"pulmonary blood flow is larger than the systemic flow there is a "
child=coronary artery aneurysms
Kawasakidisas
a rare polyarteritis in infants and children-causes multiple small aneurysms at the branch points of the arteries and may lead to myocardial infarction
Kawasaki's disease
Three I's of MI's
ACLS Asystole & PEA Algorithm causes 5 T=
components of the pulmonary system
"lungs
upper airway =
"nose
lower airway=
"trachea
"the left lung has ____ lobes the right lung has ____ lobes"
cellular respiration is dependent on
"ventilation
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and the lungs
what artery supplies the anterior surface of the ventricles and the anterior 2/3 of the intraventricular septum thru septal branches
LAD
what arteries supplies anterior and in some individuals laterial surface of the septum V1-V2
Diagional branches
V3-V4=is associated with what artery
LAD
"Supplies the posterior and high lateral wall of left ventricle I
aVL
what percentage of people have the PDA branch supplying the inferior surfaceof the hearrt rises off of the CX artery and what is this considered
"10%
what obstructed vessel will produce ST elevation inferior & lateral leads
Prox obstruction of CX
what artery supplies RT ventricle thru a marginal branch
RCA
what percentage of people does the RCA supply the inferior surface of the ventricle called the posterior descending artery
90%
what artery also supplies posterior 1/3 of the intraventricular septum
PDA
"inferior stemi what leads"
what artery supplies the anterior wall of the RT ventricle
RCA Prox
the degree of blackness on a film is termed
radiographic density
Hpertrophy Pattern: initial large positive p wave in Lead II
Right Atrial Enlargement (RAE)
Hypertrophy pattern: elevated R waves in V1
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy (RVH)
"hypertrophy pattern: notched p in II
biphashic late negative p wave in V1"
hypertrophy pattern: large s in V1 and r-wave in V6 totaling >35mm
Left ventricle hypertrophy (LVH)
"surface ECG-Lead II large A
"surface ECG-Lead II large A and small V in left AV Grove"
surface ECG-Lead II large V only
RV apex
1st wave of atrial depolarization is
p wave
p wave and PR segment time from first atrial depolarization until the ventricle begins deplorizing
pr interval
first positive ventricular deplorization is
R wave
first positive and following negative ventricular depolarization
RS (QRS)
times from the end of QRS complex to beginning of T wave(ventricular repolarization)
QT interval
"delayed onset long acting narcotic"
"rapid onset short acting benzodiazepine"
"delayed onset long acting benzodiazepine"
when doing angiographic flood injections with a 4fr or 5fr catheter the injector pressure should not exceed
1000 psi
what should you closely monitor when using ionic or hi osmolar contrast during coronary arteriography
"ecg & ao pressure
how long does skin burns from x-ray radiation take to evolve and heal
a year
the amount of radiation that a physician is allowed to administer to a patient during PCI is
limited to the amount that can be clinically justified
what radiographic views will produce the highest x-ray exposure to staff working on the right side of patient
LAO-scatter radiation is greatest where the operator is in close proximity to the beam entry point
"calcium channel blockers effects and name some
Verapamil (isoptin) Do not use in CHF why
has a negative inotropic effect-to decrease the force of contraction. It would not be used in heart failure because it would decrease cardiac contractility even further
do not mix this med with other meds
sodium bicarb
this med you do not shake ampule and can cause pulmonary fibrosis
amidorone
major side effect with procainamide
"bradycardia
IV adenosine half life is
5 seconds
critical coronary stenosis occurs when the stenosis exceeds
> 50% reduction in diameter
retention of sodium and water by the kidney due to insufficient cardiac output is an example of
forward CHF
diamond shaped ejection murmur radiating toward the neck is
aortic stenosis-AS
arterial pulse which is felt as two distinct impulses during systole is term and is associated with
"Pulsus bisferiens
More than 10mmHg drop in BP with inspiration is
pulsus paradoxus
holostystolic or pansystolic murmurs occur in patients with
"MR-
what seeps out thru out systole
potassium
another term for ostiium secundum
foramen ovale
microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentage of each type of WHITE cell is called
differential blood count
NPH insulin dependent. What specific precautions should be taken with heparin
avoid revesing heparin with protamine
"the consent signed and witness by a nurse. Patient looks worry and start asking what this test is for and what is he really going to do. As a CV lab person what should you do"
and what is her really going to do. As a CV lab person what should you do"
NPH insulin dependent diabetic. Morning of cath they should be NPO and be administered
half dose of NPH Insulin
number of capillaries in the body is approxiately 3.0 x 10^9. this is
"3 billions-3
"a pt that has a prosthetic tilting disc aortic valve.what should be the physician's choice for left heart cath
"never cross a disc valve(bjork st jude) why?
