the science of _________ is concerned with the structure of the human body?
B) Anatomy
what was one of the main reasons for restricting the study of anatomy by using cadavers?
B) Religion
Who is thought to have written the first anatomy book?
A) menes
what early greek physician developed theh concept that the body has four humors, each associated with a body organ?
D) Hippocrates
What was one of the most significsnt constribution of the 20th century in anatomy?
C) the simplification and standarization of wording and terms
The fundamental unit of all living thing is____?
C) Cell
Which one of the following is the largest Organ in the body?
A) the skin
The _____ system is responsible for the absorption of fats, drainage of tissues fluids and immunity?
D) Digestive
The _____ plane divides the body into right and left halves.
D) Sagital
When examining a patient, medical personel will use ___ to tap sharply on various locations of the thorax or abdomen to detect excess fluids or abnormalities.
D) perccusion
THE ARMPIT IS LOCATED IN THE _____ REGION?
C) axillary
the back of the knee is referred to as the ______?
d) crural region
C) Politeal Fossa
______ is the epidermal skin layer the develops all other layers of the epidermis.
A) Stratum Basale
The pungent secretionof the _____ glands is thought to fuction as a sexual attractant?
B) Apocrine Sweat
There are ______ cranial bone in the adult skull?
B) 9
There are ____facial bones in the adult Skull?
C) 14
Which of the following surface feature represents a bone depression?
C) Fossa
which of the following is a normal function of the human skeleton?
C) mineral storage and protection of the underlying tissue
The medultary cavity of a long boneis lined with_____?
B) endosteum
_____ are the type of bone cells that break down bone structure during bone building and bone healing processes?
D) osteoclast
What 2 bones, or portions of bones, makes up the nasal septum?
C) Perpendicular plate and the ethmoid/vomer
Cervical vertebrae dentical lumba vertebrae are identical in:
C) presence of transverse process
the body tissue that covers body surfaces, cavities and ducts is:_______?
C) Epithelial
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is adapted for ________?
A) Absorption
______ is charactherized by large amounts of densely packed collagenous fibers running parrallel to the direction of an applied force.
D) Dense regular tissue
The type of cartilage found in intervertebral dics is ______.
B) Fibrocartilage
The type of joint that is distinguished by having a fluid-filled joint cavity is called a ______ joint?
B) Synovial
The movement of the sole of the foot outward or laterally is called:______?
A) Inversion
The ___________ of the shoulder joint functions to deepen the cavity of the glenoid fossa.
D) Glenoid Labrum
Which of the following features of the hip joint are also features of the shoulder joints?
C) a and b
Strength and deep articulating fossa
Which two ligaments lie within the Knee joint?
A) Anterior and Posterior Curciate Ligaments
Contratitility is a general trait of the human muscle? true/false
True
In the wrist and ankle, tendors are enclosed by a strong band of connective tissue called:____?
D) Retinaculum
Whichof the following is a muscle of Mustication?
A) Masseter
Which muscle originates on the sternum and terminates on the mastoid process of the temporal bone?
A) sternocleidmastoid
What is the deepest of the 4 abdominal muscles?
C) transverse abdominis
The thenar and hypothenar muscles are located_______?
A) In the hand
The___________nerve conducts impulses from the eyes' photoreceptors?
C) Optic
If______ nerve is damaged, the person will have difficulty speaking, swallowing and protruding the tongue?
C) Hypoglossal
The static nerve is the largest in the human body. True/False
True
The ____ nerve of the brachial plexus innervates the skin of the lateral 2/3of the hand, the flexors of the anterior forearm, and the lateral palm.
B) Median
One of the branches of the cervical plexus leading to the diaphragm is the_____?
C) Phrenic
Deoxygenated blood carried in the vena cava empties into the______ of the heart?
B) right Atrium
The ____________ severs as a blood resovoir and also house lymphocytes that are critical to body immunity?
C) spleen
Which of the following is the major nerve of the posterior leg?
D) Sciatic
The Femoral artery narrows to become the _____as it traverses in the posterior knee region.
D) Popliteal Vessel
The sciatic nerve runs directly beneath the____muscle.
D) Piriformis
The muscles which adduct the hip are located on the ______surface of the femur.
