Fire Investigator

NFPA publication used to record fire investigative field notes

Before release of information to the public, approval should be obtained by whom?

Read the following statements and select your answer:
Statement 1: A physical barrier provides scene security.
Statement 2: A physical barrier provides a starting place for the scene search.
Statement 3: Rope, traffic cones, or market barrier tape can be used to create a physical barrier.
A) All three statements are true
B) Statement 1 and 2 are true; statement 3 is false
C) Statement 1 is true; statements 2 and 3 are false
D) Statement 1 and 3 are true; statement 2 is false

Spontaneous heating

Prime hazard of an oxidizer under fire conditions

Heat can travel through a burning building by one or more of three methods, commonly referred to as:

Fire investigator should be extremely cautious when:

To formulate an opinion of the person who is setting fires, one should look at three principal trends:

Arson motive that commonly involves using only fuels incidental to the scene as opposed to accelerants brought along by the perpetrator:

Motive

Intent

Timed opportunity

Temporal frequency

Incendiary fire

Trailers

Delay devices

Unusual fire load

Motive that accounts for the largest percent of total arson problem

Best suited location for an arsonist's destructive goal

Sophisticated timing and ignition devices are most likely to be used when the motive for arson is:

Read the following statements and select your answer:
1: Open doors are the most common method of fire travel through a structure.
2: Sabotage to fire or smoke doors can increase fire and smoke spread througout a structure.
3: Stairway doors propped open are always a good indicator of sabotage.
A) 2 is true and 1 and 3 are false
B) 1 and 2 are true and 3 is false
C) 2 and 3 are true and 1 is false
D) All three statements are true

Type of sabotage to fire protection systems that will require determining the design limitations of the systems

Accidental

Natural

Undetermined

Incendiary

An accidental fire is one:

The cause of a fire may be classified as:

Motive for arson that juveniles and adolescents are most likely to have:

8 gauge wire

10 gauge wire

12 gauge wire

14 gauge wire

In conducting a fire investigation where electricity is suspected of being the cause, the investigator should examine the service panel for all of the following except:
A) color coding of conductors
B) corrosion of components
C) loose connections
D) oversized fuses
E) a penny behind fuse

If a section of wire between the suspected area and the supply can be found, the condition of the ___________ can provide some useful information.

Electrical heat energy in the form of an arc between oppositely charged conductors best defines:

Heat that is created by passing an electrical force through a conductor defines:

Long-lived events in which the fault current is not high enough to trip the circuit overcurrent protection is called:

Arc

Parting arcs

Sparks

Static electricity

An abnormal connection of low resistance between normal circuit conductors where the resistance is normally much greater is called a(n):

The search of an explosion scene requires that the searchers be briefed in the proper procedures for identifying, logging, photographing, __________, and ____________ the location of the evidence.

Recognition

Recovery

Reassembly

Reconstruction

The ignitability of any dust-air mixture is based on:

Combustible dusts present a unique hazard because of their ability to form _________ mixtures within an enclosure.

Two major types of explosions with which investigators are routinely involved are:

The terms __________-order and ___________-order have been used to characterize explosion damage.

Gases with vapor density of less than one will:

__________ diagrams can be used to show the direction of fire travel.

The type of diagram that uses arrows to depict an investigator's interpretation of flame or heat spread is commonly referred to as a(n) __________ diagram.

The most common hazard associated with cooking equipment is:

The purpose of fire scene reconstruction is to recreate as nearly as possible the state that existed prior to the fire, allowing the investigator to:

1. The flame temperatures of an oxygen/gas mixture are always above the ignition temperature of common combustibles.
2. Gas appliances are probably less often the cause of fires than is generally assumed.
3. Only the combination of a fire pattern near the appliance and the finding of a malfunction, improper installation, or defect can be considered as proof of it being the fire's origin.
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) All three statements are true
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

One way in which a gas furnace or dryer is likely to initiate a fire:

When the area of origin is identified, all potential ignition sources should be:

Which statement about "V" patterns is correct?
A) A narrow angle "V" is produced by a fast burning fire.
B) A wide angle "V" is produced by a slow burning fire.
C) The value of these patterns lies in the direction of spread that they depict, not what caused them.
D) The "inverted cone" displays lines of heat demarcation emanating from the ceiling.

The inspection and evaluation of the fire scene for the determination process and location of the point or area of origin involves the coordination of information derived from:

Constructing a depth-of-char grid diagram and plotting on graph paper to show points of equal char depths may display:

The preliminary scene assessment of how a fire spreads through a structure is developed by noting the areas of _________ and ___________, and attempting to track the fire _________.

A fire investigator should begin searching for the area of origin by examining:

The lead agency during a terrorist emergency (crisis management) is the:

Upon arrival at a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you locate the 4-digit ID number on an orange panel. You should look first in the Emergency Response Guidebook for guidance in the:

When using the Emergency Response Guidebook, the next step the first responder should follow after learning a material's 3-digit guide number is to:

In the ERG, a first responder would expect to find the highlighted entries indicating that a material is either a toxic inhalation hazard or a dangerous water reactive material in the:

Upon arrival to a hazardous material incident involving a truck, you learn it is carrying magnesium scrap. You are unable to obtain the 4-digit ID number. Where should you look first in the ERG for guidance?

