Pathology Test (7-9)

  1. Where does a nueral tube of tissue start to form out of and when during gestation of the embryo?
    Ectoderm and at approx 18 days
  2. The nueral tube forming out of the ectoderm at approximatly 18 days of gestation of the embryo is the basis for the development of what?
    the whole nervous system
  3. What describes the motor abilities of a child between the ages of 9-12 months of age?
    • - moves from lying to sitting
    • - crawls
    • - stands supported
    • - pulls to stand up
    • - cruises in standing holding onto furniture
    • - walks with hand held or alone at 12 months
  4. What area of the brain is associated with emotions?
    limbic system
  5. The brachial plexus consists of which nerve roots?
    • - from C5, C6, C7, C8, T1 to Musculocutaneous
    • - axillary
    • - radial
    • - median
    • - ulnar nerves
  6. What is the coma score on the glagow comma scale?
    3 to 8, no response to all categories
  7. What is the severe head injury score on the glasgow comma scale?
    score of 8 or less
  8. What is the moderate head injury score on the glasgow comma scale?
    9 to 12
  9. What is the mild injury score on the glasgow comma scale?
    13 to 15
  10. What is the technique used by PTA that involves restricting use of the unaffected upper extremity in people who have a CVA?
    constraint-induced movement therapy
  11. What are the different stages of Alehizhmer disease?
    • - severe cognitive decline
    • - very severe congitive decline
  12. What are the symptoms associated with the severe cognitive decline stage of Alehizhmer's?
    • - inability to perform daily tasks
    • - needs help with ADL
    • - incontinence
  13. What are the symptoms associated with the very severe cognitive decline stage of Alehizhmer's?
    • - final stage of the disease
    • - inability to walk without assistance
    • - needs help feeding and toileting
    • - inability to speak coherently
  14. Parkinson's disease results in movement and behavior dysfunction and affects which area of the brain?
    basal ganglia
  15. What is the actual cause of ischemic ulsers?
    Reduction in oxygenation perfusion of tissue
  16. What levels of skin are damaged in deep partial thickness burn?
    epidermis and damage as far down as the reticular level
  17. What is associated with Stage II of pressure ulcers?
    • - partial thickness skin loss
    • - blister
    • - small ulcerated area
  18. What is associated with Stage III of pressure ulcers?
    full thickness skin loss with subcutaneous tissue necrosis
  19. What is associated with Stage IV of pressure ulcers?
    • - full thickness loss with subcutaneous tissue necrosis
    • - damage to muscle, ligaments, and bone
  20. What characteristics are associated with venous stasus ulcers?
    pain relief with elevation
  21. Which skin lesion is described as flat area of skin that varies in size and color?
    macule and patch
  22. Pressure garments are used in the healing process to reduce the occurrance of what?
  23. Which layer of skin assists in re-epithelialization following burns that aren't very deep?
    hair follicles
  24. Which protective functions of the skin control body temp?
    vasoconstriction/vasodialation, hair follicles
  25. Which protective function of the skin defends against bacteria?
  26. What is the adult % of body area for the head for the rule of 9?
  27. What is the adult % of body area for the trunk for the rule of 9?
    • 18% anterior
    • 18% posterior
    • 36% both
  28. What are burns classified according to?
    • depth and damage
    • length of time
    • area of body affected
  29. People who burn easily in the sun?
    • light - melanin is body's sunscreen
    • dark - more melanin albinism unable to produce melanin burn easily
  30. What is true of venous stasis ulcers?
    usually located on the medial aspect of the lower leg and are irregular in shape
  31. Pressure ulcer, decubitus ulcers, and bed sores are caused by what?
    prolonged pressure on tissues overlying bony prominences
  32. Pressure ulcers are classified by what?
    stages depending on the depth of tissue damage
  33. What is appropriate PT advice for a patient with Diabetes?
    check your feet daily with long handled mirror including between toes
  34. What mineral is needed in the daily diet because it is excreted in urine, sweat, and feces?
  35. Crushing's syndrome may result from or in something?
    hyperfunction of the adrenal gland caused by hyperplasia of the adrenal gland
  36. Blurred vision or charcot's arthropathy, increased appetite, and peripheral neurpathy are signs and symptoms of what disease?
    diabetes mellitus
  37. Physical therapy can be indicated for this disease if left undected in children and mental retardation occurs
  38. Which anterior pitutary hormon stimulates the adrenal glands to make corticol hormones?
    adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  39. What is the difference in type I and type II diabetes mellitus?
    • type I is insulin dependent
    • type II is non-insulin dependent
  40. What disease can be characterized by the build up of calcium in the eyes and brain?
  41. Diabetes insificidis is part of what disease?
    pituitary simmonds disease
Card Set
Pathology Test (7-9)
Chapters 7, 8, and 9