Nutrition Final

Which of the following leading causes of death in the United States does not bear a relationship to diet?
A. Cancer
B. Heart disease
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Pneumonia and influenza

Being obese is known to increase the probabilities of contracting all of the following diseases except
A. cancer.
B. diabetes.
C. kwashiorkor.
D. hypertension.

For which of the following chronic diseases are dietary risk factors least involved in its development?
A. Cancer
B. Obesity
C. Type 1 Diabetes
D. Atherosclerosis

Which of the following risk factors for disease may be modified by diet?
A. Age
B. Gender
C. Heredity
D. Low HDL level

What is the term given to mounds of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develop in the artery walls?
A. Plaques
B. Angina streaks
C. Arterial thickening
D. Pre-thromboemboli

Which of the following is not considered a diet-related risk factor for coronary heart disease?
A. Obesity
B. High sugar intake
C. Glucose intolerance
D. High blood cholesterol

What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis?
A. HDL
B. LDL
C. HDK
D. VLDK

A person who produces a normal amount of insulin but whose cells show suboptimal response is said to be
A. polydipsic.
B. insulin resistant.
C. hyperglucagonemic.
D. pancreatic beta-cell deficient.

What is the best predictor for risk of a stroke?
A. High blood pressure
B. LDL-cholesterol
C. HDL-cholesterol
D. Trans-fatty acid intake

To lower a high blood cholesterol level, all of the following are recommended except
A. consume 2 servings/week of fish.
B. consume 300 mg or less of cholesterol per day.
C. lower the saturated fat intake to less than 7% total energy.
D. decrease the carbohydrate intake to <50% of total energy.

Risk factors that predict the development of hypertension include all of the following except
A. age.
B. race.
C. salt intake.
D. family background.

Strategies to reduce the risk of coronary heart disease in people who drink include limiting daily alcohol intake to
A. 1 drink for both women and men.
B. 1 drink for women and 2 for men.
C. 2 drinks for both women and men.
D. 2 drinks for women and 4 for men.

The DASH diet was developed to lower the risk for
A. cancer.
B. diabetes.
C. hypertension.
D. metabolic syndrome.

The DASH diet is actually the acronym for
A. Dramatic Alternatives to Solving HIV.
B. Diabetes And Sodium Hyperglycemia.
C. Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension.
D. Disorders-Associated Severe Hyperlipidemias.

Which of the following is a feature of the DASH diet?
A. It incorporates more potassium (from fruits and vegetables) and less sodium than the typical American diet
B. It was originally designed as therapy for atherosclerosis
C. It is effective due to the high intakes of iron and vitamin B12
D. It includes an exercise component and a limitation on trans-fat intake

Diabetes is known to increase the risk for all of the following except
A. stroke.
B. cancer.
C. blindness.
D. kidney failure.

What is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes?
A. Defect in insulin sensitivity
B. Excessive body weight gain
C. Defect of the immune system
D. Excessive intake of simple carbohydrates

Most people with type 2 diabetes have
A. sarcopenia.
B. osteoporosis.
C. excess body fat.
D. insulin dependency.

A person with diabetes is most likely to develop
A. AIDS.
B. cancer.
C. heart attacks.
D. diverticulosis.

Which of the following describes the actions of a carcinogen?
A. Cancer-initiating substance
B. Cancer-inhibitory substance
C. Cancer treatment substance
D. Cancer antipromoter substance

What organ of the pregnant woman is central to the exchange of nutrients for waste products with the fetus?
A. Uterus
B. Vagina
C. Placenta
D. Amniotic sac

What term is given to the time period during which irreversible damage to the fetus may occur from specific events such as malnutrition or exposure to toxins?
A. First trimester
B. Critical period
C. Fertility period
D. Conceptual period

You are working as a nutrition consultant in a women's health clinic and have been advising patients to make sure they consume about 400 micrograms of folate every day. One patient is aware that folate helps prevent birth defects but she isn't sure why she should take it if she is not pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate reply?
A. The folate supplementation prevents pernicious anemia, which increases the risk of spina bifida
B. The folate supplementation is needed to ensure a large store that can be utilized by the growing fetus
C. As long as supplementation begins the day pregnancy is confirmed, there is no risk of defects
D. The neural tube develops early on in pregnancy, oftentimes before the woman realizes she is pregnant