The isolation distance in the numbered guides is to be used:

First responders trained to the Awareness level have the ability to:

The mission of the first responder trained to the awareness level includes all of the following except:
A) Calling for the appropriate help to mitigate the incident.
B) Surveying the incident from a close proximity to determine the identity of the material involved.
C) Isolating the area of the emergency and preventing entry by unauthorized persons.
D) Recognizing the presence of hazardous materials

If, in using the ERG, a first responder discovers the entry for the material in question is highlighted and there is no fire involved, the first responder should go directly to the:

When providing emergency medical care to victims of a hazardous materials incident:

Upon arriving on the scene of a 55 gallon drum leaking an unknown liquid, you notice a flammable liquid placard. After referring to your ERG, you are directed to guide number 127. You would expect to find the Emergency Action for a spill or leak in the section which is bordered:

The Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the ERG is divided into "small spills" and "large spills." The DOT defines a small spill as a leaking container, smaller than:

A first responder must refer to the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances in the ERG:

Of the following, which are the prescribed shapes of the recommended initial isolation and protective action zones?
A) A square for the initial isolation zone, expanding in all four directions as needs dictate for the protective action zone.
B) A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it outward toward the upwind side for the protective action zone.
C) A circle for the initial isolation zone with an elongation of it downwind side for the protective action zone.
D) A rectangle for the initial isolation zone elongating toward the downwind side.

One of the roles of the first responder at the awareness level during a Hazmat incident is to:

Of the following, which is not a responsibility of the individual trained to the awareness level?
A) Isolate the area
B) Establish the decon corridor
C) Protect themselves
D) Call for appropriate assistance

Typical ignition sources found at the scene of a hazardous material incident would include all of the following except:
A) Lighting equipment
B) Chemical light sticks
C) Hand lights
D) Radios

Copies of the local emergency response plan (LERP) must be made available to:

The route of exposure that is the most commonly associated with causing ill effects, both acute and chronic, is:

__________ is the process of taking in materials through the skin or eyes.

The colleciton of evidence at a terrorist event is primarily the responsibility of:

Thermal hazard

Asphyxiation hazard

Etiological hazard

Which of the following is/are potential ignition sources found at the scenes of hazardous materials incidents?
A) Radios, hand lights, pagers
B) Heated surfaces
C) Static electricity
D) All of the above

Of the 62 guides found in the orange bordered section of the ERG, only two, Guides 161 and 162, (low level and low to moderate level radiation) list _________ as providing adequate protection for first responders.

Scene control at a terrorism incident may present unique challenges for the responders. In particular, responders must be aware that:

When determining initial isolation distances for incidents involving explosive devices, it is best for responders to:

Isolate hazard area and deny entry

Evacuate

In-place protection

The general routes of entry for human exposure to hazardous materials are:

The statement: "People inside a building should remain inside until the danger passes," best describes:

The recommended shape of the initial isolation zone around a chemical spill or release is:

When using the Table of Isolation Distances in the ERG, a large spill is defined as a quanity greater than:

One resource that deals with protective action distances involving poisonous gas, is the:

The recommended course of action for fighting a small fire involving a substance identified by the UN/NA ID number 2553 would be found in the _________ section of the ERG.

If a numbered guide for a transported hazardous material cannot be obtained by following the three steps outlined on page 1 of the DOT ERG, the first responder should:

Which section of the ERG provides the fire, explosion, and health hazard information for the material identified by the first responder?

The DOT Hazard Class 9 consists of:

The DOT Hazard Class 7 consists of:

The DOT Hazard Class 6 consists of:

The DOT Hazard Class 5 consists of:

The DOT Hazard Class 4 consists of:

The DOT Hazard Class 3 consists of:

The DOT Hazard Class 2 consists of:

The DOT Hazard Class 1 consists of:

Using the DOT ERG, the hazard class number assigned for vinyl chloride with the ID #1086 is:

The chemicals listed in highlighted type in the ERG were selected because:

When referring to the ERG, if a chemical name is not highlighted, the next step is to preceed to the _________ section.

If a chemical name is highlighted in the ERG, the table of initial isolation and protective action distances are found in the _________ section.

If a placard is visible, but no product name or four digit UN number is given, how can you determine which guide page of the ERG to use?

The DOT Hazard Class 8 consists of:

The primary hazard of a DOT Hazard Class 5 material is:

1: A Material Safety Data Sheet provides the name the chemical company uses to identify the product.
2: The product name is not always identical to the chemical name, as listed on a MSDS.
3: The listing of product names, chemical names, and synonyms on MSDS can make identifying chemicals sometimes confusing.
A) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) All three are true
D) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

T/F: Hazardous materials that are manufactured, stored, processed, or used at a particular site are not subject to regulations affecting transported materials.
True False

The complexity of transport regulations is compounded by several agencies having overlapping responsibilities. All of the following agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes except the:
A) Department of Transportation (DOT)
B) Chemical Transportation Energy Center (CHEMTREC)
C) Department of Energy (DOE)
D) Transport Development Group (TDG)

1: The blue section of the ERG lists the shipping names of hazardous materials.
2: Shipping names are always identical to the chemical names of materials.
3: It is important to know the proper spelling of the shipping name of a material before referencing the ERG.
A) All three are true
B) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
C) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

Which of the following examples of hazardous materials would be classified and placarded Class 9 during transportation?
A) Ammonium nitrate, ethyl ketone peroxide
B) Gasoline, kerosene
C) Molten sulfur, PCBs
D) Anhydrous ammonia, phosgene

Cylindrical or box-like cask packaging made of rigid metal that is designed for performance under hypothetical accident conditions best describes Type ________ radioactive packaging.