what is the lowest profile dilation catheter which may be used as a balloon of last resort in crossing very tight lesions
fixed wire or on the wire
"when performing right heart catheterization by the sones/cutdown technique. when would the venous torniquet MOST likely be applied"
at the start of prepping the arm or even sooner to identify a good vein
"which type of stent design provides the best flexibility diliverability and side branch access"
open cell stents
varied geometry is what type of stent
open cell stents
same geometry is what type of stent
closed cell stents
"the ""rate of rise""adjustment on power injectors is used to "
reduce catheter whip
what piece of equipment in the ep lab allows you to select different electrode pairs from the intracardiac electrodes for monitoring or stimulation
junction box or swithch box
what gauge is the long needle used for transseptal catheterization
18 gauge diameter which tapers to 21 gauge at the curved tip
after valvuloplasty which valve has the worst long term outcome
aortic valvuloplasty
what valvuloplasty least successful
ao valvuloplasty
what closure device is suture medicated
perclose
what closure device is passive pressure
femostop (radi)
what closure device is staple medicated
evs-angiolink (medtronic)
what closure device is extravascular collagen
angio seal (st jude)
in emergency temporary pacing the designation for asynchronous pacing is
VOO
the physiologic sensors found in most rate responsive pacers that responds most rapidly to the onset of exercise is a/an ____ that senses ______.
accelerometer, motion
porous tip steroid eluting pacer electrode tips are used because they
decrease acute stimulation threshold
adequate acute VVI pacemaker implant setting are a sensed R wave _____ and an acute stimulation threshold _____, (< mean less than)
>4 mV, <2 V
the perclose hemostatic closure device uses
nonabsorbable suture is permanent
a major advantage to using ICE - intracardiac echocardiography vs TEE
no general anestheia needed
intracardiac echocardiography uses as an injectable contrast agent to view shunts or distinguish the right heart from the left heart chambers
agitated saline
the x-ray dose per frame for cine acquisition technique is approxiately ______ times than fluoroscopy
15
"compared with dx cath, angioplasty and PCI has ______ times more risk of major complications and death"
10
the amount of stretch inherent in balloon materials is termed
compliance is the inverse of stiffness
"the ""kissing balloon technique"" is used in _____ lesions to prevent ______."
Bifurication lesions, shifting of plaque
in x-ray technique, adequate mA results in
inadequate photons are generated
the fluorescent screen of an image intensifier uses
cesium iodide
the modern device that converts x-rays into visible light is the
flat panel detector
in coronary cine angiography, the mA setting has the greatest influence over
ultimate density of the image
which part of an x-ray tube produces the s-ray photons
target on the rotating anode
x-ray photon strength is most affected by
kilovoltage
a major advantage of using high "mA" settings during, angiography is
decreased pulse width duration (reduces motion blurring by shortening as exposure time)
in cororary cine angiography a long pulse width (exposure time) may cause
blurring due to motion
ic verapamil may be called for in case of
coronary artery spasm
these effectively prevent coronary vasospasm and variant angina and they should be administered in perference to beta-blockers
calcium channel blocker
"following the reopening of a totally occcluded prox RCA using a stiff .014 guide wire angiography reveals a small amount of dye entering the anterior right atrium. This most likely caused by"
what is the normal angiographic appearance of a perforation
staining of the pericardium
"while wiring a diseased circ coronary artery prior to stenting you notice a contrast stain or blush outside the coronary silhouette near the area of greatest tortuosity
what is the most common cause of tamponade is the interventional lab
perforation or rupture of coronary artery
what type of device remove plaque and calcium by pulverizing (rotablader) or vaporizing (laser) it and allowing it to flow antegrade thru the capillary bed