A) Medial
The main muscles of the the hip extention are the gluteals and hamstrings. True/False
True
The Spinal cord the ends at the level L-2 where it becomes the_______.
C) Cauda Squine
Excess of body heat can be lost most rapidly though______.
C) Evaporation
Hypodermia os a condition which begins when the body temperature reaches____degrees fahrenheit.
B) 95
There are ______ vertebrae in the lumbar spine of a human skeleton.
D) 5
The most common location for spondylolisthesis is____?
A) Between L5 and S1
The sacrum of a bone located in the_____?
D) Pelvis
Injuries to the intevertebral disks are common in the thoracic spine. T/F
False
Scoliosis involves a lateral curvature of the spine. T/F
True
Tinea pedis os an infection of the_____?
A) Foot
Pydorma is a pus producing infection of the skin. T/F
False
Plantar warts are caused by________?
A) Viruses
Active HIV/AIDS can be readily transmited via blood-to-blood contact. T/F
True
All patients who are homesexual have AIDS/HIV. T/F
False
Reddeding of the skin is known as______?
b)hematoma
A) Erythema
A steroid compound can bedriven into the skin by ultrasoun by a proceses called_______.
B) Phonophoresis
Phagocytosis means "Cell Eating". T/F
True
Which of the following is Correct regarding an acute injury?
B) Characterized by rapid onset from a traumatic event
The _____ and spinal cord compose the nerveous system.
A) the brain
the first cervical vertebra is referred to as the______.
D) atlas
There are 27 pairs of spinal nerve. T/F
False
The _________is given additionalstability by the glenoid labrum.
B) glenohumeral
The ______ and the clavicle make up for the shoulder girdle.
C) Scapula
A common clavicular fracture on adolescent athletes is often reffered to as a _____.
B) Green stick fracture
The best copulant medium for ultrasound is ______?
A) Water
Which of the following are physiologic effects of ultrasound?
a)phonophoresis
b) mechanical effects
d) chemical effects
d) all of the above
d) all of the above
Phonophoresis
mechanical effects
chemical effects
_____is another term for amplitude modulated waveform operation in ultrasound.
B) Pulsed output
This modality produces arteriole vasoconstriction.
D) Cryotherapy
____ is a unique technique to treat anirregular surface that cannot be submerged in water by using a thin air-free plastic bag.
A) Coupling Cushion
Antisepsis is the use of ultrasound to increase phagocytic/antibacterial activity.T/F
True
The effect produced by an ultrasonic bean in tissues occurring primarily at the cell-membrane interface is called____.
B) Acoustic streaming
____ is the electromotive force that pushes current.
C) Voltage
Pulse rate refers to the number of times per minute that a certain electric flow or pulse is repeated. T/F
True
Low frequency currents can either be direct or alternating.T/F
True
A tissue is a group of _____ with similiar functios?
A) Cells
To be effective, a muscle stimulus must have a certain intensityand durattion. T/F
True
Anatomy is the study of the body struture. T/F
True
Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organ fuctions?
B) Systemic
The Liver, gallbladder, and stomach are part of the _____.
C) Digestive System
Homeostasis is definied as:_____?
D) The maintenance of relative constant enviroment of the body
The term that means "AWAY FROM THE MIDDLEOF THE BODY" is:____.
D) Lateral
The thoracic cavity is separated fom the abdominal cavity by the:___.
A) Diaphragm
Another tern for finger is:_____?
Phalanges
The amount of time it takes for an electrical stimulation to go from 0 to peak amplitude is know as:_____.
B) Ramp Time.
Which of the following is Not a term used to described electricity?
A. Excitability
With electrical stimulation, fatigue is at greater or higher frequencies because:___?
C) the inner-pulse interval is shorterned
Pregnancy should be considered a contraindications of electrical stimulation.T/F
True
Which of the following are contraindications to electrical stimulation?
D) all of the above
Application over a cancerous lesion
Application over an area of thrombophlebitis
Application over an an implanted pacemaker
Electrical stimulation uses indirect current. T/F
False
_____ current is a continuos flow of charged particles of duration of at leat 1 second where one electrode is positive and is negative.