Which of the following would not be used to determine the name of a hazardous material located in a facility?
A) NFPA 704 diamond
B) MSDS
C) Labels
D) DOT ERG

Given the product name, you can find the four digit UN/DOT number assigned by referencing all the following except:
A) MSDS
B) NFPA 704
C) Shipping papers
D) ERG

1: Examples of nerve agents are sarin, soman, and V agent.
2: Nerve agents were designed with only one purpose in mind: to kill people
3: Nerve agents are very effective due to their high vapor pressure, which allows them to readily vaporize.
A) All three statements are true
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
D) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

1: Biological agents are very easy for terrorist to distribute effectively.
2: The two most popular biological agents among terrorist are anthrax and ricin.
3: Biological agents are the easiest warfare agent classification for terrorists to make.
A) All three statements are true.
B) 3 is true; 1 and 2 are false
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

1: Victims have lost control of their bowels - you suspect a nerve agent.
2: Victims complain of not feeling well after inhaling an airborne white powder a few days earlier - you suspect a biological agent.
3: Victims are exhibiting pinpoint pupils, runny noses and difficulty breathing - you suspect a biological agent.
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) 1 and 2 are false; 3 is true
C) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true
D) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

Using the nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) classification, which of the following is not considered a chemical warfare agent?
A) Tabun
B) Sarin
C) Mustard
D) Ricin

Which of the following are signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent at a Hazmat or suspected terrorism incident?
A) Fever and muscle tenderness
B) Eye and respiratory irritation
C) Dizziness and difficulty in breathing
D) Loss of bladder control and vomitting

1: Federal public buildings are prime targets for terrorist attacks.
2: Social Security buildings would be an exception to 1.
3: Virtualy all terrorist attacks are directed toward public buildings.
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) All three statements are true

Blister agents belong in which category of warfare agents under the CBRNE classification?

The acronym SLUDGEM is used to describe the signs and symptoms of exposure to which of the warfare agents?

1: Nerve agents were designed for one purpose: to kill people.
2: Blood and choking agents, while being terrorism agents, are also common industrial chemicals.
3: Biological agents are the easiest of the categories of warfare agents to make.
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) All three statements are true
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

Easiest biological or chemical agent for a terrorist to make:

Using the NBC classification, which of the following is not considered a biological warfare agent?
A) Mycotoxins
B) Plague
C) Soman
D) Tularemia

In the course of extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover the presence of chemicals and lab equipment, an indicator of possible illegal activity. According to statistics, the most likely illegal activity occurring is:

While extinguishing a small fire in an unoccupied house, you discover a lab setup and numerous types of raw materials. There is particularly a large amount of powders. What type of illegal activity might be occurring here?

You arrived on the scene of an incident involving an explosion. People in the immediate vicinity are all experiencing runny noses and difficulty breathing. Some are having convulsions. You suspect a terrorist incident involving a:

The senses which are acceptable for use in hazmat detection are:

1: There are numerous informal ways to recognize the presence of hazardous materials.
2: Using the senses of sight, sound, and odor is one of the informal ways of recognizing the presence of hazardous materials.
3: Using the human senses indiscriminately to detect the presence of hazardous materials, while fairly reliable, is unsafe.
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
C) All three statements are true
D) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

Which of the following is not an indication of a physical action?
A) Activated pressure-relief devices
B) Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels
C) Wavy vapors over water surfaces
D) Wavy vapors over the surface of a liquid puddle

Where would a first responder expect to find an air bill?

Where would a first responder expect to find a waybill or consist?

Where would a first responder expect to find a dangerous cargo manifest?

Who is responsible for care and control of an air bill?

Who is responsible for care and control of a dangerous cargo manifest?

Who is responsible for care and control of a bill of lading?

Air bill - mode of transport

Bill of lading - mode of transport

Dangerous cargo manifest - mode of transport

Waybill/consist - mode of transport

Person responsible for shipping papers during air transport:

Person responsible for shipping paper during rail transport:

Person responsible for shipping papers during highway transport:

Person responsible for shipping papers during water transport:

Bill of lading - location

Waybill/consist - location

Dangerous cargo manifest - location

Air bill - location

1: When carrying hazardous materials, a transportation mode must carry shipping papers.
2: Shipping papers may include a packing group number listed as I, II, or III.
3: The higher the packing group number, the more dangerous the chemical.
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
C) All three are true
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

1: If placards are clearly displayed on the transportation mode, shipping papers are not required.
2: If a transportation mode is not carrying hazardous materials, there is no requirement for specific information to be provided on shipping papers.
3: Shipping papers must contain the proper name of the chemical or its hazard class.
A) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
B) All three are true
C) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
D) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

Of the following, which is the quickest available source of MSDS for first responders at a hazmat emergency?
A) The Local Emergency Planning Committee
B) The supplier of the material
C) CHEMTREC
D) OSHA

Which of the following agencies regulates pipelines that carry hazardous materials across state borders, navigable waterways, and federal lands?
A) CERCLA (Comprehensive Envirionmental Response Compensation & Liability Act)
B) EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)
C) DOT (Department of Transportation)
D) FEMA (Federal Emergency Management Association)

Where are pipeline owners required to place pipeline markings (and first responders can expect to find them)?

The manufacturing and labeling of pesticides is regulated by:

1: EPA labels on pesticides must contain one of the signal words DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION.
2: The word WARNING is used on labeling for packages containing highly toxic materials.
3: The signal words EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE are also displayed if package contents have a flash point below 80^oF
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
C) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
D) All three are true

1: In urban or suburban locales, hazardous materials can be found in service stations, hardware stores, and doctor's offices.
2: In rural areas, hazardous materials can be found in agricultural stores or co-ops, farm buildings, and residences.
3: The size of a community determines the potential for hazardous materials.
A) All three are true
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

With respect to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, which of the following is not one of the three special hazard symbols?
A) Apply No Dry Chemical (fire extinguisher discharging chemical onto a fire with a diagonal slash within a circle)
B) Wear Protective Mask or Breathing Apparatus ( person's face with a protective mask in place within a circle)
C) Chemical Hazard (person in an encapsulated suit within a circle)
D) Apply No Water (bucket of water being thrown onto a fire with a diagonal slash within a circle)