athero-ablation
what type of device remove and pull out plaque from lesions
atherectomy
what type of device remove and pull out clots
thrombectomy
"what type of device do not remove plaque, they repair lesions by pressing the plaque against the arterial wall"
"when does CABG surgery tend to prolong pt life as compared to PCI"
what is the MAIN OBJECTIVE in treating pt with acute MI
restore blood flow to the ischemic myocardium
"what can be salvage thru thrombolytic drugs
acute ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) usually occurs when a coronary lesion has
total thrombotic coronary occlusion
current medical guidelines only recommend PTCA & Stenting on stable angina pt with symptomatic coronary artery disease when
medical therapy has failed
stable angina should be 1st treated how
medically
the sub-types of acute coronary syndrome which heart muscle is damaged include
"unstable angina
the PTFE covered stents or stent-grafts contain a
distensable micro-orous Teflon membrane
emergency coronary stenting may be necessary in the case of
spiral dissection
what type of stents is NOT recommended in degenerated SVG
PTFE covered stents
how many mm of the stent is deployed in the prox/parent vessel when a crushing stent technique is performed in a bifurcation lesion
4-5mm
"what type of stenting is it when a stent is deployed at the ostium of the side branch followed by a second stent in the parent vessel"
"in a DES the term ""eluting"" means
what type of cardiac pt are most prone to in-stent restenosis
diabetics
"in sirolimus drug eluting stents approx 80% of the active drug is released within
1 month
in the paclitaxel eluting stent 50% of the active drug is dissolved out in
1 month
on the average what types of pt receiving angioplasty and stent therapy have their life extended
acute STEMI pt live longer
statistics show that appropriate stent placement in pt with unrelieved stable angina, help pt's how
relieves angia pain and improves the quality of life
this technique is used for dilating rigid lesions that fail to dilate with your initial balloon
force-focused angioplasty
sirolimus=
cypher-cordis
paclitaxel=
taxus - boston sci.
zotarolimus=
rapimycin analog-medtronic
everolimus=
rapimycin analog-abbott vasc.
the DES agent Sirolimus (rapimycin) was originally derived from
bacteria from easter island soil
what type of cardiac pt are most prone to in-stent restenosis
diabetics
the major benefit of bare metal stent placement compared with balloon angioplasty is
reduction in restenosis with BMS
the risk of repeat CABG is how many times that of the first operation
2-3 times
"which type of stents have the best flexibility and tend to conform better on tight bends. These stents also provide better access to jailed side branches by staggering the cross elements"
an off-label use of a DES would be for
SVG stenosis
"one level of acute coronary syndrome is unstable angina. The expected cause of UA/NSTEMI is that a major coronary artery has _________ and its optimal treatment is."
partial or intermittent thrombus, treated with antiplatelet, antithrombin, and antianginal therapy
"in rotational atherectomy "" Orthogonal Displacement of Friction"" describes "
advancing a rotating burr is much easier than a stationary burr
"in the rotational atherectomy ""Rotablator""system the two foot pedals are a/an high speed turbine and a for dynaglide low-speed mode"
"on-off switch
"for safest and optimal rotational atherectomy, final burr size should be a _____burr/artery ratio of to the reference vessel diameter with adjunctive PTCA inflations of ."
which lesion below would be most successfully treated with and is an indication for rotational atherectomy
restenotic lesion
"when using rotational atherectomy to do PCI on a pt's left coronary artery who has a LV EF 30% what propylactice therapy should be initiated first. And if it is RCA what therapy"
when connecting rotational atherectomy advancer drive shaft to the catheter drive shaft at the Rotalink a burr shaft into the advancer shaft and then .
"snap
"the acronym for final equipment checkout prior to insertion of the rotablator is_____ and means _______ ."
and means ."
what is the most common complication following a transvenous pacemaker implant
lead dislodgement
what parameters could be reprogrammed to stop a DDD pacemaker induced tachycardia
atrial refractory period
what adjustment changes a temp pacemaker from the demand mode to asynchronous mode
decrease pacer sensitivity
use synchronized cardioversion for stable
vt
heart failure pt comes to the cath lab with a DDDRV pacemaker. He has a total of how many leads and their locations
biventricular pacing to improve rv & lv synchrony in BBB is also termed
cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT)
a blood adnormality commonly found in pt with prosthetic valve is
hemolytic anemia
a condition in which red blood cells are destroyed (hemolyzed) from the bloodstream before their normal life-span (120 days) is up
hemolytic anemia
what mechanical prosthetic heart valve has the best flow characteristics and is most commonly implanted worldwide
what valvuloplasty pt has the poorest long term results? Pt with
calcific aortic stenosis
"another term for balloon ""mitral valvuloplasty"" is"
perc mitral commissurotomy
when is perc mitral valvuloplasty contraindicated for mitral stenosis
coexistent mitral regurgitation or la mural thrombus
during pericardiocentesis if the needle accidentally touches the myocardium you will see
st elevation
when using the Excimer laser in coronary atherectomy just prior to and while energizing the laser in a plaque
flush 20-30 ml of saline into the guide catheter
metabolic syndrome is also known as
syndrome X or insulin resistance syndrome
"increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease and diabetes associated with central obesity
"mi pt develops othopnea ________
tachypnea
fluid in the alveoli
pulmonary edema
advanced left heart failure is most associated with
interstitial pulmonary edema
a direct injury to the lung parenchyma is termed
noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
a pt with a decrescendo diastolic murmur and wide arterial pulse pressure probably has
aortic insufficiency-AI
where should you start the iv when a radial artery cath is scheduled
contralateral arm
"svt should not be defibrillated, it should be"
cardioverted
a pt with acute MI is brought to your labe on a nitro drip. He has SVT at a rate of 200/min. he is pale and lethargic. 1st thing the physician will probably want to do is
administer adenosine
"the legal rule that holds each individual responsible for his or her own actions is termed"
how many pt identifiers are required before proceeding with an Invasive procedure
2
"which federal agnecy creates regulations to protect ""pt rights"""
HIPAA
Class I anti-arrythmics causes _____conduction velocity and are termed ____
"in the Vaughan Williams classification, what complications should be watched for"
drugs that affect phase 0 of action potental are class antiarrhythmic in the Vaughn Willams classification
class I
the 1st treatment for symptomatic narrow QRS complex tachycardia is
vagal maneuvers
active half life of adenosine
10-30 seconds
elimination half life of amiodarone
4-8 weeks
a synthetic catecholamine drug that is a pure beta stimulant and increase myocardial 02 consumption is
isoproterenol (isuprel)
"when isoproterenol (isuprel) is administered to a coronary pt, what complications should be watched for"
rapid bolus injection of procainamide may cause
hypotension
maximum dose of procainamide is
17mg/kg
what platelet receptor site does abciximab (reopro) block
glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
name 3 Glycoprotein Iib/IIIa inhibitors
asa works in blood because it interferes with
prostaglandin synthesis of thromboxane A2
what drug prevents thrombin formation and thus prevents fibrin clots from forming
heparin
low molecullar weight heparin (LMWH) is different from unfractionated heparin in that
"LMWH is administered subcutaneously
in cath lab the most sensitive parameter to monitor for over sedation is
o2 sat
which analgesic also reduces myocardial oxygen deman through arterial and venous dilation and decreased HR
morphine
what is the concentration of 2 grams of lidocaine in 500cc of D5W
4mg/ml
calculate the concentration of 1 gram of epinephrine in 250 ml
4mg/ml
to mix a dopamine drip to a strength of 1600 mcg/ml in a 250 ml saline bag add
400mg/250ml
which electrolyte imbalance exacerbates digitalis (digoxin) toxicity
hypokalemia
names some calcium channel blockers
what is the main use for calcium channel blockers
is to decrease blood pressure through vasodilation of smooth muscle
"what is the standard therapy for angina hypertension
for a diabetic pt with post-cath decreased renal function give
iv saline hydration
oliguria is what
decreased production of urine is a pt
contrast agent which has the lowest osmolarity
visapaque(iodixanol)
how is radiographic contrast eliminated from the body
filtered out by the kidneys and excreted in urine
the dosage of methylergonovine to provoke prinzmetal's angina is
"0.05mg
is a disorder of the pericardium in which the pericardium becomes swollen or inflamed
pericardititis
causes of pericarditis
"bacterial or viral infections
is a disorder caused by the accumulation of large amount of fluid in the pericardium
pericardial effusion
the pericardium is divided into how many layers
3
a microscopic blood exam that estimate the percentage of each type of white cell is called
differential blood count
a pt with oliguria may be treated with a
foley catheter
the blood flow thru the ivc and svc is termed the
venous return
the sa node lies at the junction of the
svc & ra
where to measure ST segment elevation on an EKG
j point
average stroke volume in adults is
70ml
what is the range of average stroke volume in adults
60-130ml
what are the bipolar leads on a 12 lead ekg
"what class of drug is prescribed in htn
what drug decrease peripheral vascular resistance
morphine
what drug should not be given or given with caution to those with asthma
"inderol(propranolol)
what drug is given for a MI to decrease preload and afterload
nitro
how does epi effect afterload
increases afterload
drugs used in the ccl to increase heart rate
what is the name of low molecular weight heparin
lovenox(enoxaparin)
aminodarone dose for arrythmias is
150mg
aminodarone dose for cardiac arrest
300mg
what drug can you use for vagal reactions and sinus bradycardia
atropine
contraindication for lidocaine is
heart block
nitro effects preload and afterload how
it decreases both
how do diuretics work
they reduce volume
what happens to vessels when the beta receptors are stimulated
the vessels dialate
what happen to vessels when alpha receptors are stimulated
the vessels constrict
what are 2 main types of adrenergic receptors
alpha & beta
what enzyme is made in the liver that effects bp
angiotensinogen
where are the baroreceptors located
aortic arch & carotids
how does the body control bp
baroreceptors
"the purpose for the iabp is to ______coronary artery perfusion
increase
what is a sign of right side heart failure
jugular distention
what most likely cause increased pulmonary blood flow & possibly pulmonary edema
a PDA(patent ductus arteriosus)
what valve has the smallest valve area
aortic valve
what will cause a pacemaker to fail to capture in the rv
lead dislodgement
vascular resistance is most greatly influenced by
the radius of the tube(vessel)
what is the acls protocol for monophasic defibrillation
200-300-360 joules
if there is a valve stenosis or regurg. Which CO should you use
fick co
what does the C wave represent
onset of ventricular contraction
where do you measure thermal dilution cardiac outputs
greatest percentage of peripheral stenosis occure where
lower extremities
where is the most common renal stenosis located
ostial
equalization of LV-EDP & RVEDP =
constrictive pericarditis
when are the coronary arteries perfused
during ventricular diastole
what is the normal amount of blood in the pericardium
50ml
if the pr interval is .25 where is the delay
in the av node
normal pr interval is
.12-.20
pulmonic stenosis is generally associated with what
congential anomalies
to view pulmonary stenosis where do you inject the contrast
right ventricle
what is the best choice of catheter to use on a lca with a high take off
amplatz
what converts x-rays to light rays
image intensifier
what is the max dose of radiation a worker can receive in a year
5 REM
the most important factor in decreasing x-ray exposure to a pt is to
decrease the time of exposure
radiation absorbed dose=
RAD
"in the terms rao & lao the r and the l refers to what"
the r and the l refers to what"
what pacemaker synchronize the contraction of the ventricles
bi-ventricular
"in order the first three letters of the pacemaker code mean what"
what type of pacemaker have a unique abiltiy to sense the hearts intrinsic activity and pace only when needed
synchronous (demand) pacemakers
the ideal contrast volume to be given to the pt. is
3ml/kg
osmolarity refers to the ability of the contrast to
pull fluid into the intravascular space
shortness of breath indicates right or left sided heart failure
left sided
jugular vein distention can be caused by
what is the best balloon to use on an artery that has a tendency to close
perfusion balloon
if a pt has a heart rate of 150 bpm assist on the iabp should be set at what
2:1
what is the possible complication of over tightening the touchy
unable to inflate the balloon
where does the needle enter for a pericardiocentesis
sub-xyphoid process
"during a rotoblator intervention, what is the most common cause of ""no flow"""
"the symptoms of increased heart rate, decreased bp & sob during a biopsy may indicate what"
what type of balloon works for calcified lesion
cutting
intermost layer of an artery is
intima
increased bicarb will do what to the blood ph
elevate HC03 & increase the ph
a high CO2 will impact the ph how
lower the ph level in the blood
what would be the approciate intervention for a pt with respiratory acidosis
increase ventilations
a blood ph less then 7.35 or greater then 7.45 is called
uncompensated
metabolic acidosis has a low level of what
bicarb (HCO3)
pseudoaneurysm is what type of aneursym
FALSE
what is often a pulsatile mass near the sheath site with a bruit present
pseudoaneurysm
post procedure renal dysfunction is more likely to occur in pt with
the most accurate measure of cardiac muscle fiber damage after a MI is what
tropronin
what does asa do
prevents platlet adhesion
what medications turn off the receptor sites on the platlets (super asa)
ticlid & plavix
what medication impacts antithrombin & factor Xa
lovenox(enoxaparin)
what medication prevents the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
heparin
name some antiplatlet meds
"ticlid(ticlopidine), asa, plavix, effient
what typically increase to compensate for constrictive diseases which impede filling
preload
in cardiac tamponade venous pressure and arterial pressure
"rise
"in an aortic pressure recording, a gradual upstroke with a prominent low anacrotic notch is indicative"
left ventricular mass is determined angiographically from measuring the heart wall thickness during what stage of the cardiac cycle
end diastole
what is the BEST indicator of the exact moment the aortic and pulmonary valves open
beginning of systolic rise on the arterial pressure
overdrive suppression of torsade de pointes and atrial flutter works by pacing the heart ________ faster than the intrinsic HR
10-40 beats/min
cardiac myxomas are usually located in the
left atrium
which of the following may be caused by rapid accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac
atrioventricular gradient
what will markedly elevate right ventricular systolic pressure suggest
infundibular stenosis
if a pt has a large s-wave in lead I and a large R-wave in V-5 you might suspect
LVH
"if T-wave sensing occurs in ventricular demand or synchronous pacing, what must be done to the programmable generator"
"arterial pressure drops with inspiration, while RV pressure increases"
anacrotic notch characteristic of
AS
"in pts with debilitating a-fib that is unsatisfactorily treated with med. Or anti-tachy pacing, the cardiologist may decide to ""ablate & pace"" this involves"
elective cardioversion via R2 pads for a-fib should start at a minimun of joules
100
synchronized cardioversion delivered during the QRS complex is used for all cardioversion except
rapid ventricular tachycardias
radio freq ablation works to slow or terminate tachy _____
reentry
the RF signal destroys myocardial tissue by
heating it
what medication helps electrical cardioversion of a fib (to NSR)
ibutilide
what does a magnet do when applied to a pt's ICD
inhibits the tachy (shocking) portion of the icd
"during ICD testing after implant how is vf induced"
when programming a pt's ICD how high should you set the defibrillation output level
10 joules safety margin
with ICD's the lowest energy that achieves successful defibrillation is termed
defibrillation threshold (DFT)
when cardioverting or defibrillating most modern ICD's utilize RA coils & Left pectoral generator cam as the _________
positive electrode
cardioversion from an ICD may be painful to the pt. one method to reduce this discomfort in ventricular tachy pt with ICD's is to
incorporate anti-tachy pacing (ATP)
current ICD's use high efficiency cardioversion & defibrillaton. The most efficient shock waveforms are
biphasic waveforms
Most ICD sensing electrodes are biopolar transvenous _______electrodes
rv
the only shunt NOT normally present in the fetus just prior to birth is the
ostium primum
outflow tract of the rv =
infundibulum
aortic dicrotic notch marks the beginnng of ventricular
isometric relaxation
"which part of the automomic system is termed ""chlinergic"" and when stimulated how does it effect the heart rate."
parasympathetic- slows it down
greatest expenditure of O2 during cardiac cycle is used to
open the aortic valve(isometric contraction)
the anterior cerebral artery feeds the
midbrain
normal fetal pathways between aorta & pa can be described as a R-L shunt termed the
patent ductus arteriosus
intrinsic ability of the heart to contract with a particular intensity is termed
inotropism
arterioles are the principal point where _________resistance develops
vascular
with exercise PA 02 saturations_____ and the (AO-PA) arteriovenous difference ________ .
flap of tissue at the junction of the IVC & the RA normally found in the fetal heart is the
Eustachian valve
in normal fetal life the foramen ovale is situated to preferentailly shunt oxgenated blood from the
IVC
congenital defect results from the failure of the normal separation of the aorta & pulmonary artery
truncus arteriolsus
what syndrome is fainting due to insufficient cerebral blood flow
adams stokes attack
tetralogy of fallot-there exists a systolic pressure gradient between what 2 cardiac chambers or vessels
RV & PA
congntial defects is usually acyanotic is
PDA
normal situs on PA chest x-ray shows
"left sided stomach bubble, right side hepatic shadow
mitral valve=pansystolic murmur and is heard at the
apex of the heart
children ebsteins's anomally=
ASD
kawasaki's disease in children =
coronary artery aneurysms
aortic stenosis is classified as what type of disease
outflow obstructive
HOCM is associated with
myocardial fiber disarray
ventricular myopathy associated with amyloidosis
restrictive cardiomyopathy
"considering all shocks, only one results in an elevated wedge pressure"
the ventricles are incorrectly positioned on the right side of chest is
dextrocardia
cardiac situs solitus is
normal cardiac position
is a vacular tumor of chromaffin tissue of the adrenal medulla
pheochromocytoma
how is the initial V-V programming of a new biventricular pacemaker optimized
echocardiogram, minimize septal wall motion and maximze Doppler VTI
it is important in the 6-8 hours after coronary angiography for pt's to drink
41-2 quart of fluid
what tumor causes increased epinephine release often leading to HTN