A) Direct
_____ current is an uninterrupted bidrectional flow of charged particles changing direction at least once a second that does not allow charges to build up.
B) alternating
Triphasic is basic current waveform used with electrical stimulation. T/F
True
Phase duration, frequency, ramp and on/off time are ll characteristics of:_____?
A) Electrical current
The practitioner may use a two pronged plug adapter to connect an electrical stimulation device with a three prong plug to a wall outlet. T/F
False
______ law states that the delivered energy is dicrectly related to the amount of resistance encountered.
C) Ohms Law
Hot packs are one of the most common ways to deliver superficial moist heat to patients. T/F
True
'' Cryo'' literally means cold. T/F
True
_______ would be the best therapy for acute inflammation and edema?
a) heat
b) cold
b) Cold
A sensory deficit patient should be monitored the same as any other patient during heat treatments. F/T
False
The local application of superficial heat may decrease inflammatory response when treating an acute injury. T/F
False
When using ice massage, the acronym " CBAN" refers to ''cold, burning, aching and numbness''. T/F
True
Knowing the potential adverse effects of a thermal agent is an important consideration when treating a patients.T/F
True
With therapeutic ultrasound, the actual sound wave cannot be heard by the patients or the CA. T/F
TRUE
Therapeutic ultrasound is almost always applied at these 2 frequencies:
a) 1mhz or 2 mhz
b) 1mhz or 3mhz
c)1mgz or 4mhz
d)2mhz or 5mhz
1 MHz or 3 MHz
In treating a superficial injury, the best parameter selection is ____ MHz?
A) 3
Heat generated within tissues as a result of therepeutic ultrasound is caused by radioactive materials found in the ultrasound transmitter. T/F
TRUE
The most appropiate rate of transducer movement in therapeutic ultrasound should be slow with an overlap at a rate of______ to ______ cm/sec?
D) 3 to 4
Which of the following is correct regarding the placements of electrodes when treating a patient?
D) none of the above is correct
Which of the following is not a phase of the healing process? A) degeneration phase B)maturation phase C)fioblastic phase D) inflammatory phase
A) degeneration phase
Which of the following is a common, affective treatment in controlling edema? A)stretching B)compression C)heat D) vibration
B) compression
The amount of time that ultrasound is generated over one pulse period is called________?
A) refractory period B) spatial intensity C)temporal peak D)duty cycle
D) duty cycle
Which of the following is correct regarding the human endocrine system?
A) it releases hormones that alter metabolic activities
the heart is _____ to the lungs? A) superior B) dorsal C)medial D) lateral
C)medial
The term ''articulation'' refers to: A) blood flow B) nerve impulse C)joint function D)bone growth
C)joint function
Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton? A)femur B)sternum C)mandible D) sacrum
A)femur
The common phrase '' hunchback'' is really: A) scoliosis B)cleft palate C)kyphosis D)spina bifida
C)kyphosis
'' Spina bifida" refers to an incomplete closure of the vertebral column? A) true B)false
A) true
A ligament running along the side of the knee joint is: A) cruciate B)collateral
B) collateral
Which of the following best describes painful and tender joints? A) fibromyalaia B)muscular dystrophy C)myasthenia gravis D)all of the above
A) fibromyalaia
The central nervous system is comprised of______? A) brain B) brain and spinal cord C)brain and peripheral nerves D) brain and thalamus
B) brain and spinal cord
The nerves located outside of the brain and spinal cord comprise the ______ nervous system? A) central B)general C)peripheal D)basal
C)peripheal
The mediastinum is located in the_____?