Hazardous Material

Hazardous Waste

Hazardous Chemical

Extremely Hazardous Substance

Factors that should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement:

Some of the on-scene warning signs that may be present in a terrorist event involving chemical or biological agents are:

Occupancy or location types that would be considered a possible target for terrorism:

Which of the following events should raise your awareness of possible terrorism involvement?
A) Warehouse fire
B) Tanker truck accident
C) Ruptured drum
D) Non-trauma mass casualty incident

Which of the following is not required on a pipeline marker?
A) Pipeline owner
B) Pipeline contents
C) Pipeline depth underground
D) Emergency contact number

In general, as compared to the standard emergency incident faced by a first responder, a Haz Mat incident will:

In which of the following locations would you expect to encounter hazardous materials?
A) Private residences
B) Doctor's offices
C) Hardware stores
D) All of the above

Which of the following is not a signal word found on pesticide labels?
A) Toxic
B) Warning
C) Danger
D) Caution

Danger

Caution

Warning

Shipping papers are referred to as __________ and usually stored __________, in air transport.

The person responsible for control of the air bill papers is the:

During transport, the party responsible for the waybill should be the:

Toxic substances that are living materials or are obtained from living organisms are called:

During the recognition and identification of a facility, the firefighter should utilize the NFPA 704 system to identify the:

__________ is placed on highway transport vehicles to identify the contents.

A tractor trailer hauling gasoline should display a placard with the Hazard Class:

During a suspected terrorist event, the outward warning indicator(s) that responders should be alert to is/are:

A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled __________ under the UN Labeling System.

The number __________ would be shown in the Flammability Quadrant of the NFPA 704 System for a material that must be moderately heated before ignition can occur and on which water spray may be used to extinguish a fire.

A document developed by the manufacturer listing specific hazards of a product is called:

Under SARA Title III, some facilities are required to have MSDS information. The primary consideration in determining whether a facility is required to have MSDS information is whether the facility:

According to the NFPA 704 System, the most dangerous chemical would have a placard showing which of the following number sets?
A) 4, 4, 2
B) 0, 2, 4
C) 3, 3, 2
D) 3, 2, 1

The least likely location for terrorist activity of the following choices is:
A) Mass transit systems
B) A remote government facility in a rural area
C) Telecommunication facilities
D) Public assembly

In using the various clues for detecting the presence of hazardous materials, the use of _________ would be considered the most dangerous.

The NFPA 704 System indicates hazardous materials as:

Placards that contain the DOT Class number 6 at the bottom identify a material that may be an infectious substance hazard.

True/False
True False

The DOT Hazard Class 6 includes all of the following except:
A) Poison gases
B) Liquid poisons
C) Infectious substances
D) Poison solids

The DOT Hazard Class 1 includes:

The DOT Hazard Class 2 includes:

The primary hazard of an oxidizer in a fire is its ability to:

The NFPA 704 System provides the:

A tractor trailer carrying 975 lbs of organic peroxides, other than Type B, requires:
A) An orange placard
B) No placard
C) A white placard
D) A yellow placard

When referring to the U.S. Military Marking System, if a circle with a symbol of a person wearing a mask is seen, it is necessary to assume that:

The placard shown indicates that the material is considered to be:

An explosive with a fragment hazard is denoted by the U.S. Military Marking System as a:

Referring to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, the symbol for a mass fire hazard is:

Referring to the U.S. Military Marking System for Hazardous Materials, an octagon shaped placard with a #1 on it denotes a:

The background color of a placard that would signify a poisonous substance hazard and that contains a skull and crossbones is:

Physical data, chemical name, exposure limits, health hazard data, and special precautions are all parts of the:

Of the references listed below, the most specific source of information on a hazardous material is/are:
A) NFPA 704 System
B) DOT Emergency Response Guidebook
C) DOT Placard
D) MSDS

Within the UN System, a container labeled with a Hazard Class 4 conatins a:

Cable from meter

Main disconnects

Ground or neutral wire

Single breaker

Pair or double breaker

Grounded water pipe

Using the DOT Labeling System, a flammable liquid would receive a hazard classification of:

A container of flammable solids would receive a UN Label or placard with a hazardous classification number of:

A substance that readily yields oxygen to support combustion of fuels would be labeled Hazard Class _________ under the UN Labeling System.

A Hazard Class 3 within the UN Labeling System indicates a _________ product.

In the NFPA 704 System, the quadrant dealing with reactivity is colored:

The National Fire Proctection Association (NFPA) lists _________ as the standard for identifying chemical hazards of materials at fixed facilities.

In the NFPA 704 System of Identification, the diamond shaped placard used for fire hazard is always colored:

Within the NFPA 704 system, position #4 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:

Within the NFPA 704 system, position #3 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:

Identify direction of fire spread

Within the NFPA 704 system, position #1 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:

Within the NFPA 704 system, position #2 is the information and degree of hazard relating to a chemical's:

The placard illustration above represents which class hazard?

The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying nonflammable compressed gas to display a placard colored:

The placard illustration above represents which hazard class?

The placard illustration above represents which hazard class?

The placard above illustrates which hazard class?

The placard above represents which hazard class?

The placard above represents which hazard class?

The placard above illustrates which hazard class?

The DOT Placarding System requires a vehicle carrying over 1001 lbs of corrosive to display a __________ placard.

On a placard, the number at the bottom of the diamond indicates the:

The hazard class represented by the placard illustration above is:

The hazard class that is represented by the placard illustration above is:

Liquid or solid substances that emit toxic, dangerous, and irritating fumes are known as:

A type of gas that can be extremely toxic and is considered by the DOT to be a hazardous material is a(n):

The placard drawing above represents which hazard class?

