COA study

  1. The ____ ocular shield is a fenestrated aluminum shield.
  2. A____ patch must not be used on a patient with a lacerated globe.
  3. _______ drugs are applied directly to ocular surfaced and/or surrounding tissues.
  4. What is the term for a drug that dissolves completely in a slovent?
  5. A ____ is a combination of liquid and drug particles, such as PF, prednisolone acetate
  6. What is the test used for detecting a RAPD
    Swinging light test
  7. which muscle of the iris constricts in bright light?
  8. how is the anterior chamber depth estimated using a slit lamp?
    A highbeam is placed at the limbus 60 degress and the distance between the two beems of light are compared with the thickness of the optical section of the cornea
  9. Which two ocular structures can touch if the anterior chamber is flat
    Iris and cornea
  10. which instrument measures the radius of curvature, or base curve, of a spectacle lens surface in diopters.
    Geneva lens clock
  11. The mannerisms of blind children, such as walking in circles or rubbing thier hands, are termed?
  12. what is the most common cause of blindness in the world?
  13. what diagnostic term is used when a patient's chief complaints are "tired eyes and fatigue" when describing symptoms
  14. what type of glaucoma presents with the following ocular signs and symptoms: fixed mid-dilate pupil, corneal edema, red eye, blurry VA, and pain.
    Accute angle-closure glaucoma
  15. what are the 5 principle areas included in the history interview
    Chief complaint, ocular history, medical history, family ocular and medical histories and allergies.
  16. Onset and duration of sx are included in the patients____
  17. what should you do if a patient is unable to provide you with the names of the medications he/she is taking.
    have the patient call your office at a later time or ask if you can contact their PCP or pharmacy.
  18. a patient that is describing an experience of getting hives after taking sulfa drugs is providing information about_______
    An allergic reaction
  19. A partially sighted patient can legally have a best corrected visual acuity of _____ in thier best eye?
  20. Legal blindness is defined as?
    20/200 in best eye, or a VF of 20 degrees or less in their best eye.
  21. which systemic disease might cause a patient to need a snack during a CE
    Diabetes type I
  22. In metric notation 100cm are equal to ___meters or ____millimeters
    1, 1000
  23. how many deciliters make one liter
  24. Universal precautions are mandated by OSHA but were developed by the _______
  25. Washing hands between patients is one example of_____
    Universal precations
  26. What instrctions would be given over the phone to a patient who had splashed a chemical into the eyes?
    Immediately flush the eyes with water for 15-20 minutes and the report to the ER or ophthalmologist's office.
  27. The most common type of glaucoma is __________?
    POAG, primary open angle glaucoma
  28. Instrument lenses that contact the eye can be sterilized by _________________
    ethylene oxide gas, and non-heat aeration that does not exceed degrees F
  29. Aqueous drains out of the eye through this net-like structure.
    Trabecular meshwork.
  30. Which dye solution is used when performing Goldmann applanation tonometry?
    Flouescein Dye
  31. Which device uses compressed gas to applanate the cornea and measure the intraocular presssure?
    Pneumatotonometer and pneumatic or "Air puff"
  32. What is the diameter of the corneal area properly applanated by a Goldmann tonometer?
  33. How many measutements does the Tono-pen record to give an averae IOP result?
  34. Which tonometer device uses converion tables to convert units into millimeters of mercury?
    Schiotz tonometer.
  35. What are the three colors of receptors found in cones?
    Red, blue, and green
  36. what is the term for the thickest layer of the cornea
  37. What is the visual symptom, and its cause, often experienced by diabetic patients durnig episodes of increased BS?
    Blurred VA, caused by changes in the refractive index of the crystalline lens (myopic shift when RI increased and hyperopic shift when RI decreases.)
