19 Study Guide

Which is not a plasma component?
A. colloids
B. gases
C. electrolytes
D. platelets
E. glucose

Which is the most abundant protein in blood plasma?
A. globulins
B. immunoglobulins
C. fibrinogen
D. hormones
E. albumins

Eosinophils:
A. ingest antigen-antibody complexes.
B. only a and c are correct.
C. can phagocytize.
D. a, b, and c are correct.
E. can be induced to attack parasites.

The precursor of granulocytes is the:
A. megakaryoblast.
B. M-CSF.
C. monoblast.
D. myeloblast.

Identify the correct sequence in the differentiation of erythrocytes.
A. proerythroblast, normal blast, reticulocyte
B. normoblast, proerythroblast, reticulocyte
C. normoblast, erythroblast, reticulocyte
D. normoblast, reticulocyte, erythroblast

A differential count of WBCs includes all of the following except:
A. 3% to 8% monocytes and macrophages.
B. 35% to 36% lymphocytes.
C. 54% to 67% neutrophils.
D. 5% to 10% natural killer cells.
E. 3% reticulocytes.

The purpose of erythropoietin is to:
A. control the size of platelets.
B. decrease maturation of erythroblasts.
C. control erythrocyte production.
D. detect hypoxia.

The main regulator of platelet circulating mass is:
A. thromboxane.
B. GP11b/111a complex
C. ADP.
D. thrombopoietin.

About how many times more RBCs than WBCs are there in a mm³ of blood?
A. 15
B. 90
C. 100
D. 1000
E. None of the above are correct.

If the total leukocytic count of an individual was 7000/mm³, about how many neutrophils would normally be present in a mm³ of blood?
A. 2100
B. 700
C. 3000
D. 400
E. 4200

Which granulocyte function is similar to that of tissue mast cells?
A. neutrophils
B. monocytes
C. eosinophils
D. lymphocytes
E. basophils

Erythropoietin:
A. is secreted by the kidney.
B. production is stimulated by tissue hypoxia.
C. causes recycling of iron for production of RBCs.
D. is released by the kidney to stimulate erythrocyte and platelet formation.
E. Both a and b are correct.

Which is not an agranulocyte?
A. mast cell
B. lymphocyte
C. monocyte
D. reticulocyte
E. Both a and d are correct.

Which is the most effective phagocytes?
A. neutrophils and basophils
B. lymphocytes and eosinophils
C. basophils and monocytes
D. neutrophils and monocytes
E. None of the above is correct.

Which vitamins are needed for erythropoiesis?
A. C and E
B. B₂ and B₁₂
C. A and D
D. Both a and b are correct.
E. a, b, and c are correct.

IL-3
A. macrophage, neutrophil
B. normoblast
C. eosinophil
D. erythroblast
E. erythrocytes

GM
a. erythrocytes
b. macrophage, neutrophil
c. eosinophil
d. normoblast
e. erythroblast

Kupffer cells are found in the:
A. liver.
B. spleen and lymph nodes.
C. bone marrow.
D. kidney.

Which test reflects bone marrow activity?
A. Hematocrit mean
B. g/dl
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Hemoglobin mean

As an individual ages:
A. the erythrocyte life span shortens.
B. lymphocytic function decreases.
C. platelet numbers decrease.
D. All of the above are correct.

Hemostasis involves all of the following except:
A. clot formation.
B. platelet plug formation.
C. intrinsic pathway activities.
D. vasoconstriction.
E. prostacyclin I.

When a blood vessel is damaged:
A. subendothelial collagen is exposed.
B. platelets are attracted to collagen.
C. platelets degranulate.
D. Both a and b are correct.
E. a, b, and c are correct.

The biochemical mediators released by adhering platelets cause:
A. vasodilation of the injured vessel.
B. vasoconstriction of the injured vessel.
C. the inflammatory process to proceed.
D. All of the above are correct.

Which is the correct sequence in coagulation?
A. damaged tissue, VII, prothrombin
B. prothrombin activator complex, X, XA
C. X, tissue thromboplastin, XA
D. fibrinogen, thrombin, stabilizer fibrin

Which is the correct sequence in fibrinolysis?
A. fibrin, plasminogen
B. plasmin, FDP
C. plasminogen, XIIa
D. FDP, fibrinogen