Letter A represents:

Letter B represents:

Letter C represents:

When transporting hazardous materials, the shipping papers should contain:

True or false: Shipping papers are required to contain an entry for hazard classification according to DOT regulations.
True False

Local emergency response personnel can gain valuable information if the __________ is utilized in preincident planning.

Hazardous occupancies should be identified and evaluated:

Using the human senses of smell or taste to determine the presence of a hazardous material is:

During an incident involving a train, you should look for the shipping papers in:

The normal location for the bill of lading is in the:

Care and control of the bill/consist is the responsibility of the:

A bill of lading contains valuable information about the origin of the product and is the type of shipping paper used when transporting a product via:

UN/DOT placards indicate general hazard recognition by:

For the materials in Hazard Class 8 (corrosive), a DOT placard is required if the gross weight is in excess of:

The fact that a product is water reactive would be indicated in the __________ quadrant of the NFPA 704 System.

A white quadrant in the 6 o'clock position of the NFPA 704 System is used to indicate:

A number 4 in the blue quadrant of the NFPA 704 System indicates that there is ___________ risk in this category from the chemical involved.

The NFPA 704 System for identifying hazardous materials gives:

The four digit number appearing on a placard or an orange panel of a tank car is the:

All cylinders should be considered dangerous, regardless of what type of hazardous material it contains, because the contents are:

A major difference between a hazardous materials incident and other types of emergencies is the fact that hazmat incidents:

Federal OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1200 and several states have required that local establishments keep a Material Safety Data Sheet on file when:

Which of the package labels listed below indicates the highest radiation hazard?
A) Radioactive Yellow - II
B) Radioactive Yellow - III
C) Radioactive White - I
D) Radioactive Blue - III

1: Section 304 requires reporting of releases of the extremely hazardous substances listed in section 302 of SARA, Title III.
2: Releases resulting in an exposure to a person while at a fixed facility may be exempted from being reported.
3: Private industry is exempt from notification and reporting requirements in regards to releases of hazardous substances.
A) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
B) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
C) 2 and 3 are false; 1 is true
D) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

All of the following information (to the extent known at the time) should be provided during the notifications except the:
A) Chemical name
B) Name and phone numbers of contacts for further information
C) Estimated of quantity released
D) Cost estimate for clean up
E) Time and duration of release

To protect themselves and others, first responders must be able to make a proper assessment. The most important part of an assessment is:

The steps that are taken to preserve the health and safety of emergency responders and the public during an incident involving releases of hazardous materials are called:

The two types of potential hazards found in each guide of the ERG are:

A reference book intended to be carried in every emergency vehicle in the United States is the:

When dealing with a radiological incident involving a leak or spill, what exposure guidelines should the hazmat first responder use to minimize radioactive contamination?

Substances or materials in quantities or forms that may pose an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or property when transported, stored, or used in commerce is a definition of a:

The investigator's personal health and safety requires special precautions when a fire scene involves:

The investigator often encounters hazardous atmospheres on a fire or explosion scene. Prudent steps should be taken when such dangerous atmospheres are suspected including but not limited to:

The investigator must be cognizant of safe and effective crowd control at the scene. The scene should be secured by:

The investigator must be cognizant of standing pools of water on the scene. They may contain:

1: The investigator should avoid operating switches or electrical equipment if flammable gases or vapors are suspected in the immediate area.
2: Location of all underground utilities should be verified before beginning any site digging or excavation.
3: Always use a meter to determine whether the electricity is off.
A) All three are true
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

1: It is important that the fire investigator maintain close cooperation and communication with utility companies while conducting the investigation.
2: Rubber footwear can be depended on as an insulator.
3: Wires can be considered no longer "hot" once the meter has been disconnected.
A) All three are true
B) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
C) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

1: The fire investigator should know the service status of all utilities before entering a structure.
2: The fire investigator should consider all external and internal downed power lines as energized.
3: The fire investigator has four methods available to reduce job risk.
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
C) All three statements are true.
D) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

A dangerously weakened structure should be:

During preliminary activities, prior to entering a fire/explosive scene structure, the investigator should:

Before entering a structure or beginning debis removal, the investigator should assess the:

An investigator entering a structure soon after the fire is believed to be extinguished should:

An investigator should never enter a burning structure unless:

An investigator planning to enter a fire scene prior to complete extinguishment must first:

Long periods of strenuous labor by investigators on a fire scene can lead to:

A common problem often encountered by an investigator on large major fire scenes is:

1: Homes contain hazardous materials in several locations, which, in general, are well organized and easy to locate.
2: Hazardous materials storage in commercial and business structures are generally better organized than in homes.
3: Homes contain hazardous materials only in the garage and kitchen.
A) 1 and 3 are true, 2 is false
B) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
C) All three are true
D) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false

The investigator must be particularly aware when:

The investigator should not attempt to use personal protective equipment or other saftey equipment without:

Safety equipment and clothing should be worn by the investigator on the fire scene:

An investigator should not work a fire scene alone. It is recommended that fire scene investigaions be conducted by the __________.

1: Rigor mortis is caused by chemical changes in muscle tissue.
2: Rigor mortis passes after 12-24 hours leaving joints and muscles limber again.
3: Rigidity of muscles caused by exposure to fire leaves the body in the same manner as rigor mortis.
A) All three are true
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true

Reasons to prematurely remove a fire victim's body from the building are:

1: If fire victims die rapidly (within seconds to a few hours) the cause is usually associated with heat, smoke, or carbon monoxide.
2: Fire deaths occurring in the first few days following the fire usually involve shock or fluid loss.
3: Fire deaths occurring several days to weeks after the fire usually are due to infections or organ failure.
A) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) All three are true
D) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

Asphyxiation

Anoxia

Hyperthermia

Burns

Internal edema

The best form of victim identification is:

The most predominant service to fire investigators that a laboratory provides is the analysis of fire debris to:

1: During trial, all evidence submitted will be kept by the courts and is not a concern of the fire investigator.
2: Once all appeals have been exhausted, the investigator may petition the court to destroy the evidence.
3: A written record of authorization to dispose of the evidence should be kept.
A) All three are true
B) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
C) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

1: Criminal cases such as arson require the evidence be kept until the case is adjudicated.
2: Circumstances may require that evidence be retained for many years.
3: Once all appeals have been exhausted, the investigator is free to dispose of the evidence.
A) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) All three are true
D) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false

1: An evidence log is a complete list of all items of evidence recovered from a fire scene.
2: Items of evidence corresponding to the evidence log can be packaged, labeled, or tagged.
3: Each person recovering evidence items must make their own entries into the log.
A) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
B) All three are true
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

No matter what kind of material is recovered or how carefully it is preserved, it is valueless as evidence if it has not been __________ and ___________ following the requirements for the chain of evidence.

__________ delivery minimizes the potential of physical evidence becoming damaged, misplaced, or stolen.

1: Firefighting gloves should be used whenever possible to collect evidence samples at a fire scene.
2: If latex gloves are used to collect samples, the gloves should be discarded after each use.
3: Some fire investigators number their latex gloves and the evidence.
A) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
B) All three are true
C) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true
D) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

At all times after its discovery and collection, physical evidence should be stored in a secure location that is designed and designated for this purpose. Whenever possible, this storage area should be controlled by the:

For every negative, a record must be kept of any transfer to any person other than the authorized storer. This is referred to as:

Steps for shipping physical evidence to a testing facility:

If flammable liquids are suspected of having been used to accelerate a passenger compartment fire, samples should be collected from the remaining upholstery, carpet, and carpet padding. When such samples are collected, the investigator should also include:

Physical State

Physical Characteristics

Fragility

Volatility

Preservation of evidence: fire debris with suspected accelerant

Preservation of evidence: glass fragments

Preservation of evidence: paper documents

The most commonly submitted form of evidence is __________ suspected of containing a residue of __________.

It is recommended that containers used for collection of __________ and __________ accelerants be limited to __________ types.

Evidence can be collected at the fire scene by:

Traces of suspected accelerant liquids can be recovered from concrete by absorbing them into:

Suspected chemical incendiary mixtures may be packaged in:

Action to be taken to preserve organic evidence collected at fire scene:

Any physical or tangible item that tends to prove or disprove a particular fact or issue is referred to as:

Most contamination of physical evidence occurs during:

While examining the scne of a kitchen fire, an investigator suspects that mechanical or electrical equipment is the source of ignition. What is the best option for laboratory anaysis?

1: If the chain of custody is broken, it cannot be restored.
2: If the chain of custody is broken, the evidence collected is valueless.
3: The importance of the chain of custody to a successful fire investigation cannot be overemphasized.
A) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false
B) All three are true
C) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
D) 3 is true; 1 and 2 are false
E) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

1: Traces of volatile liquids are likely to be found in areas of deep char or in the center of burned areas.
2: Many furnishings contain synthetic materials that share the same petroleum-based origin as most accelerants.
3: Control blanks of floor coverings may be found under large appliances or bookcases.
A) 3 is true; 1 and 2 are false
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
D) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false
E) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is fasle

The decision regarding what physical evidence to collect at the incident scene rests with the:

The recommended container for the collection of liquid and solid accelerant evidence is a:

It is recommended that collection of solid and liquid accelerant evidence be limited to several types of containers:

The form of arson evidence most commonly submitted for analysis can be classified as:

When collecting physical evidence for examination and testing, it is often necessary to also collect:

It is recommended that physical evidence collected for the purpose of examination and testing by a recognized forensic laboratory be:

The diagramming and photographing of a scene should always be accomplished before the physical evidence is:

Physical evidence should be thoroughly documented before it is moved. Documentation can be accomplished through:

Most contamination of physical evidence occurs during:

The __________ makes the decision on what physical evidence is to be collected at the fire scene and makes the appropriate documentation.

The preservation of evidence at the fire scene should begin with the:

Long-lived events in which the fault current is not high enough to trip the circuit overcurrent protection are called:

1: The size of the perimeter for both fire and explosion scenes may change several times during the incident.
2: The perimeter for explosions should be established at 1500' beyond the location of the farthest piece of debris found.
3: Access to the scene through the perimeter should be strictly monitored, with all persons who enter and leave being required to log in and out.
A) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
B) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
C) All three are true
D) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false

The value of __________ evidence depends on the fire investigator's efforts to maintain the __________ and __________ of that evidence from time of discovery to time of examination and testing.

Basic Method of a Fire Investigation

A preliminary report is often a brief summary of the incident and involves the:

The most important means of communication for a fire investigator is through:

The completeness and accuracy of a fire investigator's report is determined by its:

Which one of the following statements concerning report writing is false:
A) Report all allegations and suppositions, even if they are unsupported.
B) Write simply and clearly, using the "active" form of writing.
C) Avoid spelling errors; use simple active sentences.
D) Be sure the report is complete and all facts are reported accurately.

Which one of the following should not be included in the summary section of an investigation report?
A) Conclusions about the origin and cause of the fire
B) Names, addresses, and statements of witnesses
C) Date, time, and circumstances of the scene examination
D) Date, time, and location of fire

The primary purpose in photographing the scene would be to:

What pattern should photographic documentation follow?