D) thoracic cavity
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is called_____ pressure? A) pulse B)mean arterial C)blood D) ventricular
A) pulse
A high HLD level may contribute and leade to: A) active AIDS/HIV B)atherosclerosis C)liver disease D) skin rash
B)atherosclerosis
Which of the following is not found in the urine? A) glucose B)uric acid C)urea D)creatinine
A) glucose
Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system? A) sensory B)integrative C) nourishment D)motor
C) nourishment
Threshold stimulus is the minimal strenght required to cause a msucle contraction? A)true B)false
A)true
The_________ moves the pectoral girdle? A) spenius B) trapezius C)spincter D) buccinator
B) trapezius
Regulating body temperature is a function of the human skin? A) true B)false
A)true
If a patient complains of a strong ''itchy'' sensation after vibration with a G-5 device, this is most likely due to: A) a rush of blood to the area B) a localized infection C) superficial tissue damage D) nerve damage
A) a rush of blood to the area
Sine waves of constant amplitude but of slightly different frequencies from 2 sources best describes inferential current? A)true B)false
A)true
The frequency for Russian stimulation is______Hz? A)2500 B)3000 C)3500 D)4000
A)2500
Which frequency is the best for treating acute lumbar disc syndrome? A) 1-15Hz B)80-120Hz C)35-40Hz D) 1-150Hz
B) 80-120Hz
Which frequency is the best for treating chronic cervical spine pain? A) 1-15Hz B)80-120Hz C)1-150Hz D)35-40Hz
A)1-15Hz
Frequency of electrical current may be expressed in either pulses per second (pps) or in cycles per second (cps)? A) AC B)DC C)T.E.N.S D) IFC
B)DC
Which of the following would not be considered a general physiologic effect of electrical muscle stimulation? A) decreased blood flow B)reducd edema C)relaxed muscles spasm D)recruitment of muscles fibers
A) decreased blood flow
Heat is best transferred Deep into the body by______? A) conversion B)convection C)radiation D)conduction
A) conversion
Short waive diathermy is best used for________? A) sub-acute and chronic conditions B)acute conditions C) inflammatory condition D) transient condition
A) sub-acute and chronic conditions
Parrafin bath may be applied over an open wound or lesion? A)true B)false
B)false
The intensity of a UV lamp will________ the closer it is placed to the treatment area? A) increase B)decrease
A)increase
The intensity of radiation is always greatest at the right angle (90 degrees) to the treatment area?
A)True
B)False
A)true
T.E.N.S is primarily used to help heal bone fracture? A) true B)False
B)false
Hubbard tanks should be cleaned and sterilized: A)montly B)weekly C)after each patient use D) when requested by a patient
C)after each patient use
When using constant ultrasound, for best effect, the applicator head should be? A) turned off B)constantly moved over the treatment area C)left directly over the treatment area in a stationary position D) used with no coupling medium
B)constantly moved over the treatment area
The term pain threshold refers to the ______ stimulus that will excite the sensation of pain? A) lowest B) highest C)average D)mean
A)lowest
Treatment for intermittent traction is normally between? A) 5-10min B)10-15min C)15-30min D)30-70min
C)15-30min
The primary purpose of combining ultrasound and electrical muscle stimulation is for : A) better pain control B) decreased skin ressistance and penetration C) increased fluid D)muscle rehabilitation
B) decreased skin ressistance and penetration
In which of the following should electrical stimulation not be used?
D) all of the above
High volt stimulation is best used for? A) pain control B)blood flow improvement C)edema reduction D)wound healing
A) pain control
Burns during electrotherapy are usually caused by: A) voltage B) amperage C)wattage D)baggage
B) amperage
Which of the following is an absolute contraindication when using short waves diathermy? A) metal table B)artritis C)bronchitis D) woolen underwear
B)metal table
Which of the following would have the greatest current flow? A) bone B)skin C)muscle D) fat
C)muscle
''Hemotoma" is a: A) blood clot B) bone spur
A) blood clot
The part of the small intestine where most food absorption occurs is the: A) ilieum B) dudodenum C) cecum D) jelunum
A) ilieum
Microscopic filtration plants that filter the skin to the blood and from urine are: A) hilum B) gall bladder C)nephrons D)Medullia
A) hilum
Nerves that carry impulses from the sskin to the central nervous system are:
B) sensory nerves
The_____ conducts impulses away from the cell body of the nerve? A) axon B)nuclei C)dendrite D)cilia
C)dendrite
Relay stations of the autonomic nervous system are: A) ganglia B) plexuses C)motor points D)spinal nerves
A) ganglia
The transparent anterior portion of the outer coating of the eye is the? A) choroid B) sclera C)cornea D)retina
C)cornea
The part of the eye which may be torn by trauma which causes a patient to complain of partial vision? A) cornea B)retina C)sclera D)choroid
B)retina
The part of the eye which may be become jaundices (yellowed) due to liver disease? A) cornea B)retina C) sclera D) choroids
C) sclera
Vitrious fluid is foud in the_____________?