  38. Episodes of sudden temporary VA loss most likely indicate a disorder of which physiological system.
  39. What is the color of bottle caps of prostaglandin agents?
  40. What are the names of three large groups of anti-infective agents?
    Antibiotic, antiviral and antifungal
  41. A true allergic reaction to a drug invovles what symptoms?
    Itch, rash, difficulty breathing weak or rapid pulse
  42. What is a sign of sub-conjunctival hemorrhage?
    Blood pooling under the conjunctiva.
  43. Within how many hours should a patient with a retinal detachment be evaluated?
    24 hours
  44. what is the most common symptom in age-related macular degeneration?
    Loss/decreaed central VA
  45. Which type of tonometer may be cleaned with a dry pip cleaner?
  46. What may cause a rim artifact in perimetry?
    Corrective lens too far from the eye
  47. Commercial cleaners may be used to clean which type of mirror?
    back surface mirror
  48. The Goldmann applanation tonometer prism is best cleaned between patients with _______
    Alcohol or hydrogen peroxide.
  49. What is the reason to not immerse a laminated projector slide in water, in order to clean it?
    Water can enter between the two glass slides and wash off the letters or leave permanent water marks
  50. What size letters (optotypes) are typically used to calibrate visual acuity projectors?
  51. What type of solutions should NOT be used on plastic prisms
  52. What is the next step after disinfecting a Goldmann applanation tonometer tip with alcohol?
    Let it air dry for 1-2 minutes.
  53. Wipe the cross cylinder with a lens tissue occasionally, protect the instrument with a dust cover when not in use, and clean the retinoscopy lens with a glass cleaner and cotton-tipped swabs are good practices with regard to care of which instrument?
  54. Scheduled maintenance of a phoropter should be performed how often?
    Every two years
  55. If dust accumulates on the mirror of the slit lamp, the technician may clean it by using what cleaning methods?
    A lint-free cloth, a lens brush, or blast of air
  56. A standard habit for all personnel who use the slit lamp should be_______?
    Check the electrical connections and lock the base
  57. What must be checked when troubleshooting why a non-portable ultrasonic biometer fails to power up?
    Instrument fuses, electrical connections, or the circuit breaker.
  58. What is the correct way to clean the surface of the lenses of a lensmeter when dust has fallen on them?
    Blow it off with a clean, dry rubber bulb syringe or compressed air.
  59. If the lensmeter controls feel tight to the operator, who should fix it?
    A qualified service technician.
  60. In order to maintain the retinoscope, generally you need to keep an adequate supply of _______ in the examining room.
    Spare bulbs and batteries
  61. The bestway to maintain Tangent Screen Tests Objects is to____________
    Wash with mild soap and water
  62. What is the best way to maintain a tangent screen?
    Dust occasionally.
  63. What is the most likely reason for a projected image to become dim, particularly on one-half of the acuity projector screen.
    The projector blub is failing, carbon deposit build-up is darkening the bulb.
  64. How should the removable glass slides inside the American Optical acuity projector be cleaned?
    wipe with a clean, soft lint-free towel or photographic lens paper.
  65. What instrument, used to examine the retina, is: easier to use with small or undilated pupils, permits a greater magnification, and is mechanically easier to use?
    Direct ophthalmoscope
  66. What instrument, used to examine the retina, is used to examine the complete fundus in steropsis, uses a hand-held condensing lens and the image appears as an inverted image of the retina?
    indirect ophthalmoscope
  67. Lack of calibration of the perimeter, small size of patient's pupils and noise distractions can lean to _________errors in perimetry.
  68. In which type of mirror does the tip of an object, touching the glass, appear to touch it's image?
    Front surface mirrors
  69. Which test is performed in a patient describing metamorphopsia (straight lines apearing wavy at near)
    Amsler grid
  70. How many degrees of central vision are measured by an Amsler grid?
    20 degrees (10 in all directions)
  71. Which test measures the amount of tear production?
    Basic secretion, and Schirmer I and II
  72. how long are the Schirmer strips left in place during a tear test?