The proper recording of a scene may require:

Aerial photographs

Witness viewpoint photograph

Evidence photograph

Interior photograph

Slides

Prints

Lens

One of the most important aspects to remember about fire investigation photography is:

Why is color film recommended to photograph fire scenes?

How would an investigator photograph an item to depict accurate dimensions of the item?

During a fire investigation, a witness surfaces who claims that while standing in a particular location, he/she was able to observe the fire in its incipent stage. A photograph of such a location can be referred to as a(n) ___________ photograph.

When photographing fire incidents, a fire investigator should avoid:

The exclusive use of video format documentation of a fire scene in place of still photography is not recommended because video photography is considered:

The most recognized and used camera for fire photography is a(n):

For a fire investigator to weave photographs and testimony together in court, photographs presented in court must:

The purpose of structural photographs is to show:

The purpose of providing photographs of a fire scene is to:

There are numerous speeds of film (ASA rating); 35 mm is the one most used by fire investigators. The common speeds range from 25 to 1600 in color and to 6400 in black and white. As the number increases, the film requires:

One of the most important aspects to remember about fire investigation photography is:

Fire scene sketches should be considered an important supplement to photographs and written notes. Their main importance to the investigation is to:

__________ ___________ should be considered important supplements to photographs and written notes, not replacements for them.

Topographical drawing

Electrical drawing

Site plan

Floor plan

Fire scene sketches should be considered important supplements to __________ and __________, not replacements for them.

Documentation of a fire scene involves measurements as well as pictorial documentation. Which system(s) would be used to formulate a meathod of measurements?
A) Coordinate system
B) Baseline system
C) Triangulation system
D) Angular displacement system
E) All of the above

The creation of the final sketch by the fire investigator would include information that would assist in locating various items at a later date. What information is required on the final sketch to provide this assistance?

In all fire cases, the minimum drawing should consist of:

The NFPA standard which references fire safety symbols is:

The most common fire scene sketch used by a fire investigator is a(n):

Which of the following systems of measurement should not be used when preparing a final fire scene sketch?
A) Paces and steps
B) Feet and inches
C) Meters and centimeters
D) All of the above may be used

A floor plan sketch or diagram of a structure consists of:

A sketch depicting the general arrangement of the property in reference to sewer, water, electrical distribution, and other important features is known as a:

Fire protection engineering deals with the relationship between:

1: A mechanical or materials engineer can help determine the reason that a drive shaft or bearing failed.
2: A hydraulic engineer can help determine whether the failure of a hydraulic system caused or contributed to a fire.
3: Many determinations involving specialized equipment are beyond the capabilities of most crime laboratory personnel.
A) 1 and 2 are true
B) 1 is true
C) All three are true
D) 2 and 3 are true

Mechanical engineer

Fire protection engineer

Attorney

Fire engineering technologist

Insurance agents and adjusters can provide assistance and information to the fire investigation such as:

In an effort to evaluate information given by a witness, it is important to consider whether or not the source is __________ and/or ___________ by conducting an evaluation of the witness' sources.

Municipal Street Department

State Fire Marshal's Office

County Assessor

Municipal Fire Department

Reports, documents, reference materials, and newspapers are all forms of __________ sources.

Telephone conversations, tape recordings, radio transmissions, and commercial radio broadcasts are all examples of __________ sources.

The State Fire Marshal's Office maintains public records regarding:

Documents that may be used during a fire investigation:

Health Department

Credit Union

Building Department

Title Companies

County Coroner/Medical Examiner

Municipal Treasurer

Municipal Assessor

A fire investigator can obtain a copy of a death certificate from the County Coroner/Medical Examiner or the:

Town/City Clerk

State Treasurer

United States Coast Guard

National Fire Protection Association

While correlating data and evaluating source information, a credible source that should be considered is:

1: During the interview, the most effective approach is to ask open-ended questions.
2: During the interview, the investigator should actively listen while maintaining eye contact.
3: During the interview, the investigator should anticipate what the interviewee is about to say.
A) All three are true
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

The two most common methods of documenting an interview are to:

While conducting an interview, it is important to remember that privileged communications apply to all of the following except:
A) Attorney and client
B) Fire chief and fire marshal
C) Priest and penitent
D) Husband and wife

Logical sequence to follow when developing an interview plan:

Purpose of the interview

Preparation for the interview

Documenting the interview

1: The express purpose of any interview is to gather useful, pertinent and accurate information.
2: The fire investigator must identify who is to be interviewed.
3: All identified parties to be interviewed should be kept together in a single, segregated location.
A) All three are true
B) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
C) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
D) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false

During the preparation for an interview, an investigator should develop a(n) __________ so that a __________ can be determined.

Conversations between a husband and wife, priest and penitent, and attorney and client are all forms of __________ and are made by persons within a __________.

The most important activity by the fire investigator in preparation for an interview is:

Which of the following is not a suggested procedure when interviewing one who must be approached with caution?
A) Verify the validity of information given by the interviewee
B) Conduct the interview in a public place
C) Use a flexible checklist
D) To prevent the possibility of prepared responses, do not make an appointment with interviewee

The use of a flexible checklist while conducting an interview may be helpful:

Interviews can be approached in three different ways. The three different attitudes of the investigator upon the approach are:

During an interview with a witness, the preferred method of documenting information obtained in the interview is:

A witness who has a documented specific interest in a fire may be considered a(n) __________ person.

In preparing for an interview, a fire investigator should always:

The solicitation of relevant and useful information in a statement should begin:

The purpose of an interview is to gather:

In fire-related deaths, the establishment of the cause and manner of death is the province of the:

Photography, video tapes, photographs, motion pictures, and computer-generated animation are all examples of __________ forms of information.

