1. Uniforms are required for testing and publications checks in the 62 OG testing center.
A. True
B. False
A
2. Checkride pre-requisite tests will be completed _______________.
B.
3. Pilots who fail the Instrument Exam (i.e. CBT at L3) ___________________.
B.
4. Aircraft commanders will verify tanker status prior to departure on local training missions.
A. True
B. False
A
5. When will at least one crewmember monitor Command Post frequency?
A.
6. It is acceptable to block in or out at McChord Field without a marshaller if there are no obstacles within 25 feet.
A. True
B. False
B
7. According to AFI 11-2C-17v3_62_AW_SUP_1, what restrictions are in place when the AHAS bird condition is severe for a low-level?
C.
8. If a birdstrike is found crews must accomplish:
D.
9. How should liquids be given to anyone in the pilot or co-pilot seat?
A.
10. When must aircraft commanders review the OPORD?
A.
11. When a scheduled takeoff time (on planning day) will change by ____ minutes or more to meet a planned TOT or RZCT, the aircraft commander will notify _____________________________.
B.
12. Aircrew requests for MTRs, drop zones, NVG ops, and the assault landing zones will be made to the Local Barrel through the AMT database prior to when?
C.
13. Who is the approval authority for cancelling a local training flight?
B.
14. If a hung flare is discovered during the ground inspection, what should you do?
A.
15. Combat offloads on training missions will only be accomplished at McChord Field unless otherwise approved by the 62 or 446 OG/CC.
A. True
B. False
A
16. Why must the crew talk to ground control prior to commencing and after completing combat offloads at McChord field?
B.
17. Training is authorized at which of the following fields on a local training mission?
B.
18. Unless otherwise directed by ATC, what is the VFR pattern altitude at McChord Field?
A.
19. Crews accepting a "remain east of runway 32R/14L" clearance at KMWH will ___________________.
C.
20. What are the normal hours of training for transition work at McChord Field without an OG/CC waiver?
C.
21. Choose the most correct statement with regard to circling at McChord Field.
D.
22. During day VFR conditions at KTCM do not exceed ___________ feet MSL on missed approach until ____________.
A.
23. (At KTCM) Do not turn crosswind/closed until reaching _________ feet AGL. Additionally, when departing RWY 16, do not turn crosswind until ______________. Do not turn base for RWY 34 until ________________.
C.
24. What is the maximum speed at KTCM in the VFR pattern (i.e. below class B airspace) without any specific ATC coordination?
C.
25. The maximum descent rate at KMWH for non-precision approaches to runway 32R is _____ FPM, until ______________.
C.
26. The VFR traffic pattern altitude at KMWH for runways 14L/32R and 04/22 is _______ feet MSL. The VFR pattern for runway 09/27 is _______ feet MSL.
A.
27. Touch-and-go landings may be performed on runway 04/22 at KMWH.
A. True
B. False
B
28. What is the minimum weather required for extended operations at KMWH (ETA plus one hour after departure)?
A.
29. Aircraft entering the pattern for Coulee LZ, runway 27 or 9, will normally enter via the VFR entry point _________, defined as MWH ______________.
B.
30. The _____ foot overrun at the departure end of KMWH runway ___ may be added to TOLD runway available for operations.
C.
31. Crews can perform GOAT or full-stop assault training while another C-17, including formation aircraft, is on any portion of Taxiway F at KMWH.
A. True
B. False
B
32. Coordinate with _________ prior to planning a random low-level route...All planned low-level routes, local and off-station, not published in FLIP AP/1B, will be drawn on a sectional aeronautical chart (PFPS product suffices as long as all Airspace, SUAS, and MTRs are depicted) and approved by _________ personnel NLT two duty days prior to mission departure.
C.
33. According to the letter of agreement with Seattle ARTCC, which of the following is true with regard to IR and VR low-levels scheduled by 62 AW?
D.
34. If proximity of adverse weather (lightning within five miles, etc.) prevents the maintenance block in/out crew from marshalling aircraft the crew will _______________________ until the lightning advisory has been lifted and a marshaller is available to block the aircraft in/out.
D.
35. Pilots should avoid overflight of Brown's Point during VFR conditions.
A. True
B. False
A
36. __________will ensure Mission Kits are inventoried IAW 62 OGI 11-3 or for the 446 OG current guidance established at the OGV SharePoint Site.
D.
37. Aircraft Commanders will review mission tasking (FRAG) and ensure sufficient planning and coordination is accomplished _____________________________.
B.
38. Halon, carbon dioxide, or water-type fire extinguishers will NOT be used on fires involving pyrotechnics or magnesium incendiaries due to the risk of explosions.
A. True
B. False
A
39. Missions requiring a specific departure time to meet a TOT or RZCT will notify ________ of the required departure time _____________________.
B.
40. Aircrews will annotate all fuel receipts received away from Home Station on the _________________ and ensure all Fuel receipts are attached or put into the Form. The ____________ will be turned in at MX debrief when the aircraft has returned to home station.
C.
41. Aircrews may utilize all civil fields during _________________after coordinating with the airspace manager and in accordance with FLIP.
B.
42. Non-precision approaches to Runway 16 at KTCM should be planned ________________.
D.
43. Avoid overflying Pacific Lutheran University and avoid Spanaway Airport by at least 3000' and 3 SM.
A. True
B. False
B
44. Where are the designated hot brakes areas at McChord Field?
A.
45. What is the maximum altitude a crew may plan when EPOS is used as a primary source of oxygen for passengers?
D.
46. Which of the following is correct according to 62 OG FCB?
D.
47. Who should be the designated CRM monitor on a crew?
D.
48. Which of the following is appropriate adherence to strict professional flight and crew discipline?
D.
49. Who can replace aircraft armor once it has been removed due to possible interference with flight controls?
C.
50. What is the minimum number unmodified or modified 2 MA-1 oxygen bottles and where must they be placed on the aircraft?
C.
51. Where can backing be accomplished at McChord Field outside of training hours (0500L-2300L)?
B.
52. During local training missions, loadmasters should occupy either the LACM or RACM seat during at least one take off, one landing and, if a low level is planned, during the low level.
A. True
B. False
A
53. Who is authorized on an operational mission to approve an SDP or subtract 48'/NM from the published (or standard) climb gradient for OEI planning?
C.
54. What is the minimum weather a destination airfield must have before an alternate is required (assume 2 runways with independent precision approaches are available)?
C.
55. On jets with a new ADTD installed with Block 18, where is the external USB drive stored?
D.
56. How many aircraft may operate in the pattern at KMWH during extended ops hrs?
D.
57. The ADTD is an approved medium for viewing E-PUBS.
A. True
B. False
B
58. When will PICs use the MAF Debrief Guide to conduct a crew debrief?
A.
59. When are Jeppesen Terminal Instrument Procedures approved without a Terminal Instrument Procedures (TERPS) review?
D.
60. An aircraft commander with less than 100 hours since AC certification will accomplish all takeoff and landing, from the left seat, under the following conditions: