Chap 12,13,14

  1. 3 reasons for cell division
    • Reproduction
    • Growth and Development
    • Tissue Renewal
  2. From the beginning of the cell division to the end is called the
    cell cycle
  3. A cell's genetic information is called its ____________ which is made upof DNA
  4. DNA molecules are packages into
  5. The bodies cells (all except the reproductive cells) are called
    somatic cells
  6. Somatic cells have ____________ chromosomes
  7. Reproductive cells, or ___________ -spermand eggs- have half as many chromosomes as somatic cells
  8. Somatic cells are also called
    diploid cells
  9. Gametes are also called ____________ because they have half the amount of chromosomes
    haploid cells
  10. The sign for diploid is ______. The sign for haploid is _____
    n2, n
  11. Eukaryotic chromosomes are made of ____________, a complex of DNA and associated protein molecules.
  12. Each duplicated chromosomes has two _______________.
    sister chromatids
  13. The sister chromatids are attached by
    sister chromatid cohesion
  14. Two chromatids are attached at their "waist" called the
  15. Mitosis is
    the division of the nucleus
  16. The division of the cytoplasm immediately following mitosis is called
  17. Gametes are produced by
  18. Meiosis only occures in
    the testes or ovaries
  19. The mitotic (M) phase includes _____________ and ____________
    mitosis, cytokinesis
  20. During _________ the cell grows and copies its chromosomes
  21. Interphase can be divided into 3 phases
    • G1 phase
    • S phase (synthesis)
    • G2 phase
  22. During the subphases of interphase the cell grows by producing
    proteins and cytoplasmic organelles
  23. Chromosomes are duplicated in the
    S phase
  24. Mitosis is broken down into 5 stages
    • Prophase
    • Prometaphase
    • Metaphase
    • Anaphase
    • Telophase
  25. The mitotic spindle is made up of
    microtubules and associated proteins
  26. A sub-cellular region containing material that functions throughout the cell cycle to organize the cell's microtubules is called the
  27. A pair of _______________ is located at the center of the centrasome
  28. The centrosome relicates during which phase of the cell cycle
  29. Short microtubles extend form the centrosomes of a dividing cell are called
    an aster
  30. Sister chromatids of a replicated chromosome have a _______________, a structure of proteins associated with specific sections of chromosomal DNA
  31. At metaphase, the centromeres of all the duplicated chromosomes are on a plane midway between the spindle's two poles called the
    metaphase plate
  32. During _____________ the nucleoli dissapear and each duplicated chromosome appears as two identical sister chromatid
  33. During ________________ the nuclear envelope fragments, the microtubules extend from each centrasome and the chromosomes have become even more condensed
  34. During __________________ the centrasomes are at opposite poles of the cell, the chromosomes convene on the metaphase plate.
  35. ________________ is the longest stage of mitosis
  36. The shortest phase of mitosis is
  37. During ___________________ the sister chromatids part suddenlyand begin to move away from the metaphase plate and towards the centrosomes
  38. During ____________ two daughter nuclei form in the cell, Mitosis is now complete
  39. In animal cells, cytokinesis involves the formation of the ____________ which pinches the cell in two
    cleavage furrow
  40. The function of the cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that
    are geneticaly identical to the parent cell
  41. Sister chromatids
    all of the above
  42. The complex of DNA and protein that makes up a eukaryotic chromosome is properly called
  43. The region of a chromosome holding the two double strands of relicated DNA together is called
    a centromere
  44. If an intestinal cell in a grasshopper contains 24 chromosomes, a grasshopper sperm cell would contain ____________ chromosomes
  45. The centromere is a region in which ___________
    sister chromatids are attached to one another in prophase
  46. how many maternal chromosomes are present in a somatic human cell not engaged in cell division?
  47. A cell entering the cell cycle with 32 chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each with ___________
    32 chromosomes
  48. Cytokinesis refers to ___________
    division of the cytoplasm
  49. Chromatids are
    identical copies of each otherif they are part of the same chromosome
  50. If a cell contains 60 chromatids at the start of mitosis, how many chromosomes will be found in each daughtercell at the completion of the cell cycle?