What is the most reliable indicator of an infant's future health status?
A. Infant's birthweight
B. Mother's weight before pregnancy
C. Mother's weight gain during pregnancy
D. Mother's nutrition status prior to pregnancy

Which of the following is a characteristic of body weight changes associated with pregnancy?
A. Weight gain is generally steady throughout pregnancy for normal-weight women
B. Most women are unable to lose all of the weight that was gained during pregnancy
C. Sudden, large weight gain in pregnancy may signal the development of hypotension
D. Overweight pregnant women should gain as much weight as underweight pregnant women

Of the following nutrient needs, which is considered the most difficult to meet during pregnancy, often because of low body stores?
A. Iron
B. Protein
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin B6

Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in pregnancy?
A. The AI increases by over 100%
B. Intestinal absorption increases substantially
C. Supplements are required for most women due to the increased needs
D. Transfer of calcium from maternal stores to the fetus increases rapidly at the beginning of the second trimester and falls during the last trimester

Which of the following recommendations for pregnant women and alcohol intake has been issued by the U.S. Surgeon General?
A. They should drink absolutely no alcohol
B. They should refrain from drinking hard liquor only
C. They are permitted to ingest no more than 2 drinks per day
D. They are permitted to ingest small amounts of alcohol during the first 3 months but none thereafter

In general, what are the chief consequences of nutritional deprivation in the lactating mother?
A. Cessation of lactation
B. Reduced quality of milk
C. Reduced quantity of milk
D. Reduced quality and quantity of milk

Breast milk as the sole source of nutrition, up to the first 6 months in healthy infants, is satisfactory for all nutrients except
A. sodium.
B. vitamin D.
C. iron and folate.
D. zinc and vitamin A.

Which of the following is an advantage of breastfeeding compared with formula feeding?
A. There is no limit to the supply
B. It provides immunological protection
C. The mother can be sure the baby is getting enough milk
D. It is the only way to develop a true loving relationship with the baby

Low-fat or nonfat milk should not be given routinely to a child until after the age of
A. two weeks.
B. three months.
C. two years.
D. six years.

What term defines the condition of infant tooth deterioration resulting from chronic exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle?
A. Juice bottle erosion
B. Suckling enamelosis
C. Formula-induced gingivitis
D. Nursing bottle tooth decay

Which of the following represents a good age to introduce solid foods to infants?
A. Two weeks
B. Two months
C. Five months
D. One year

The consumption of milk by children should not exceed 4 cups per day in order to lower the risk for
A. solute overload.
B. iron deficiency.
C. vitamin A toxicity.
D. vitamin D toxicity.

Which of the following is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among U.S. and Canadian children?
A. Iron
B. Protein
C. Calcium
D. Vitamin C

What is the most likely explanation for the increased prevalence of obesity in children over the past 30 years?
A. They eat fewer snacks
B. They sleep more hours
C. They consume more sugar
D. They are less active physically

The single most effective way to teach nutrition to chilThe single most effective way to teach nutrition to children is by
A. example.
B. punishment.
C. singling out only hazardous nutrition practices for attention.
D. explaining the importance of eating new foods as a prerequisite for dessert.dren is by

What is sarcopenia?
A. Loss of central visual activity
B. Loss of muscle mass and strength
C. Aging-induced chronic inflammation of the stomach
D. Intestinal dysmotility from excessive use of laxatives

Which of the following is a feature of elderly people and water metabolism?
A. They do not feel thirsty or recognize dryness of the mouth
B. They have a higher total body water content compared with younger adults
C. They show increased frequency of urination, which results in higher requirements
D. They frequently show symptoms of overhydration such as mental lapses and disorientation

Which of the following is a feature of vitamin D nutrition in the elderly?
A. Most elderly receive near-RDA amounts of the vitamin
B. Aging reduces the kidneys' ability to convert vitamin D to its active form
C. The RDA for vitamin D in the elderly is lower due to less excretion by the kidneys
D. Most elderly rely primarily on self-synthesis of the vitamin due to their greater time spent outdoors

To prevent and treat the high incidence of constipation in the elderly, all of the following practices are known to be effective except
A. eating more legumes.
B. drinking more water.
C. increasing physical activity.
D. taking vitamin B12 injections.

