classified by, reason, and declassify on
  209. what is a derivative classification
    the act of incorporating, paraphrasing, restating, or generating in new form, information that is already classified
  210. what is the difference in the front cover information of a derivatively classified document
    Classified by is replaced with derived from
  211. how must a classified removable hard drive be marked
    with an SF form 711, data description label, and appropriate classification label
  212. how do you mark working papers
    with the highest classification of the information contained within and the phrase "working paper" on the first page in large letters, as well as the date created, originators name, organization, and office symbol.
  213. under what circumstances must you change the combination to a classified storage container
    when a lock is placed in use, when an individual knowing the combination no longer requires access (unless other sufficient controls exist to prevent access to the lock), when then combination had been compromised, and when taken out of service
  214. where can you store a recorded safe combination
    in a security container other than the one for which it is used
  215. what is the classification of the ALQ 131 and ALQ 184 pods
  216. what is the purpose of an SCG
    to provide guidance for evaluating and determining the degree of protection necessary to safeguard classified information pertained or relative to the system in question
  217. how are individuals identified as authorized to receive classified assets
    by letter or on their supply "SMART" card
  218. how are classified assets packaged for turn-in to supply
    they are double-packaged with the internal package properly marked with the security classification level and the external package without any security classification markings
Card Set
CDC Volume 1 Self Test Questions
Self Test Questions