B) posterior cavity
_________ is the hormone that regulates the body metabolism? A) insulin B)thyroxin C)epinephrine D)parathormone
B)thyroxin
________ is the endocrine gland that produces stimulating hormones? A) pituitary B) periosteum C) synovial D)adrenals
A) pituitary
Which of the following are contraindications to using most hot packs?
D) all of the above
Which of the following devices is used to diagnose/treat certain diseases such as tinea pedis (atheletes foot)? A) sun lamp B) cold quartz lamp C)woods lamp D)mercury vapor lamp
C)woods lamp
The________ law states that if the distance between thelight source and the patient is cut in half, the intensity of the source is quadrupled? A) law of averages B) inverse square law C) cosign law D) absorption flow law
B) inverse square law
__________________increases visceral circulation?
C) short wave diathermy
__________ minutes is the normal amount of time to treat with short wave diathermy? A)10 B)30 C)60 D)90
A)10
The power produced by an ultrasound unit is measured at the sound head in_____?
C) watts
Ultrasound absorption occurs primarily in tissue proteins?
A) true
B) False
A) TRUE
The best effects of ultrasound occur at different tissue interfaces due to waves reflexions? A) true B)false
A)true
The ultrasound frequency best used to treat deep fibrotic is_____ MHz?
D) 1.1
When treating small superficial areas with ultrasound such as fingers, it is best to use_______ MHz? A) 1.1 B)3.3 C)5.5 D)7.7
B)3.3
Ultrasound treatments normally should not exceed_______ minutes per area? A) 4-8 B)10-15 C) 20-30 D) none of the above the patients will tell you when to stop
A) 4-8
When using a tens unit for pain control, a frequency of_____ pps should be used? A) 1-15 B)70-150 C)100-250 D)500-1000
B)70-150
low volt electro therapy is defined as using less than_____ volts with an average current of 1-30ma? A) 5 B)50 C)150 D)300
C)150
low volt therapy may not be used on a patient with a pace-maker? A)true B)false
true
placing the electrodes farther apart in inferential therapy causes the depth of the penetration to_________? A) increase B)decrease
A) increase
using a 4-pole technique to electronically control the therapy site is called?
A) vectoring
B)frequency modulation
A) vectoring
the frequency to be used in Russian stimulation is 2500Hz? A) True B)False
A)true
The treatment schedule for muscle strengthening should be?
A) 10 second contraction followed by 50seconds rest
7-10reps.
B) 20 second contraction followed by 20sencond rest
20-30 reps.
C) 30 second contraction followed by 2 minutes rest
3-4 reps.
D) 10 second contraction followed by 5 second rest
2-3 reps
A) 10 second contraction followed by 50seconds rest 7-10reps.
if your supervising chiropractor appears red-eyed,wobbly and smells of alcohol while treating patients, you should:
C) immediately call the board and report the incident
A patient presents with acute strain of the lumbar spine. The best therapy is_____________?
A) inferential
B) high volt
C)ultrasound
D) laser
B) high volt
You may use low level laser therapy on a patient____. A) if you are certified in laser B) if directed by your supervising chiropractor C) never D)Whenever requested in writing by the patient
C) never
The maximum amount of weight that may be used in traction is________pounds?
C) 30
The board of examiners has no jurisdiction over massage therapist.
A) TRUE B) FALSE
B)FALSE
The board of examiners also regulated licensed physical therapist.
A) TRUE B)FALSE
B)FALSE
A CA is permitted to:
A) develop x-ray film B) adjust patients on the x-rays platform or table C) read the x-ray D) all of the above
A) develop x-ray film
CA's may perform massage on a patient:
A) never B) only if they are licensed as a licensed massage therapist C) only if directed by the supervising chiropractor D) none of the above
B) only if they are licensed as a licensed massage therapist
A CA may sign patient treatment records on behalf of a chiropractor when directed to do so by the doctor.
A) TRUE B) FALSE
B) FALSE
A supervising Chiropractor must be present in the building at all times and in the treatment area when a CA is working with patients.