Jimmy is 33 years old and his obese parents each have cataracts in both eyes. They rarely eat fruits or vegetables and prefer a meat and potatoes existence. To reduce his risk of developing cataracts like his parents, Jimmy should incorporate all of the following into his diet except
A. maintaining a healthy body weight.
B. eating a variety of foods that contain carotenoids.
C. eating a variety of foods that contain vitamins C and E.
D. getting enough sleep at night to preserve the integrity of his eyes.

Which of the following types of diets has been shown to prevent or reduce arthritis inflammation?
A. High in simple sugars, low in canned fruit
B. High in animal protein, low in canned fruit
C. Low in polyunsaturated fat, high in oleic acid
D. Low in saturated fat, high in omega-3 fatty acids

Regular use of antacids interferes significantly with absorption of all of the following except
A. iron.
B. zinc.
C. folate.
D. vitamin B12.

According to the FDA, what is the leading food safety concern?
A. Food additives
B. Pesticide residues
C. Foodborne illnesses
D. Environmental contaminants

What branch of the Department of Health and Human Services is responsible for monitoring foodborne illness?
A. EPA
B. FAO
C. CDC
D. WHO

What is the leading cause of food contamination in the United States?
A. Naturally occurring toxicants
B. Food poisoning from microbes
C. Pesticide residues from farmers
D. Food additives from the food industry

Which of the following is the most common pathogenic microorganism in U.S. foods?
A. Salmonella
B. Escherichia coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Clostridium perfringens

The most common symptoms of foodborne infection include all of the following except
A. fever.
B. cramps.
C. diarrhea.
D. double vision.

What organism is responsible for producing the most common food toxin?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Vibrio vulnificus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Lactobacillis acidophilus

The industrial application of heat to inactivate most but not all bacteria in a food is commonly known as
A. sanitization.
B. sterilization.
C. pasteurization.
D. depathogenation.

What system was developed by government regulatory agencies and the food industry to help identify and/or control food contamination and foodborne disease?
A. The Two-Forty-One-Forty rule
B. Safe Handling Certification Program
C. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
D. North American Residue Monitoring Program

Clostridium botulinum poisoning is a hazard associated with
A. nitrosamines.
B. rotting vegetables.
C. undercooked poultry.
D. improperly canned vegetables.

Which of the following foods are associated with illness from Salmonella?
A. Raw vegetables
B. Pickled vegetables
C. Home-canned vegetables
D. Raw meats, poultry, and eggs

Which of the following is not a characteristic of food safety in the kitchen?
A. Cooks should refrain from cutting meat and vegetables on the same cutting board
B. Leftover food from a meal should be promptly refrigerated (within 2 hours)
C. Always thaw poultry at room temperature
D. After each step of food preparation, countertops, cutting boards, and hands should be washed in hot, soapy water

Which of the following would most likely result from placing cooked hamburger patties on the same plate that held the uncooked patties?
A. Flavor declination
B. Meat juice retention
C. Fat drippings exudation
D. Microbial cross-contamination

What is the recommended minimum amount of time for washing hands with warm water and soap before preparing or eating food?
A. 5-10 seconds
B. 20 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 3 minutes

Which of the following practices is safest for minimizing microbial contamination of prepared foods?
A. Store food in a controlled atmosphere of chlorine bleach vapors
B. Restrict the food's exposure at room temperature to a maximum of 4-6 hours
C. Restrict the food's exposure at between 40° F and 140° F to a maximum of 2 hours
D. Store food under air-tight conditions at a temperature of 32° F for a maximum of 1 month

What is the safe refrigerator storage time for uncooked steaks, cooked chicken, opened packages of lunch meats, and tuna salad?
A. 1-2 days
B. 3-5 days
C. 1 week
D. 2-4 weeks

What processing method allows for cartons of milk to be shelved in grocery stores at room temperature?
A. Prolonged pasteurization
B. Boiling for exactly 10 minutes
C. Ultrahigh temperature treatment
D. Combination irradiation/pasteurization

What nutrients in foods are most vulnerable to losses during food handling and preparation?
A. Trace minerals
B. Fat-soluble vitamins
C. Polyunsaturated fats
D. Water-soluble vitamins

The increase in the concentration of contaminants in the tissues of animals high on the food chain is termed
A. bioaccumulation.
B. hyperconcentration.
C. evolutionary containment.
D. functional high level accumulation.