    5 minutes
  73. A topical drug that dilates the pupil without affecting accommodation is termed________
  74. A drug that produces a temporary paralysis of the ciliary muscle is termed?
  75. A cycloplegic drug may blur vision at near due to a temporary loss of _________
  76. In what part of the eye should ophthalmic drugs be placed?
    Cul-da-sac or lower fornix
  77. Drainage of topical drops from the eye and their systemic absorbtion can be somewhat prevented by?
    Punctal occlussion by digital pressure.
  78. Which color vision test consists of pseudo isochromatic plates that determine red-green color anomalies and deficiencies?
  79. What is the name of the instrument used to measure proptosis or exophthalmos in millimeters
    Exophthalmometer or Hertel
  80. Which refractive error is produced in an unaccommodating eye, when parallel rays focus behind retina?
  81. Which refractive error is produced when parallel rays focus in front of retina?
  82. If the mires projected through an ophthalmometer appear dim when looking through the eyepiece at the corneal surface, what is most likely the cause?
    Lamp bulb needs changing
  83. If there is no light source when you turn on an ophthalmometer, the first step you should take is to ____________
    Check that it is plugged in
  84. What is the best way to clean the back lenses (retinoscopy lens, red lens and Maddox Rod) of the phoropter?
    Clean with glasses cleaner and cotton-tipped swabs
  85. Checking the calibration of a Goldmann applanation tonometer is performed with a ___________
    Balance or calibration rod
  86. When calibrating the non-contact tonometer it is critical that __________
    triggering is repeated several times
  87. Where do you check pulse on an adult CPR patient ?
    Neck (carotid pulse)
  88. what is the ratio of chest compressions to artificial ventilations in one-person adult CPR?
  89. The heart consists of how many chambers
  90. Increased thirst, excessive urine production, and increased hunger with weightloss are characteristics of which endocrine disease?
    Diabetes insipidus
  91. Which drug, that is included in a crash cart, is used to increase the heart rate?
  92. which parts of the eye can be affected by hypertension?
  93. Hemorrhage confined to the anterior chamber is termed?
  94. Which corneal condition can result from proptosis
    Dry eye secondary to exposure
  95. Name three infectious agents
    Bacteria, fungus and virus
  96. What term is used when light rays focus on retina without requirimg correction?
  97. how many pigments for vision are present in a normal human retina?
    Four (red, green and blue in cones and rhodopsin in the rods)
  98. Which hormone is insuffucuent in a patient with diabetes melitus?
  99. What is the term used to designate a range of procedures used to prevent spread of infectious microbes to and from patients and office personnel?
    Aseptic technique
  100. What finding can occur 6/8 hours after a metallic foreign body enters the cornea?
    Rust ring
  101. What is the term for destruction of all micro-organisms on instrument and materials?
  102. Why are alkali burns more serious than acid burns on the cornea?
    Alkali burns penetrate deeper
  103. A metal chamber equipped to use steam under high pressure to destroy micro-organisms is termed?
  104. Variability in the functions of levator and extraocular muscle is characteristic in which systemic disease
    Myasthenia gravis
  105. Blockage of the central retinal artery by an embolus, which stops blood flow and causes acute loss of vision and a cherry red spot in the retina, is termed?
    CRAO (central retinal artery occlusion)
  106. What is the name of the mucous membrane covering the anterior sclera?
    Conjunctiva (bulbar)
  107. which color defects may be distinguished by the Ishihara test?
    Red and green
  108. What is the spherical equivalent of -2.00+3.00x090?
    -0.50 sph
  109. Transpose +3.00 +1.00x180
  110. What is the first step in performing lensometry of keratometry?
    focusing the eyepiece
  111. A-scan biometry measures the distance between ________
    Internal ocular surfaces
  112. Applanation tonometry displaces less than ________of aqueous.
    0.5 microliters
  113. The Goldmann applanation tonometer gives a reliable measurement of intraocular pressure to within_________mmHg.
    0.5 mmHG
  114. Disadvantages of the Goldmann tonometer include:
    Lack of portability; unreliable results with corneal distortion, scarring, or high astigmatism; corneal abrasion; infection
  115. What color filter is used when performing Goldmann Applanation tonometry?
    Cobalt Blue
  116. For every increment of 1 on the Goldmann applanation scale, this should be multiplied by _______?
  117. The muscle light that is suddenly too dim most likely needs_______?
    Overnight charging
  118. Maintenance for the muscle light may include_____
    Bulb replacement
  119. Front surface mirrors, in a projection system, should be cleaned by____________
    A glass cleaner and cotton ball
  120. Who should repair and maintain equipment such as a laser?
    A qualified service technician
  121. What items would hinder the characteristic high reflectance of the screen used with a visual acuity projector?
    Abrasive scratches and fingerprints
  122. Patients with high myopia may have ______ocular rigidity because the sclera is thinner and stretched.
  123. During Schiotz tonometry, the greater the distance the plunger indents the cornea , the ______ the eye or the _______ the intraocular pressure.
    Softer, lower
  124. What are the commonly used weights when performing schiotz tonometry?
    5.5g, 7.5g, 10g
  125. When performing Schiotz tonometry, if the tonometer should slide over the surface of the cornea, this may produce a ______________
    Corneal abrasion
  126. The higher the intraocular pressure of an eye, the
    _______ the eye
  127. If you cannot center the intersection of the thick and thin lines in the lensmeter , the lens has ______
    ground-in Prism
  128. Each black ring seen in the eyepiece reticle of the lensmeter measures how much prism?
    1 diopter
  129. What is the Bausch & Lomb trade name for the ophthalmometer?
  130. What do you do to transpose a spherocylinder lens from plus to minus cylinder form, or reverse?
    Algebraically add the sphere and cylinder powers, retain the cylinder power BUT change the sign and change the axis by 90 degrees.
  131. Transpose +2.00-2.50x90
  132. The chief use of A-scan biometry is to calculate the desired power of a(an)______
    intraocular lens implant
  133. What is the name of the instrument used to measure extesion of the anterior surface of the cornea beyond the lateral orbital rim?
    Exophthalmometer or hertel
  134. When the amsler grid is held at the proper distance and viewed with the distance and near corrections in place, each square subtends an angle of______degree(s)
  135. What is pupil dilation termed?
  136. What is the term used when there is a difference in pupil size?
  137. which technique assumes that the rigidity of the sclera is normal?
  138. If scleral rigidity is high, the intraocular pressure will be ____
  139. Most inaccuracies in schiotz tonometry result in ______ rater than_____ readings.
    Falsely low, high
  140. Measuring intraocular pressure is also called______
  141. when performing______ tonometry, the aqueous fluid in the anterior chamber between the cornea and iris is displaced.
  142. What effect is produced when the distance between the optical centers of the lenses mounted in a spectacle does not correspond to the IPD of a patient?
    Prismatic or induced prism
  143. What happens to light at the optical center of a lens?
    Nothing, light passes without being refracted
  144. Light rays are____ when they pass at an angle from one transparent medium to another of a different refractive index?
  145. A prism bends light rays toward its _____
  146. Light rays entering two prims placed base-to-base will be refracted so that the rays_____
  147. What is a common problem that presents with symptoms of floaters and flashing lights?
  148. Sudden, painless loss of vision is an example of an ocular _________
  149. Prior use of topical ocular pharmaceutical agents is part of a patient's____________
    Past ocular hx
  150. A history of strabismus sx at age 5 should be included in what record?
    Past ocular hx
  151. What is the term used to describe the absence of a natural lens?
  152. Pertinent family hx of a patient should include which relatives?
    Parents, grandparents and genetic siblings
  153. What reading should the light meter display when a Goldmann perimeter is accurately calibrated for the stimulus?
    1,000 apostilbs
  154. which substance is used to disinfect the ultrasound transducer?
    hydrogen peroxide or Alcohol
  155. Name the best way to prolong the life of transilluminator bulbs and batteries.
    turn the instrument off when not in use
  156. what should be used to clean the accessible lenses of a phoropter?
    Photographic lens cleaner and lens tissue
  157. Which solution should NEVER be used on any working part of a phoropter (except the patient forehead and cheek rests)
  158. when determining anterior chamber depth using a flashlight test,a shadow on the nasal iris indicates _________
    Abnormally shallow anterior chamber (narrow angle)
  159. Ophthalmologists often estimate anterior chamber depth by meaduring the angle between the a)______ and b)_________
    Anterior surface of the iris and posterior surface of the cornea
  160. The purpose of testing decreased visual acuity with the use of a pinhole serve to differentiate loss of vision between which two possible causes?
    refractive vs eye disease
  161. why is it important to observe the patient during VA testing
    To ensure proper occlusion
  162. name at least ONE example of glare testing device
    BAT, TVA or Eye con
  163. At what distance are adult near visual acuity charts designed to be read?
    14-16 inches from eye
  164. what is indicated if both the thin and wide lines are in focus at the same time while performing lensometry
    The lens is spherical
  165. normal visual acuity is a two-month old infant may be estimated by?
    Fixate (follow at 3 months)
  166. what is the name of the visual acuity test, for infants and nonverbal children, that urges gratings of vertical black and white stripes
    Teller visual acuity
  167. which ocular condition is commonly associated with sjogren's syndrome
  168. which systemic disease can cause temporary fluctuations in refractive errors?
  169. What bacterium commonly causes contamination of fluorescein solution?
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  170. Name the virus that causes a dendritic pattern of keratitis
    herpes simplex
  171. What is the ideal position for a patient who feels faint
    head lower than heart
  172. What is the most common cause of blurred vision?
    refractive error
  173. what is the term used for the reason for the patient's visit?
    Chief complaint
  174. define "presbyopia"
    A gradual decrease in accommodation due to a physiologic change that becomes noticeable about the age of 40 years+
  175. Recent onset of light flashes and floaters is an example of an ocular________
  176. Mild ocular irritation, itching and burning are patient complaints that would be handled as _________ situations
  177. What systemic disease is important to note in family medical hx in African Americans?
    Sickle cell
  178. What ocular disease is important to note in the family opthalmic hx of African Americans
  179. what elements are important in social hx taking?
    drug use, alcohol use, and smoking
  180. what info is obtained from a patient with a headache as the chief complaint ?
    Onset, duration, location, severity, assoc sx, fam hx, what brings relief.
  181. The important screening process used in emergencies to determine a patient's ocular needs is called?
  182. What medication is used as a topical anesthetics?
    Tetracaine, proparacaine
  183. what is the color of the bottle caps of mydriatic agents?
  184. If a patient is instructed to take a medication "q.o.d." what does this mean?
    every other day
  185. Which drug delivery method commonly produces temporary blurred vision?
  186. What is the term for an injection delivering drugs under the skin?
  187. interpupillary distance (IPD) is the distance between_______
    center of the two pupils
  188. the distance from the bridge of the nose to the center of a pupil is a ________
    monocular measurement of the IPD
  189. What type of glaucoma constitutes an ocular emergency?
    Acute angle closure glaucoma
  190. The condition of low blood sugar is termed?
  191. What is the single most important thing an opthalmic assistant can do to help prevent corneal infections during A-scan biometry?
    Clean the probe after each use with alcohol.
  192. Ophthalmic ______ temporarily stain cell and tissue in the eye to highlight defects or necrosis.
  193. _______ drugs induce contraction of the iris sphincter.
  194. What drug reduces inflamation without using cortico-steroids?
  195. Drugs that constric blood vessels in the conjunctiva are termed?
    Vasoconstrictors or Decongestants
  196. What abbreviation is used for the recipe or directions of a drug or lens perscription
  197. The distance from the posterior surface of a spectacle lens to the anterior surface of the cornea is termed?
    Vertex distance
  198. Bifocal spectacles will enable a patient to see clearly at _____ distances
  199. What is the minimun thickness of safety lenses?
  200. The trifocal portion of a +2.00 ADD will be______
  201. Which method of drug delivery might be recommended for a crying child?
  202. A bard parker blade, clamp and curette are instruments used for what surgical procedure?
    Chalazion excision
  203. Patient questions pertaining to surgical procedures should be answered by ___________
    The ophthalmologist
  204. A patient with a lacerated globe must have a ________ applied for protection.
    Fox shield or the bottom 1/3 of a styrofoam cup
  205. a _______ applied over the eye can minimize post-operative bleeding
    Pressur patch
  206. In terms of lens thickness, the greater the refractive index, the ________ the lens
  207. A _______ board may be used to immobilise an infant for an ophthalmic examination.
  208. How does acetazolamide (diamox) affect the eye
    reduces the amount of aqueous produced
  209. What is the term for "the complete destruction of all microorganisms"
  210. Name six accepted methods of sterilization
    Gas, moist heat, dry heat, chemical, radiation and ultraviolet light
  211. What doees the acronym LASER stand for?
    Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
  212. Protocols for pressure patching or shields require that the adhesive tape must be applied from _______ to _______
    Forehead to cheek
  213. What is the nomral range of intraocular pressure?
  214. Which method of tonometry is described here: Measurement of the amount pressure needed to flatten the cornea by a standard amount
  215. Name two possible complications of applanation tonometry
    K abrasion and spread of infection
  216. What measurement error is produced when the fluorecein rings are too narrow during applanation?
    Flase low
  217. What measurement error is introduced during applanation when a patient is holding their breath or wearing a collar the is buttoned too tightly
    False high
  218. which portable tonometer measures intraocular pressure by corneal indentation?
    Schiotz tonometer
  219. What is the term for the spasmodic, rhythmic dilating, and contrating pupillary movements during swinging light test?
  220. Name the black felt perimeter, used for testing the central 30 degrees of peripheral vision.
    Tangent screen
  221. in the 20/20 notation, what does the numerator stand for?
    distance from patient's eye to the chart
  222. what is the distometer used for?
    Measuring vertex distance
  223. What is anisometropia
    Unequal refractive errors in two eyes, usually a least 1-2 diopters different.
  224. What substance should be used to clean the screen for and acuity projector ?
    Mild detergent and water
  225. What is the best procedure for cleaning the mirror of the retinoscope?
    Blow off the dust with an empty bulb syringe that is clean and dry OR with canned air
  226. What accessories are used to check the calibration of an ophthalmometer?
    3 steel balls or Lensco meter
  227. If after cleaning the joy stick pad the slit lamp is still difficult to move what other cleaning soulution may me used on the pad?
    3 in 1 oil or sewing machine oil
  228. After changing the bulb on a slit lamp that does not illuminate, what other things should be checked?
    Contacts on the bulb cap, remove any dirt with a small file or knife, check that the beem is set to "open" and check that it is plugged in.
  229. How long do airborne bacteria remain active in the operating room, for example if a person enters without a mask?
    1 hour
  230. name three examples of antiseptic solutions used to wash hands in an operating room
    Tincture of iodine, Povidone iodine and Phisohex
  231. when instilling ophthalmic gtts or UNG it is important that the tip of the container_________
    Never touches the lashes, skin or eye
  232. Name the common types of ophthalmic sutures
    Chromic gut, vicryl, nylon, silk, polypropylene, mersilene
  233. what is the first step in disinfecting or sterilizing surgical instruments?
    mechanical abrasion
Card Set
COA study
COA study