A) TRUE B) FALSE
A) TRUE
It the supervising chiropractor has not yet arrived and patient is scheduled for treatment, the CA should ;
A) start the scheduled treatment B) do nothing until the supervising chiropractor arrives C) only conduct treatment using hot or cold packs D) a and c
B) do nothing until the supervising chiropractor arrives.
A CA may assist in low level laser therapy:
A) never B) when the laser is a class IV, non penetrating device C) when the supervising chiroprators is providing direct supervision. D) a and c
A) never
Your supervising Chiropractor has just directed you to perform a task that is clearly in violation of the board regulations; you should
A) perform the task as directed B) perform the task as directed if refusal will cause you to be fired C) refuse and advise the doctor that you cannot perform the task under law and regulations & report it to the board if the doctor persists in ordering you to do it D) none of the above
C) refuse and advise the doctor that you cannot perform the task under law and regulations & report it to the board if the doctor persists in ordering you to do it
A CA applicant must be at least 18 years old and a high school graduate.
A) TRUE B) FALSE
A) TRUE
To qualify as registered CA, you must complete a total of______ hours of in servise, on the job training of which the first________ hours must be spent observing procedures.
A) 100 & 50 B) 200 & 60 C) 650 & 70 D) 520 & 40
D) 520 & 40
CA's must renew their registrations every________ years.
A) 5 B) 2 C) 3
D)10
B) 2
CA's must have at least______ hours of continuing education to qualify for renewing their registrations.
A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20
B) 10
CA's may take which of the pre approved of the following continuing education courses?
A) only courses approved by the board of chiropractors examiners B) only courses approved by a chiropractic college C) only courses approved by the MD chiropractic association D) only courses approved by a former instuctor
A) only courses approved by the board of chiropractors examiners
A CA may take the height and weight of a patient without the direct supervision of a Supervising Chiropractor.
A) TRUE B) FALSE
A) TRUE
Demonstrating exercise to patients requires__________ of a supervising chiropractor;
A) direct supervision B) indirect supervision C) no supervision D) moderate supervision
A) direct supervision
Hot and cold packs may only be applied under direct supervision.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
A) TRUE
A CA registration document must be:
A) encased in clear plastic B) copied and the copy posted on the wall where the CA practices C) Conspicuously posted on the wall where the CA practices D) framed in black plastic or wood
C) Conspicuously posted on the wall where the CA practices
A person may practice as a CA without a registration.
D) never
A CA may diagnose patient symptoms:
A) when directed to do so by the doctor B) after 5 years in practice as a CA C) never D) only on thursday
C) never
A CA must maintain a current mailing address or be subject to a ________________--.
A) $200 penalty
A CA applicant must take a total of______ hours of jurisprudence.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D)5
B) 3
A CA applicant must successfully complete all classroom and in-service training and board examination within__________ of application.
A) 2months B) 4months C) 1 year D) 2 year
C) 1 year
By regulation, the CPR level required for CA's is:
A) novice level B) provider level C) intermediate level D) none of the above-CPR is nor required fo CA's
B) provider level
which of the following would be approved methods for destroying old patient records:
A) throwing them in the dumpster B) shredding them in a mechenical shredder C) tearing them in half and putting them in the trash D) all of the above
B) shredding them in a mechenical shredder
You are taking telephone appointments. Ms. Davis calls for an appointments and advises you that she has active AIDS/HIV. YOU should;
A) advise her to see B) advise her that your practice cannot treat her C) refer her to a practice that treats active AIDs patients D) set the appointment and discreetly notify your doctor of the issue
D) set the appointment and discreetly notify your doctor of the issue
You receive your CA registration and develop a severe addiction to beer which affects your ability to practice. Which of the following should you do?