Of the following types of seafood, which should be consumed in the smallest amount by pregnant and lactating women?
A. Shrimp
B. Canned light tuna
C. Pollack and catfish
D. King mackerel and swordfish

Your friend Mark is an avid organic food consumer. He believes that natural foods are the only way to avoid the chemicals that farmers "poison" their crops with. You warn Mark that not all natural foods are free from toxins; indeed, that many foods contain naturally occurring toxic substances. The example you provide could be the solanine commonly found in
A. beets.
B. broccoli.
C. potatoes.
D. anchovies.

Melissa works two jobs to support herself and her three children. She often worries about how and where she will get the next meal for herself. Melissa is experiencing:
A. Food insecurity
B. Famine
C. Protein-energy malnutrition
D. Food recovery

Which of the following is not a characteristic of poverty and hunger?
A. Hunger and obesity may exist in the same household
B. The highest rates of obesity occur among the poorest
C. The provision of food to the poor actually helps to prevent obesity
D. The poor prefer to purchase energy-dense foods despite their higher cost compared with vegetables

What is WIC?
A. A serious neural tube defect
B. The World Intervention and Conception program of the United Nations
C. An anti-breastfeeding activist group
D. A food and nutrition services program for pregnant women, children, and infants

Which of the following nutrients is among the most likely to be lacking in the diet worldwide?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Selenium
D. Copper

Which of the following is the primary cause for hunger in the United States and in less developed countries?
A. Poverty
B. High cost of food
C. Excessive food waste
D. Lack of nutrition education

Hunger exists because
A. There is not enough food produced in the world to feed everyone adequately
B. Food distribution is uneven, and some people do not have access to enough food
C. Some people choose not to eat
D. All of the above are true

SNAP debit cards may be used to purchase all of the following except
A. soap
B. seeds
C. cereal
D. cola beverages

A period of extreme food shortage resulting in widespread starvation and death is known as
A. a plague.
B. a famine.
C. food poverty.
D. food insecurity.

What is administered by health care workers to help treat the diarrhea and dehydration common to children suffering from diseases of poverty?
A. Oral rehydration therapy
B. Ozone purified waste water
C. Protein-energy repletion formula
D. Charcoal-filtered water and corn starch

All of the following are major factors affecting population growth except
A. birth rates.
B. death rates.
C. ozone depletion.
D. standards of living.

What term describes agricultural practices that are designed to minimize use of energy and chemicals?
A. Integrated production
B. Progressive agriculture
C. Sustainable agriculture
D. Resource management production

Which of the following describes a known long-term relationship among poverty, hunger, and population growth?
A. As economic status improves, population growth rises
B. As economic status improves, population growth diminishes
C. Lack of natural resources rather than poverty is the most important contributor to overpopulation
D. Over the last decade the increase in the world’s food output has been greater than the increase in the world’s population

What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger bear numerous children?
A. Birth control expenses are prohibitive
B. Only a small percentage of the children may survive to adulthood
C. The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning
D. The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children since there are few other interests in their lives

All of the following are examples of fossil fuels except:
A. oil
B. coal
C. solar
D. natural gas

Which of the following is a feature of U.S. agriculture practices?
A. They promote protection of soil and water
B. They frequently lead to higher crop prices
C. They are designed to benefit mostly small family farms
D. They tend to support the use of pesticides and fertilizers

What is aquaculture?
A. A seaweed growth system
B. The practice of fish farming
C. A water purification system
D. The raising of plants in a water environment

Which of the following is not one of the three major factors affecting world population growth?
A. Birth rates
B. Death rates
C. Standard of living
D. Scientific knowledge

What is meant by carrying capacity of the earth?
A. The number of tons of edible food that can be produced by all of the earth’s cultivable land
B. The maximum number of living organisms that can be supported in an environment over time
C. The amount of oxygen consumed by all living organisms in relation to the amount of oxygen produced by all living plants
D. The total weight of all living organisms in relation to the weight of all non-living material including the earth’s water mass

The worst famine in the 20th century occurred in
A. India.
B. China.
C. Africa.
D. Ireland.

