CPC Exam

  1. This is the outermost layer of the skin:



    A. epidermis
  2. Which of the follwing is NOT a part of the skin or accessory organs:



    A. haversian
  3. This prefix means beside:



    B. para-
  4. This combining form means hair:



    D. trich/o
  5. The lunula is the:



    A. white area at the base of the nail plate
  6. The subcutaneous tissue is also known as:



    C. hypodermis
  7. Which of the following combining forms does not refer to a color?



    B. pachy/o
  8. This medical term means the surgical incision into dead tissue:



    C. escharotomy
  9. This suffix means surgical repair:



    B. -plasty
  10. The soft tissue around the nail border is the:



    B. paronychium
  11. A pimple is an example of a:



    C. pustule
  12. A Stage II pressure ulcer involves:



    C. full thickness loss of skin up to but not through fascia
  13. This type of dermatitis may be exogenous or endogenous and is common in children and infants:



    A. atopic
  14. Psoriasis, pityriasis, and lichen planus are three types of this disorder:



    D. papulosquamous
  15. This condition begins with a herald spot:



    B. pityriasis
  16. This skin infection is caused by group A beta hemolytic Streptococci, and the lesions appear as firm red spots with itching, burning, and tenderness:



    B. erysipelas
  17. This type of herpes procdues cold sores:



    D. herpes simplex
  18. This condition is caused by the human papillomavirus:



    C. verrucae
  19. This type of tumor occurs in the hair follicles:



    B. keratoacanthoma
  20. This type of superficial carcinoma is rarely metastatic:



    D. squamous cell
  21. Tubular is another name for these bones:



    D. long
  22. These bones are found near joints:



    C. sesamoid
  23. The zygoma is an example of this type of bone:



    B. irregular
  24. The diaphysis is this part of the bone:



    D. shaft
  25. Which is NOT a part of the cranium?



    B. condyle
  26. This is NOT an ear bone:



    A. styloid
  27. This term describes the growth plate:



    B. epiphyseal
  28. This is a depression on the lateral hip surface into which the head of the femur fits:



    C. acetabulum
  29. The tip of the elbow is the:



    A. olecranon
  30. This term describes an immobable joint:



    C. synarthrosis
  31. A compound fracture is also known as:



    B. open
  32. This is a common bone disorder in postmenopausal women resulting from lower levels of calcium and potassium:



    B. osteoporosis
  33. This inflammatory disease is progressive and leads to a rigid spinal column:



    A. ankylosing spondylitis
  34. This type of tumor arises from the bone cells:



    C. osteogenic
  35. This type of tumor is the most commone type of malignant bone tumor that occurs in those over 40:



    A. multiple myeloma
  36. A general muscle inflammation with an accompanying skin rash is:



    A. dermatomylsitis
  37. A cartilage tumor that ususally occurs in middle-aged and older individuals:



    A. chondrosarcoma
  38. The returning of the bone to normal alignment is:



    B. reduction
  39. The result of overuse or overextension of a ligament is:



    B. sprain
  40. Primary osteoarthritis is also known as:



    A. idiopathic
  41. This is NOT a part of the lower respiratory tract:



    C. larynx
  42. Another name for the voicebox is:



    C. larynx
  43. This is the windpipe:



    D. trachea
  44. The interior of the nose is divided by the:



    B. septum
  45. This combining form means incomplete:



    D. atel/o
  46. This prefix means breathe:



    B. spir/o
  47. This prefix means all:



    D. pan-
  48. This abbreviation refers to a syndrome that involves difficulty in breathing:



    C. ARDS
  49. This abbreviation refers to the amount of air the patient can expel from the lungs in 1 second:



    A. FEV1
  50. This suffix means breathing:



    B. -pnea
  51. Acute injury to the alveolocapillary membrane that results in edema and atelectasis:



    D. acute respiratory distress syndrome
  52. The condition in which pus is in the pleural space and is often a complication of pneumonia:



    B. empyema
  53. The most common type of atelectasis is:



    C. absorption
  54. This condition is a result of the accumulation of dust particles in the lung:



    B. pneumoconiosis
  55. An irreversible airway obstructive disease in which the symptoms are bronchial spasm, dyspnea, and wheezing:



    A. asthma
  56. Capillary, cystic, follicular, and varicose are examples of:



    D. bronchiectasis
  57. The condition in which there is a loss of elasticity and enlargement of alveoli:



    B. emphysema
  58. The definition of a chronic cough is one that last for over this numer of weeks:



    B. 3
  59. A condition marked by an increase in the carbon dioxide in the arterial blood and decreased ability to breathe that can result in repiratory acidosis:



    C. hypercapnia
  60. This condition often follows a viral infection and occurs in children under 2 years of age. Examples of the various types of the condition are constrictive, proliferating, and obliterative.



    C. bronchiolitis
  61. Carry blood to the heart:



    D. veins
  62. The relaxation phase of the heartbeat:
    a. diastole
    b. systole
    a. diastole
  63. Nature's pacemaker is this node:



    B. sinoatrial
  64. Node located on the interatrial septum:



    A. atrioventricular
  65. Which of the following is NOT one of the tree layers of the chamber walls of the heart:



    C. parietal
  66. Septum that divides the upper two chambers of the heart:



    B. interatrial
  67. This is the valve between the right atrium and right ventricle:



    C. tricuspid
  68. The outer two-layer covering of the heart:



    B. pericardium
  69. These are the chambers that receive blood:



    D. right and left atria
  70. This combining form means plaque:



    C. ather/o
  71. Lesions of the carotid artery may lead to:



    D. stroke
  72. This blood pressure is hypertension:



    A. 120/80
  73. Tachyarrythmia or fast heart rate is that in excess of _________ bpm.



    C. 100
  74. Angina pectoris is:



    D. chest pain
  75. In this type of regurgitation there is a backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium:



    C. mitral
  76. In this type of heart wall disorder, fibrous lesions form and encase the heart:



    B. constrictive pericarditis
  77. Which of the following terms means "of unknown cause"?



    D. idiopathic
  78. This condition is also known as congestive cardiomyopathy:



    C. dilated
  79. This peripheral arterial disease most often occurs in young men who are heavy smokers:



    D. Bueger's
  80. This cardiomyopathy results in a thicken interventricular septum:



    A. hypertrophic
  81. This is NOT one of the three layers of the uterus:



    C. epimetrium
  82. Located at the lower end of the uterus is the:



    A. cervix
  83. The approximate gestation of a human fetus is:



    D. 266 days
  84. The LMP is the:



    B. last menstural period
  85. Name of the stage that describes the develpment of the fetus from fertilization to birth is the:



    D. prenatal
  86. Which of the following correctly identifies the tree trimesters of gestation?



    A. LMP-12 weeks, 13-27 weeks, 28-EDD
  87. Combining form means few:



    A. olig/o
  88. Combining form means hidden:



    A. crypt/o
  89. Suffix means the beginning:



    D. -arche
  90. Prefix meaning within:



    A. endo-
  91. The most common solution used for intra-amniotic injection is:



    C. saline
  92. The type of dysmenorrhea is treated with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents and progesterone:



    B. primary
  93. In this type of amenorrhea there is a cessation of menstruation:



    D. secondary
  94. Oligomenorrhea


    C. in excess of 6 weeks
  95. Metrorrhagia


    C. bleeding between cycles
  96. Menorrhagia


    B. increased amount and duration of flow
  97. Increased risks of breast cancer, ovarian cancer, and non-Hodgkins lymphoma exist with this condition:



    B. endometriosis
  98. This benign lesion is also known as uterine fibroids:



    A. lieomyoma
  99. Marginal, partial, and total are the types of this condition:



    B. placenta previa
  100. Which of the following is NOT a malposition of fetus?



    C. back
  101. This gland activates the sperm and produces some seminal fluid:



    D. prostate gland
  102. Carries the sperm from the testes to the exterior:



    A. duct
  103. The penis contains these erectile tissues:



    C. two corpora cavernosa and one spongiosum
  104. Also known as Cowper's gland:



    B. bulburethral gland
  105. Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ?



    B. gonads
  106. Combining form meaning male:



    B. andr/o
  107. Combining form meaning glans penis:



    A. balan/o
  108. The testes are covered by the:



    A. tunica albuginea
  109. This abbreviation describes a surgical resection of the prostate that is accompished by means of an endoscope inserted into the urethra:



    D. TURP
  110. This abbreviation describes a condition of the prostate in which there is an enlargement that is benign:



    D. BPH
  111. What is the condition in which the testes do not descend?



    C. cryptorchidism
  112. Orchitis is most often caused by a:



    C. virus
  113. A condition that can be either congenital or acquired through trauma and that involves twisting of the testes is:



    B. torsion
  114. Cancer of the ___________ is divided into two main groups of germ cell tumors and sex cord tumors.



    C. testes
  115. This type of surgical technique involves excision of a lesion in layers until no further evidence of abnormality is seen:



    A. Moh's
  116. Epispadias is a disorder of the urethra in which the urethral meatus is located on the __________ side of the penis:



    A. dorsal
  117. Inflammation of the glans is:



    C. balanitis
  118. This disease is also known as the bent nail syndrome:



    C. Peyronie
  119. The condition in which multiple fibroadenomatous nodules form and lead to decreased urine flow. The condition is thought to be related to increased levels of estrogen/androgen.



    D. BPH
  120. Cancer of the prostate is predominately this type of cancer:



    D. adenocarcinoma
  121. The outer covering of the kidney:



    A. cortex
  122. Which is not a division of the kidneys?



    C. trigone
  123. The inner portion of the kidneys:



    C. medulla
  124. The smooth area inside the bladder:



    B. trigone
  125. The narrow tube connecting the kidney and bladder:



    D. ureter
  126. Which of the following is NOT a surface of the urinary bladder?



    B. inferior
  127. Combining form that means stone:



    D. lith/o
  128. Term meaning painful urination:



    D. dysuria
  129. Combining form meaning scant:



    D. olig/o
  130. Term that describes renal failure that is acute:



    C. ARF
  131. Which of the following is NOT a type of acute renal failure?



    A. interrenal
  132. The loss of nephron function in end-stage renal disease is:



    D. 90%
  133. The cause of bacterial cystitis is usually:
    a. proteus
    b. Pseudomonas
    c. Staphylococci
    d. E. coli
    d. E. coli
  134. The primary treatment for acute pyelonephritis would be:



    C. antibiotics
  135. APSGN stands for:



    A. acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
  136. Obstructive uropathy is also known as:



    D. urinary tract obstruction
  137. A treatment for kidney stone may be:



    • D. ESWL
    • OR
    • c. open surgical procedure
  138. The treatment for hydronephrosis involves:



    D. treatment of the underlying condition
  139. This is a congenital condition in which numerous cycsts form in the kidney:



    A. polycystic kidney
  140. The treatment of Wilms' would NOT include which of the following?



    D. diuretic
  141. This is not a part of the small intestine:



    A. cecum
  142. Term meaning a ring of muscles:



    A. sphincter
  143. The throat is also known as the:



    B. pharynx
  144. The three parts of the stomach:



    A. fundus, body, antrum
  145. The projection at the back of the mouth:



    B. uvula
  146. Mucosal membrane that lines the stomach:



    A. rugae
  147. The parts of the colon are:



    A. ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid
  148. Combining form meaning abdomen:



    D. celi/o
  149. Term that means tying together of two ends of a tube:



    B. anastomosis
  150. Abbreviation that means a scope placed through the esphagus, into the stomach, and to the duodenum:



    A. EGD
  151. The mediastinum is not an organ system:
    a. true
    b. false
    a. true
  152. The mediastinum is divided into:



    B. superior, anterior, posterior, middle
  153. During inspiration, the diaphragm:



    D. flattens out
  154. The term means partition:



    B. median
  155. The diaphragm is said to be this shape:



    A. dome
  156. This separates the abdominal cavity from the thoracic cavity:



    C. diaphragm
  157. This is the area between the lungs:



    C. mediastinum
  158. This is an esophageal hernia:



    A. diaphragmatic
  159. A diaphragmatic hernia is also known as:



    B. esophageal
  160. The diaphragm assists in:



    C. breathing
  161. The spleen is located in this quadrant of the abdomen:



    C. ULQ
  162. Produces RBCs and platelets:



    A. bone marrow
  163. Which of the following is NOT a lymph organ?



    D. adrenal
  164. Lymph transports fluids and _________ that have leaked from the blood system back to the veins.



    D. proteins
  165. This is the largest in infants and shrinks with age:



    C. thymus
  166. Combining form meaning gland:



    B. aden/o
  167. Prefix meaning excess:



    C. hyper-
  168. Suffix meaning enlargement:



    C. -megaly
  169. Lymph node located on neck:



    B. jugular
  170. These cells originate in the bone marrow:



    A. stem cells
  171. This condition involves a reduced number of erythrocytes and decreased quality of hemoglobin:



    B. anemia
  172. This condition is hallmarked by a shortened survival of mature erythrocytes and inability of bone marrow to compensate for decreased survival:



    B. hemolytic anemia
  173. The most common cause of this disease is Epstein-Barr virus:



    B. infectious mononucleosis
  174. Inflammation of the lymphatic vessels is:



    C. lymphangitis
  175. What giant cell is present in Hodgkins disease?



    A. Reed-Sternberg
  176. The average number of years of survival for multiple myeloma is:



    C. 3
  177. Injection of vitamin B may be prescribed for this type of anemia:



    A. pernicious
  178. These are large stem cells:



    D. megoblasts
  179. This is known as the kissing disease:



    A. infectious mononucleosis
  180. This lymphoma is usually found in Africa:



    C. Burkitt
  181. Which of the following is NOT affected by the endocrine system?



    C. progesterone
  182. Gland that overlays the trachea:



    D. thyroid
  183. Gland that is located on the top of each kidney:



    B. adrenal
  184. The outer region of the adrenal gland that secretes coricosteroids:



    C. cortex
  185. Located on the thyroid:



    D. parathyroid
  186. Located at the base of the brain in a depression in the skull:



    C. pituitary
  187. Stimulates contractions during childbirth:



    D. oxytocin
  188. Produced only during pregnancy by the placenta:



    A. estrogen and progesterone
  189. Combining form meaning secrete:



    A. crin/o
  190. Prefix meaning good:



    B. eu-
  191. This type of diabetes typically occurs before age 30:
    a. type 1
    b. type 2
    a. type 1
  192. The acronym that indicates that insulin is not required is:



    C. NIDDM
  193. The most common cause of pituitary disorders is:



    D. tumor
  194. In excess, this horomone can cause gigantism:



    B. somatotrophin
  195. Goiter can be caused by which of the following:



    D. both a and c
  196. This type of hypothyroidism is an autoimmune disorder:



    B. Hashimoto's
  197. Tetany can be caused by:



    D. hypoparahyroidism
  198. Conn's syndrome is also known as:



    B. primary hyperaldosteronism
  199. Development of male characteristicsis known as:



    D. virilization
  200. The treatment for Addison disease is often:



    C. hormone replacement
  201. Portion of the nervous system that contains the cranial and spinal nerves:



    D. peripheral
  202. The part of the neuron that receives signals:



    B. dendrites
  203. NOT associated with glia:



    B. monocytes
  204. Largest part of the brain:



    D. cerebrum
  205. Divided into two hemispheres:



    D. cerebrum
  206. The number of pairs of cranial nerves:



    D. 12
  207. Controls the right side of the body:



    B. left cerebrum
  208. Combining form that means brain:



    A. encephal/o
  209. Prefix that means four:



    B. tetra-
  210. Combining form that means speech:



    C. phas/o
  211. The most common dementia is:



    B. Alzheimer's disease
  212. MND stands for:



    A. motor neuron disease
  213. Dopamine replacement is useful in treating:



    C. Parkinson's disease
  214. The condition in which the primary symptoms are muscle weakness and fatigability:



    D. myasthenia gravis
  215. Another name for idiopathic polyneuritis is:



    D. Guillain-Barre syndrome
  216. The condition is thought to be caused by genetic factors and possibly fetal brain damage:



    B. schizophrenia
  217. This condition is associated with viral infection, especially when aspirin has been administered:



    A. Reye's syndrome
  218. Concussion is a mild blow to the head in which recovery is expected within _________ hours.



    A. 24
  219. ICP means:



    A. intracranial pressure
  220. In this type of hematoma, blood mixes with cerebrospinal fluid:



    C. subarachnoid
  221. The middle layer of the eye:



    C. choroid
  222. The covering of the front of sclera and lining of eyelid:



    C. conjunctive
  223. Which of the following is NOT a bone of the middle ear?



    A. cochlea
  224. This cranial nerve controls the sense of smell:



    B. I
  225. Which of the following is NOT part of the inner ear?



    D. pinna
  226. These receptors react to touch:



    D. mechanoreceptors
  227. These react to positon and orientation:



    B. proprioceptors
  228. Combining form meaning eyelid:



    B. blephar/o
  229. Combining form meaning eye lens:



    A. phak/o
  230. Abbreviation meaning the pupils are round, reactive to light, equal, and reactive to accommodation:



    D. PERRLA
  231. This condition can be acquired or congenital and results in an irregular curvature of the refractive surfaces of the eye:



    A. astigmatism
  232. In this condition the eyeball is shorter than normal and results in being able to see objects in the distance but not close up:



    D. hyperopia
  233. Rapid, involuntary eye movement is the predominant symptom of this condition:



    C. nystagmus
  234. Age-related farsightedness is:



    D. presbyopia
  235. Another name for a stye is:



    D. hordeolum
  236. An inflammation of the cornea that is cause by herpes simplex virus is:



    A. keratitis
  237. In this condition there is destruction of the fovea centralis:



    A. macular degeneration
  238. This is an infection that occurs in the middle ear cavity:



    B. otitis media
  239. The hearing loss that can be due to a lesion on the cochlea is:



    B. sensorineural
  240. This conduction is also known as perceptive deafness:



    B. sensorineural
Author
CPC
ID
1391
Card Set
CPC Exam
Description
P&A
Updated