  51. A biochemist measured the amount of DNAin cells growing in the laboratory and found that the quantity of DNA in the cells daoubles between _____ phase and _____ phase
    G1 and G2
  52. During interphase, the genetic material of a typical eukaryotic cell is _____
    dispersed in the nucleus as long strands of chomatin
  53. DNA relication occures in ____________
    S phase
  54. Chromatids form during
    the S phase
  55. If a somatic human cell is just about to divide, it has ____________ chromatids
  56. Which one of the following does not occure during mitosis
    replication of chromosomes
  57. During what phase in the cell cycle, would you find the most DNA per cell?
  58. In telophase of mitosis, the mitotic spindle breaks down and the chromatin uncoils. This is essentially the opposite of what happens in _________
  59. Which phase of mitosis is essentially the opposite of prometaphase in terms of the nuclear envelope?
  60. At which point in the cell cycle do centrosomes begin to move apart to two poles of the cell in a dividing human skin cell?
  61. The phase of mitosis during which the chromosomes move toward separate poles of the cell is
  62. One event occuring during prophase is ___________
    the beginning of the formation of a spindle apparatus
  63. The nuclear envelope disappears during
  64. Sister chromatids separate during
  65. In animal cell mitosis, the cleavage furrow forms during
  66. At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes lined up in one plave in preparation for their seperation to opposite poles of the cell?
  67. You would know a dividing cell is a plant cell if yousaw that
    It had formed a cell plate
  68. _____________ does not occur in dividing bacteria
  69. During binary fission in a bacterium ________
    the origins of replication move apart
  70. Binary fission in bacteria cells involves __________
    distribution of a copy of the single parental chromosome to each daughter cell
  71. When a cell in s phase is fused with a cell in G1, _________
    DNA synthesis begins immediately in the original G1 nucleus
  72. Tissue culture experiments with PDGF demonstrate that without this substance ______________
    fibroblasts fail to divide
  73. You would be unlikely to see which of the following human cells dividing?
    Nerve cell
  74. Observations of cancer cells in culture support the hypothesis that cancer cells ______________
    do not exhibit density-dependant inhibition
  75. What is the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor?
    Cells of benign tumors do not metastasize; those of malignant tumors do
  76. Monomers for the synthesis of DNA are called
  77. In DNA, thetwo purines are ______________, and the two pyridimines are ________________
    Adenine and guanine, cytosine and thymine
  78. Which bases are always together which each other and how many hydrogen bonds do they form
    adenosine and thymine form 2 hydrogen bonds, guanine and cytosine form 3 hydrogen binds
  79. The two sugar-phosphate strands of a DNA molecule are joined to each other through
    hydrogen bonds between nucleotide bases
  80. The informationin DNA is contained in
    the sequence of nucleotides along the length of the two strands of the DNA molecule
  81. Which of the following attributes of DNA is most crucial to its accurate duplication?
    its specific base pairing and hydrogen bonding
  82. During the replicaiton of DNA,_____________-
    both strands of molecules act as templates
  83. The DNA structures of prokaryotes and eukaryotes are different in several ways, but one way in which they are the same is that
    they both have a sugar-phsophate backbone
  84. At each end of a DNA replicaiton bubble is
    a replication fork
  85. The role of DNA polymerases in DNA replicaiton is to
    attach free nucleotides to the new strand
  86. The rate of elongation in prokaryotes is ____________ the rate in eukaryotes
    much faster than
  87. The two strands of a DNA double helix are antiparallel. This means that _________
    one strand runs in the 5' to 3' direction, the othe rruns in the 3' to 5' direction
  88. DNA polymerase adds nucleoties to __________ of the leading strands, and to the ________ of the lagging strands (Okazaki fragments)
    3' end, 3' end
  89. What enzyme joins Okazaki fragments?
    DNA ligase
  90. After the formation of a replication bubble, what is the correct sequence of enzymes used for the synthesis of the lagging DNA strand
    helicases, primase, DNA polymerase, ligase
  91. What is the componant required for DNA replication?
    RNA primer
  92. The removal of the RNA primer and addition of DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments in its place is carried out by
    DNA polymerase I
  93. The unwinding of DNA at the replication fork causes twisting and strain in the DNA ahead of the fork, which is relieved by an enzyme called
  94. Once the DNA at the replication fork is unwound by helicases, what prevents the two strands from coming back to reform a double helix?
    Single-strand binding proteins bind the unwound DNA and prevent the double helix from reforming
  95. ____________ seperate the two strands of the double helix, the DNA polymerases then construct two new strands using each of the original strands as templates
  96. The overall error rate in the completed DNA molecules is approximately
    1 to 10,000,000,000 nucleotides
  97. The incorporation of an incorrect base into the DNA during replication can be repaired by
    the mismatch repair system
  98. The set of enzymes involved in nucleotide excision repair are
    nulease, DNA polymerase and ligase
  99. Unlike prokaryotic replicaiton, replicaiton of eukaryotic chromosomes
    cannot be completed by DNA polymerase
  100. ____________ get shorter with continued cell division.
  101. _____________ is an enzyme that lengthens telomeres.
  102. How many genes are present in the human genome?
    tens of thousands
  103. What is a locus
    the precise location of a gene on a chromosome
  104. Sexual and asexual reproduction are alike in that ______
    they can both occur in multicellular organisms
  105. Unless the chromosomes were stained to show band patterns, a karyotype would be least likely tp show
    part of a chromosome turned around
  106. A karyotype is
    a photograph of all of an individual's chromosomes
  107. Fertilization produces
    a diploid zygote
  108. A life cycle in which the only multicellular form is haploid os most typical of
  109. _______________ is where a cell contains half the parental chromosome number.
  110. In sexually reproducing species, the chromsome number remains stable over time because _______ and ___________ always alternate.
    meiosis and fertilization
  111. The egg of a rabbit contains 22 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the somatic cells of the rabbit?
  112. In a diploid cell containing 10 chromosomes, meiosis results in the formation of daughter cells containing _____________ chromosomes
  113. How many pairs of autosomes do humans have?
  114. Sister chromatids are _____________________ formed during DNA synthesis
    identical copies of each other
  115. When we say that an organism is haploid, we mean that
    its cells have a single set of chromosomes
  116. Nearly all life cycles have both haploid and diploid phases. Usually, the transition from haploid to diploid takes place at
    fertilization, when gametes fuse
  117. At the end of telophase I of meiosis and the first cytokinesis, there are ___________
    two haploid cells
  118. What is the result when a diploid cell undergoes meiosis?
    four haploid cells
  119. Synapsis occurs during
    prophase I
  120. Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles duirng
    anaphase I
  121. Cytokinesis is
    the division of one cell into two
  122. What is the function of meiosis?
    To make cells with a haploid number of chromosomes
  123. Crossing over occurs during
    prophase I
  124. Regions of chromosomes where nonsister chromatids cross over are called
  125. The synaptonemal complex _________
    physically connects homolgous chromosomes during prophase I
  126. An organism has a haploid chromosome number n=4. How many tetrads will form during meiosis?
  127. What event occurs only during prophase I of the first meiotic division
    Synapsis of homologous pairs occurs
  128. In a male mammal, every cell that undergoes meiosis gices rise to _______ sperm
  129. What occurs in meiosis but not mitosis?
    homologous chromosomes seperate
  130. Ignoring crossover, how many kinds of gametes can be produced by an organism with a diploid numebr of 8?
  131. In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is 23. Independent assortment has the possibility of producing ________ different types of gametes
  132. The major contribution of sex to evolution is that ____________
    It provides a method to increase genetic variation.
  133. Genetic information of eukaryotic cells is transferred from the nucleus to the cytoplasm in the form of ______
  134. Each amino acid in a protein is coded for by _____ bases in the DNA
  135. When RNA is being made, the RNA base ______ always pairs with the base ____ in DNA
    U; A
  136. Generally speaking, how many genetic codes are there?
  137. What mRNA codon would be made from the DNA triplet CGT
  138. The number of bases "read" together on the mRNA to designate each amino acid is ________; this unit is called a _______
    3; codon
  139. The codons AAA, CCC, and UUU specify the amino acid lysine, proline, glycine, and phenylalanin. Which DNA sequence would specify the peptide pro-gly-lys-phe if present in the semplate strand?
  140. The codons AAA, CCC, GGG, and UUU specify the amino acid lysine, proline, glycine and phenylalanin. What peptide sequence would 5'-CCCAAATTTGGG-3', if present in the ciding strand of the DNA?