A) voluntarily report the issue to your doctor and the board under its rehabilitation program B) try and reduce the volume of alcohol consumed C) report the matter to alcoholics anonymous D) nothing-it is impossible for beer drinkers to be alcoholics
A) voluntarily report the issue to your doctor and the board under its rehabilitation program
If a foreign-born patient has very limited ability to speak english and you are takeing their appointment for treatment the best action is:
A) do not take them as a patient -it is impossible to treat them B)Patiently ask them if they have a frined or family member who might help translate for them C) Advice them to call a chiroprator who speaks teir language D) all of the baove ar good courses of action to take
B)Patiently ask them if they have a friend or family member who might help translate for them
you see a fellow CA smoking marijuana in his car during his lunch break. When he returns from lunch, he smells of marijuana, his eyes are glassy and he is giddy. your best course of action is:
A) talk directly to the CA and advise hiim to stop smoking marijuana B) give the CA a chance and ignore the situation C) Report the matter immediately to your supervising chiropractor D) do nothing until you have further evidence of marijuana use
C) Report the matter immediately to your supervising chiropractor
You work with two othe CA'S jan and joe. A foreign born patient arrives. The patient speaks very poor english and is difficult to undertand. After joe escorts the patients to the treatment room, he starts joking about the patient's accent with jan. You overhear thair laughter and joking. which of the folllowing should u do.
A) DO NOTHING-the matter is outside the scope of CA practice B) dO NOTHING- it is a private joke and no harm is done to the patient C) REPORT IT TO THE SUPERVISING CHIROPRACTOR-it is unproffesional behavior D) try and join in the joke-it wwill be best the office morale
C) REPORT IT TO THE SUPERVISING CHIROPRACTOR-it is unproffesional behavior
You work as a CA for Dr. X. He is very friendly with u and often tells sex jokes. the jokes are funny but you feel a little uncomfortable with the jokes. Which of the following best describes the situation:
A) it may inappropriate behavior B) it may unprofessional behavior C) it is not inappropriate abd unprofessional-it is only a joke and the doctor has not engaged is any prhysical touching D) A AND B
D) A AND B
There is no fee to take the CA examination.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
B) FALSE
A supervising chiropractor receives a cerficate from the board attesting to his/her supervising status.
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
A) TRUE
Office wall. Tom has photocopy of his resgistration on the wall. When asked about his original registration, tom tells you to mind your own business. You should;
A) mind you own business B) do nothing-a photocopy of the registratiion is fine C) report the matter immediately to the supervising chiropractor D) none of the above
C) report the matter immediately to the supervising chiropractor
CA, amelia has an idea. She advises Dr.Z, that the practice could make good profits by adjunting dogs and cats. What should Dr. Z's response be?
A) '' good idea-there are substantial profits possible B) '' bad idea- chiropractor and CA's may not work on non-humans C) good idea- as long as we do not file insurance claims D) bad idea- there id no real profit in adjsuting domstic animals
B) '' bad idea- chiropractor and CA's may not work on non-humans
CA, Ben helps patient, freda onto the x-rays table. Ben then gently positions freda so that the supervising chiropractor can take an accurate x-ray of freda's lower back.
A) ben has acted properly within the scope of CA practice B) Ben has acted improperly outside the scope of CA practice
B) Ben has acted improperly outside the scope of CA practice
CA, sally arrives at the office at 8;30 am new patients start arriving at 9;00 am . Her supervising chiropractor calls and advises that she will be 1 hour late because of heavy traffic on the beltway. Which of the following is true?
A) SALLY may sign patients in
B) Sally may take basic vitals such as height and weight
C) A and/or B
D) none of the above
A and/or B
Taking height and weight of a patient can only be done under the direct supervision of the supervising chitopractor.
A) TRUE B)FALSE
B)FALSE
Patient gait practice and ambulation can only be done under the direct supervision of the supervising chiropractor. A) TRUE B) FALSE
A) TRUE
Assisting in the dressing and undressing of patients can only be done under direct supervision of the supervising chiropractor.
A) TRUE B) FALSE
B) FALSE
Demonstration of follow-up exercise may never be conducted by a registered CA.
A) TRUE B) FALSE
B) FALSE
Your supervising chiropractor tells you to verbally pass his diagnosis to the patient at the conclusion of the treatment you:
A) may do as directed B) may do it only if the doctor directs it in writing C) may not pass a diagnosis to a patient in any manner D) may only pass your personal, written diagnosis to the patient
C) may not pass a diagnosis to a patient in any manner
The board investigator subpoenas your office appointment calendar. under the regualtions, the calendar___ considered an official office record.
A) is B) IS NOT
A) IS
Patient billing records___ have to be released to the board on request.