As you sit in the waiting room of a doctor’s office leafing through a magazine, you see a letter to the editor about world hunger. In it, the author takes issue with a statement made in a previous issue that stated, “…and thus, hunger worsens poverty....” The letter writer claims that this statement is completely unfounded and has no reasoning behind it. Does hunger worsen poverty?
A. Yes, but it can be corrected with appropriate access to reproductive health care
B. No; if hungry people work hard enough they can work to get themselves out of poverty
C. Yes, it propagates poverty by increasing the death rate and leaving many families as single-parent households
D. Yes, hunger makes poverty worse by robbing a person of the good health and the physical and mental energy needed to be active and productive

Which of the following are benefits of regular and consistent exercise?
A. enhanced heart function
B. improved balance
C. better sleep habits
D. reduced stress
E. All of these are correct

The purpose of exercise is to
A. increase muscle flexibility.
B. increase muscle strength.
C. increase endurance.
D. All of these choices are accurate.

Energy for muscle contraction is most directly supplied by
A. aerobic glycolysis.
B. anaerobic glycolysis.
C. phosphocreatine breakdown.
D. ATP.

ATP energy may be derived from
A. carbohydrates.
B. proteins.
C. fats.
D. All of these choices are accurate.

When plenty of oxygen is available in the muscles, the condition is referred to as
A. anaerobic.
B. aerobic.

The site of greatest energy production in a muscle cell is the
A. nucleus.
B. ribosomes.
C. mitochondria.
D. cytoplasm.

In high intensity exercise like championship basketball, the predominate fuel for exercise is:
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Carbohydrates
D. Vitamins

Glucose is stored in muscle tissue as
A. triglycerides.
B. glycogen.
C. protein.
D. phosphocreatine (PCr).

In order to build up maximum stores of muscle glycogen for long-distance marathons, one should consume a ________ diet.
A. high-carbohydrate
B. high-protein
C. high-fat
D. high-energy

The majority of stored energy in the body is in the form of
A. glucose.
B. ATP.
C. amino acids.
D. triglycerides.

Training and exercise are beneficial because they
A. reduce the blood volume and total number of red blood cells so there is less body weight.
B. increase the number of mitochondria in muscle cells.
C. reduce the number of capillaries in muscle tissue.
D. reduce the number of mitochondria in muscle cells.

A response called hypertrophy occurs when
A. more ATP is released from the cell.
B. a person exercises for half an hour per week.
C. muscles enlarge after being made to work repeatedly.
D. All of these choices are accurate.

Variables that determine an athlete's energy needs include
A. body composition.
B. training or competition.
C. body size.
D. All answers are correct.
E. None of the answers are correct.

For athletes who compete in events lasting continuously for 90 to 120 minutes (or shorter events repeated in 24 hours),
A. carbohydrate-loading benefits performance.
B. carnitine supplements improve the use of fatty acids as muscle fuel.
C. large doses of bicarbonate counters the acid production in the stomach.
D. all caffeine-containing foods and beverages should be avoided for at least 2 to 4 days before the competition.

"Hitting the wall" (as in a very long athletic event) means
A. someone is training for a marathon.
B. someone has run out of available carbohydrates for energy.
C. someone is so tired that he must stop to and rest for 10 to 15 minutes before continuing the sport.
D. None of these choices are accurate.

Fluids should be consumed _________ an athletic event.
A. before
B. during
C. after
D. All of these choices are correct.

The components of fitness include all of the following except
A. strength.
B. flexibility.
C. bone fragility.
D. cardiovascular endurance.

Substantial health benefits may be achieved by engaging in a moderately intense level of exercise at a frequency of at least
A. 10 minutes/day.
B. 20 minutes/day.
C. 2.5 hours/week.
D. 5 hours/week.

Which of the following components of training define(s) the progressive overload principle?
A. Intensity only
B. Frequency only
C. Frequency and flexibility only
D. Intensity, frequency, and duration

What is the predominant fuel used by muscle cells during prolonged moderate-intensity activity lasting at least 20 minutes?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Glycogen
D. Blood glucose