  141. How many nucleotides are needed to code for a protein with 450 amino acids?
    at least 1,350
  142. In many cases, more than one codon codes for the same amino acid. Because of this, we say that the code is __________
  143. Bacteria can transcribe and translate human genes to produce funtional human proteins because ____________
    the genetic code is universal
  144. At one point as a cell carried out its day-to-day activities, the nucleotides GAT were paired with the nucleotides CUA. This paring occurred __
    during transcription
  145. What catalyzes the linkage between ribonucleotides to form RNA during gene expression?
    RNA polymerase
  146. In eukaryiotic cells, a terminator in mRNA synthesis is __________
    a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that signals the RNA polymerase to stop
  147. In a eukaryotic cell. transcription takes place in _________
    the nucleus
  148. During the transcription of a given portion of a DNA molecule __________
    mRNA is synthesized on only one of the chains
  149. In eukaryotes, what is the mechanisms of gene regulation that operate after transcription, but before translation of mRNA into protein?
    RNA splicing
  150. Usually, in eukaryotic gene exons are ______________, but the RNA ________ from introns does not leave the nucleus.
  151. Introns are cut out of the primary transcript, and the resulting exons are spliced together describes _____________
    mRNA processing
  152. The structures called snRNPs are part of
    the spliceosome
  153. Nuclei of eukaryotic cells contain spliceosomes that are made up of _______
    snRNA and protein
  154. A cell biologist found that two different proteins with largely different structures were translated from two different mRNAs. These mRNAs, however, were transcribed from the same template within the cell nucleus. Which mechanism could best account for this?
    Exons from the same gene could be spliced in different ways to make different mRNA's
  155. The funtions of tRNA during protein synthesis is to___________
    deliver amino acids to their proper site during protein synthesis
  156. The bonds that hold tRNA molecules in the correct three-dimentional shape are
    hydrogen bonds
  157. During translation in a eukaryotic cell polypeptides are synthesized at _______, according to instructions carried by _____
    ribosomes, mRNA
  158. The P site of a ribosome does what?
    It holds the tRNA carrying the growing polypeptide chain
  159. The first amino acid inserted into a new polypeptide chain in eukaryotic cells is always ___________
  160. During translation, amino acid chain elongation occurs until __________
    the ribosome encounters a "stop" codon
  161. Polysomes may be defined as ____________
    groups of ribosomes
  162. What is the proper order of events in the expression of a eukaryotic gene?
    • transcription
    • RNA processing
    • translation
    • modification of protein
  163. What is a key difference in gene expression between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
    In prokaryotic cells, the mRNA transcript is immediately available as mRNA without processing.
  164. A genetecist found that a particular mutation had no effect on the polypeptide encoded by the gene. This mutation probably involved ________
    a silent or neutral mutation
  165. What type of mutation is least likely to affect the function of the protein corresponding to the gene in which the mutation occurs?
    base-pair substitution
  166. A base-pair substitution mutation in a germ cell line is likey to have no effect on phenotype if the substitution ______
    occurs in an intron
  167. A virus infects a cell and randomly inserts many short segments of DNA containing a stop codom throughout the organism's chromosomes. This will probably cause
    manufactured proteins to be short and defective
  168. A point mutation in which a single base pair is inserted or deleted from DNA is called a
    frame-shift mutation
  169. Ultraviolet radiation is damaging to cells because it ___________--
    causes mutations in the DNA
  170. Transcription factors are found in ___________
    archaea and eukaryotes
  171. These unwinds the parental double helix at the replication forks
  172. This binds to and stabalizzes single-strand DNA until it can be usedd as a template
    Single-strand binding protein
  173. _______________ relieves strain ahead of replication forks by breaking, swiveling and rejoining DNA strands
  174. _____________- synthesizes and RNA primer at 5' end of leading strand and each of Okazaki fragment of lagging strand
  175. __________________ uses parental DNA as a template, synthesizes new DNA strand by covalently adding nucleotides to the 3' end of a pre-existing DNA strand or RNA primer
    DNA pol III
  176. _________________ removes RNA nucleotides of primer from 5' end and replaces them with DNA nucleotides
    DNA pol I
  177. _____________ joins 3' end of DNA that replaces primer to rest of leading strand and joins Okazaki fragments of lagging strand
    DNA ligase
Card Set
Chap 12,13,14
Second Test