The "arson immunity acts" generally provide that an insurance company:

Civil litigation lawsuits typically involve claims of damages for:

1: A pretrial conference is not very important.
2: Make a list of your qualifications.
3: The jury does not have to concentrate on what you say.
A) 2 is true; 1 and 3 are false
B) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
C) All three are true
D) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false

The fire investigator should make sure that presentation information to the public or in court is:

1: A fact witness provides testimony that is sometimes referred to as lay testimony.
2: Expert witnesses always have the right to answer every question in full and explain their answers.
3: A fact witness is allowed to provide opinion testimony.
A) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
B) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
C) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
D) All three are true

If an expert witness is to testify on a scientific theory or technique, then it must be evaluated on four factors. The four factors are:

1: During pretrial preparation, notes and reports must be reviewed and questions or problems discussed with counsel.
2: Any errors discovered are best freely admitted to upon direct examination.
3: Charts, diagrams, or other visual aids must be planned ahead of time.
A) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
B) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true
C) All three are true
D) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

1: Proper dress is important for the image of the expert witness.
2: A suit is always proper dress for an expert witness.
3: If an expert witness wears a uniform in the performance of regular duties, it can also be considered proper dress.
A) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
B) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
C) All three are true
D) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false

1: Normally the weight of evidence as to the cause of a fire is determined by the same tests applied to other evidence.
2: The responsibilities of the expert witness are no greater than those of a fact witness.
3: An expert witness is allowed at the discretion of the court to provide opinion testimony.
A) 1 is false; 2 and 3 are true
B) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
C) 1 and 3 are true; 2 is false
D) All three are true

During testimony, the fire investigator should above everything else:

Expert testimony regarding the origin and cause determination of a fire must be:

To qualify as an expert witness you must:

The difference between fact testimony and expert testimony is a(n):

The final test of a fire investigation is its:

A fire investigator qualified as an expert should provide:

When testifying in leagal proceedings, a witness should testify:

1: In order to certify to NFPA 1033, fire investigators must be able to prepare a written report of an investigation they performed.
2: The investigative report is an offical record of the investigator's activities and findings
3: The purpose of the investigative report is to build a case.
A) 1 and 2 are true; 3 is false
B) 1 is true; 2 and 3 are false
C) 2 and 3 are true; 1 is false
D) All three are true

Recognized format when writing an investigative report:

Regarding the investigation section of the investigation report, how is a recorded interview included?

__________ is the means by which a party obtains documentation from the opposing party to prove its allegation regarding the information and/or evidence that is possesses.

A goal of every fire investigation is to produce __________ documents, samples, statements, information, data, and __________.

Court ruling contended that a fire investigator could offer an opinion that a fire was arson simply as a result of looking at evidence

The purpose of a(n) __________ serarch warrant is generally to allow those charged with the responsibility, by ordinance or statue, to investigate the origin and cause of a fire.

Which of the following is not a Miranda Right?
A) Remain silent
B) Statement they do make may be used as evidence against them
C) To have the presence of an attorney
D) To make a phone call

Discovery is the process occuring during the __________ phase of a legal proceeding.

Persons interviewed in custodial settings should be advised of their __________ rights.

Evidence from which one can derive an impression by seeing, touching, smelling, or hearing the evidence is known as __________ evidence.

Examples of demonstrative evidence

Example of documentary evidence
A) Architectural model
B) Sample can
C) Insurance policy
D) Tape recording
E) All of the above

Most frequently used types of illustrative or demonstrative evidence:

While fighting a fire, a firefighter who observes a gas can in plain view at the scene of a fire:

Type of sanctions imposed for failure to obey orders of a fire marshal, fire warden, or other officials and agents of public sector:

Spoilation of evidence:

The Supreme Court decision which held the investigation may continue for a reasonable period of time is:

Evidence of an accidental fire cause should:

The responsibility for evidence preservation rests with:

Arson/criminal prosecution

Arson immunity acts

Civil litigation

Privileged information

Confidential information

Freedom of information

The "right of entry" refers to legal right to be on a given premises or fire scene. Such entry can be obtained by all of the following except:
A) An Administrative Search Warrant
B) An exigent circumstance
C) Freedom of Information Law
D) An authorizing form of consent
E) A Criminal Search Warrant

Incandescent light bulbs of 25 watt or greater can sometimes show the dirction of heat impingement. The side of the bulb facing the heat will be:

The height to which smoke has stained the walls and windows of a room will reflect:

The rate of charring of wood varies widely depending on such variables as:

Inverted cone patterns are commonly caused by:

The solid residue that remains when wood is exposed to elevated temperatures is primarily:

Damage including charring of the underside of furniture, burning of carpet under furniture, uniform burning around the underside of doors, burning of floor covering in corners, and holes burned through carpet and floors is a sign of:

A wide "V" pattern at the base of a fire is a sign that the:

Ventilation-generated patterns are caused by blowing air over glowing embers, raising enough heat to melt metals. This can produce:

Which of the following statements is not a key variable that affects the validity of depth-of-char pattern analysis?
A) Depth of char is a good source to determine time of burning
B) When adjacent to ventilation source or opening, wood can exhibit deeper char
C) Char measurements should be compared only between identical materials
D) Ventilation factors influence the rate of burning

The term __________ is used by fire investigators to cover the numerous changes that occur in plaster or gypsum wall surfaces during a fire.

Thermal expansion of metal construction elements can be an indicator to the fire investigator of an:

Which letter represents the smoke stained area?

Which letter represents the heavy char area?

Which letter represents the location of photo and roll?